113 Questions
Which type of inheritance is characterized by a single altered gene and a parent who is heterozygous for the trait?
Autosomal dominant inheritance
What type of disorder has examples like Huntington’s disease, achondroplasia, and neurofibromatosis?
Autosomal dominant disorders
In X-linked recessive inheritance, which offspring has a higher risk of inheriting the trait?
Sons of a female carrier
Which type of inheritance involves both genetic and environmental factors influencing the development of conditions like cleft lip and neural tube defects?
Multifactorial inheritance
What is the risk of passing an autosomal recessive trait to offspring when both parents have the altered gene?
75%
If a female has an X-linked dominant trait, what is the chance of passing the trait to her daughters?
50%
During which period of fetal development does the external genitalia begin to form?
Weeks 13 to 16
At what week does urine production begin during the fetal period?
Week 13
What is the purpose of the ductus venosus in fetal circulation?
Bypasses the liver and enters the inferior vena cava
Which substance is produced by 24 weeks and is important for lung function in the fetus?
Surfactant
Which membrane forms the fetal portion of the placenta?
Chorion
What is the primary function of amniotic fluid?
Maintains normal body temperature
What is the approximate fetal weight by 20 weeks of gestation?
300 g
During fetal circulation, what does the foramen ovale do?
Facilitates blood supply to head and extremities
Which weeks mark the stage where a fetus may survive if born prematurely?
Weeks 26 to 29
How much amniotic fluid is present at 24 weeks?
800 mL
What is the significance of quickening during the fetal period?
Mother's first perception of fetal movements
What is the purpose of Wharton's jelly in fetal development?
Protects umbilical cord from compression
During which process does the phenomenon of cleavage occur?
Mitosis
Which hormone plays a crucial role in the early detection of pregnancy?
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
What is the essential function of the yolk sac during gestation?
Transfer of nutrients
Which structure prevents fertilization by other sperm after a sperm has penetrated the egg?
Zona pellucida
What is the primary function of the placenta during pregnancy?
Providing oxygenation and nutrition to the fetus
Which hormone leads to the maintenance of the uterine lining during early pregnancy?
Progesterone
What is the primary purpose of Doppler ultrasound blood flow assessment?
Assessing blood flow
Which prenatal test involves the assessment of maternal-fetal movement?
Biophysical profile (BPP)
What are some conditions that can be determined using 2D sonogram?
Presence of pregnancy and fetal sex determination
What aspect of fetal development does a 3D ultrasound image primarily capture?
Fetal abnormalities
During which prenatal test is amniotic fluid sampled for genetic analysis?
Amniocentesis
What is the primary purpose of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling in prenatal testing?
Genetic analysis through blood sampling
Which antepartum fetal surveillance test evaluates fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations, reactivity, and may not develop until 32 weeks in the fetus?
Nonstress Test (NST)
Which procedure is used in antepartum fetal surveillance to determine how the fetal heart responds to uterine contractions that temporarily decrease placental blood flow?
Nipple stimulation
What does FHR reactivity with accelerations indicate during antepartum fetal surveillance?
Adequate fetal oxygenation and intact neural pathways
Which test, part of the Biophysical Profile (BPP), quantifies the amount of amniotic fluid visualized by ultrasound?
Amniotic fluid index measurement
Which antepartum fetal surveillance test involves using nipple stimulation or low-dose oxytocin and cannot be done if contraindicated?
Contraction Stress Test (CST)
What information does the Biophysical Profile (BPP) provide during antepartum fetal surveillance?
Data on five parameters including fetal tone and amniotic fluid volume
What are some danger signs of pregnancy that may indicate pre-term labor?
Vaginal bleeding, increased vaginal discharge of clear fluid, pelvic pressure
Which combination of symptoms may suggest the presence of preeclampsia during pregnancy?
Visual disturbances, severe backache, epigastric pain
Which physical assessments are typically conducted during prenatal visits to monitor maternal and fetal well-being?
Blood pressure, uterine activity, fetal surveillance
What are common symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy?
Dysuria, severe backache, fever
Which fetal surveillance methods are typically employed after 12 weeks of pregnancy?
Fundal height measurement, presence of fetal activity
What is a symptom commonly associated with preterm labor that may indicate the need for immediate medical attention?
Persistent abdominal cramping with or without nausea and vomiting or diarrhea
Which maternal assessment method involves counting at least 10 fetal movements within 12 hours?
Kick count assessment
In fetal assessment, which factor is NOT included in the Biophysical Profile (BPP)?
Fetal length and gestational age
What is a key consideration in the assessment of pregnant patients undergoing diagnostic testing?
Patient's understanding of test and reasons for it
Which aspect is NOT part of the assessment of a patient who has diagnostic testing?
Patient's and partner's financial status
What does the acronym BPP stand for in fetal assessment?
Biophysical Profile
Which term refers to the process of assessing fetal movements by the mother, often called 'kick counts'?
Fetal movement assessment
What is one of the possible risks associated with chorionic villus sampling (CVS) mentioned in the text?
Higher risk of minor nail or phalangeal hypoplasia
What is the difference in risk of pregnancy loss between chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and amniocentesis as mentioned in the text?
0.5-1 percent higher risk with CVS
What is another name for percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) as mentioned in the text?
Cordocentesis
At which gestational timeframe is second trimester amniocentesis typically performed according to the text?
15-20 weeks
What is the primary purpose of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) as described in the text?
Obtaining fetal blood for prenatal diagnosis
What is one of the potential outcomes if chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is performed between 9 and 12 weeks gestation as mentioned in the text?
Possible minor nail or phalangeal hypoplasia
What fetal assessment test evaluates fetal heart rate accelerations and reactivity and may not develop until 32 weeks?
Nonstress test (NST)
Which prenatal test samples amniotic fluid for genetic analysis?
Amniocentesis
Which prenatal test is primarily used to identify fetal abnormalities?
Chorionic villus sampling
What does Doppler ultrasound blood flow assessment primarily use to perform the test?
Ultrasound
Which fetal assessment test is used to determine multifetal gestation?
Antepartum fetal surveillance
What is a reassuring sign during antepartum fetal surveillance?
Fetal heart rate reactivity with accelerations
When is FHR reactivity typically observed in the fetus?
At 32 weeks gestation
What is the purpose of Vibroacoustic stimulation in antepartum fetal surveillance?
To elicit a response for assessing FHR reactivity
What does the Contraction Stress Test (CST) evaluate during antepartum fetal surveillance?
Fetal response to uterine contractions
What parameter does the Biophysical Profile (BPP) NOT provide information on?
Maternal blood pressure
What is a limitation of the Oxytocin challenge test during antepartum fetal surveillance?
It cannot be done if contraindicated for uterine contractions
What is the primary purpose of MATERAL SERUM APHA fetal protein testing offered to women undergoing CVS at 25-20 weeks gestation?
To measure risk of pregnancy loss
Which procedure carries a higher risk of minor nail or phalangeal hypoplasia between CVS and second trimester Amniocentesis?
CVS
What is the name of the procedure that involves aspiration of amniotic fluid from the sac for further examination during the second trimester?
Second trimester Amniocentesis
At what gestational age is Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling (PUBS) typically performed?
It varies based on the indication
What is the primary indication for Third Trimester Amniocentesis?
To determine hemolytic disease
Which prenatal procedure is also known as cordocentesis or PUBS, and involves obtaining fetal blood from near the placenta for prenatal diagnosis or therapy?
Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling
Which test involves the assessment of two markers, human chorionic gonadotropin and unconjugated estriol, to increase the detection of trisomy 18 and 21?
Multiple Marker Screening
During which gestational period is Chorionic Villus Sampling typically performed?
9-12 weeks
What is the primary purpose of Alpha-Fetoprotein Screening in pregnancies?
To identify neural tube defects
Which diagnostic test ideally requires only a blood sample and must be viewed as a first step in screening for specific conditions?
Alpha-Fetoprotein Screening
For what purpose is Doppler shift used in pregnancies complicated by conditions like hypertension and placental insufficiency?
To measure blood flow
What additional information can be obtained from Chorionic Villus Sampling beyond just genetic, chromosomal, and metabolic disorders?
Information on placental function
Which assessment factor is NOT included in the Biophysical Profile (BPP)?
Fetal length and gestational age
What aspect is NOT typically part of the maternal assessment when a patient undergoes diagnostic testing?
Patient's current dietary habits
In fetal assessment, which movement count range is considered appropriate per hour based on the text?
5-10 movements per hour
What is the primary focus of the maternal assessment regarding fetal movement?
Counting at least 10 fetal movements within 12 hours
Which factor is not considered during the assessment of a patient who has diagnostic testing?
Number of living children
What does BPP (Biophysical Profile) provide information about in antepartum fetal surveillance?
Fetal reactivity and well-being
Which notable nutrient is primarily found in vegetables and helps with blood clotting?
Vitamin K
Which food group provides significant amounts of Niacin, Thiamin, and Vitamin B12?
Protein Foods
What nutrient is commonly found in grains and is important for energy production in the body?
Riboflavin
Which food group is a good source of Vitamin D when fortified?
Milk & Milk Products
Which nutrient is NOT primarily found in Protein Foods like Meat, Poultry, Fish, Legumes, Eggs, and Nuts?
Calcium
Among the listed nutrients, which is NOT typically found in Milk & Milk Products?
Iron
Which mineral is crucial for the synthesis of heme for hemoglobin and plays a role in sperm development and fetal development?
Zinc
What can zinc deficiency lead to, based on the information provided?
Growth retardation and sexual immaturity
Which of the following is a role of iron in the body according to the text?
Production of red blood cells
What significant effect can an iron deficiency have on the body as mentioned in the text?
Iron deficiency anemia
What are the best dietary sources of iron according to the text?
Protein-rich foods like meat, fish, and poultry
Which vitamins play a role in the synthesis of DNA and the formation of new cells?
Vitamin E and Folate
What additional essential fatty acids are recommended during pregnancy?
Omega-3 and Omega-6
What is the ideal daily intake of carbohydrates recommended during pregnancy?
100 grams
Which micronutrient is considered a major mineral during pregnancy?
Fluoride
What is the primary function of the Biophysical Profile (BPP) in fetal surveillance?
Assessing amniotic fluid quantity
What does a deficiency in Riboflavin lead to during pregnancy?
Anemia
Which trimester of pregnancy requires an additional 450 Kcal per day compared to the non-pregnant state?
3rd Trimester
What is the primary purpose of prenatal supplements recommended to pregnant women?
To prevent deficiencies in essential vitamins and minerals
How can vitamin-mineral megadoses be described according to the information provided?
Can lead to toxicity, especially with vitamin A
What is the main reason for recommending a varied diet during pregnancy?
To prevent any nutrient deficiencies for both mother and fetus
How does maternal malnutrition during critical periods of fetal development affect the infant?
Can cause structural and functional abnormalities in the baby
Why is assessing meal plans important for pregnant women?
To ensure sufficient nutrients for both the mother and fetus
What is the purpose of using MyPlate (supertracker) to assess a meal plan during pregnancy?
To evaluate if all necessary food groups are included for balanced nutrition
What are the risk factors for developing gestational diabetes according to the text?
Age 25 or older, BMI > 25, excessive weight gain, symptoms of diabetes
What complications are associated with pregnancy in adolescents according to the text?
Complications include iron-deficiency anemia and prolonged labor
What are the common nutrition-related concerns of pregnancy mentioned in the text?
Food cravings and aversions, hormone-induced changes in taste and smell, nonfood cravings
What is a major public health problem associated with pregnancy in older women?
Hypertension and diabetes
Why should one be careful with caffeine consumption during pregnancy according to the text?
Moderate to heavy use may cause spontaneous abortion
Which group is often associated with nonfood cravings like Pica due to iron-deficiency?
Hispanic women
Learn about the circulation of blood in a fetus, including the structures and unique shunts involved in maintaining proper blood flow and oxygenation. Explore the protective role of Wharton’s jelly in the umbilical cord and the development of the fetal heart. Understand the significance of low oxygen levels in fetal circulation.
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