Module 1-4: Quiz 1
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Questions and Answers

Who has the final responsibility for the safety and security of a flight?

  • Air traffic controller
  • Aircraft manufacturer
  • Flight dispatcher
  • The Pilot-in-command (correct)

    • According to which manual is it the pilot's inherent responsibility to be alert at all times for circumstances and conditions affecting the safe operation of aircraft?

  • Pilot's Operating Handbook
  • Aircraft Maintenance Manual
  • Federal Aviation Regulations
  • Aeronautical Information Manual (correct)

    • Part 91.103 Pre-Flight states each pilot-in-command shall what before beginning a flight?

  • Conduct a weather briefing
  • Become familiar with all available information concerning that flight (correct)
  • File a flight plan
  • Perform a pre-flight inspection

    • What handbook gives guidance on the eligibility of various items, plans and projects?

    <p>The Airport Improvement Program Handbook</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Airport Improvement Program Handbook does not do what?

    <p>Identify every possible project that is eligible or ineligible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the eligibility of a project is not specifically stated, it is up to what office to determine if it meets the general guidance given in the AIP Handbook?

    <p>Regional Airports Division and District Offices (ADO)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A grant application for a project cannot be approved unless it is ________ with the proposals of planning agencies where the airport is located

    <p>Reasonably Consistent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    All projects require what prior to Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) approval?

    <p>Environmental Processing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Airport executives will routinely work with insurance agents and risk managers to add policy _____ to cover needs extraneous to the basic policy

    <p>Riders</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the basic policy that most commercial aeronautical service providers should hold?

    <p>Commercial General Liability insurance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) is updated how frequently?

    <p>Every hour or as needed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who updates Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS)?

    <p>Air Traffic Control Tower</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Ignitability?

    <p>A measure of how combustible or flammable the material is</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is defined as high concentrations of pesticides or heavy metals?

    <p>Toxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is defined as a hazardous characteristic if the waste burns the skin or dissolves metals?

    <p>Corrosiveness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When chemicals are unstable and go through rapid or violent chemical reactions with water, they have what feature?

    <p>Reactivity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is it determined what classification, in hazardous waste generation, an airport is?

    <p>Calculate the weight of all hazardous material the airport generates in a month</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does one select a Runway Design Code?

    <p>To establish the planned Level of Service</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the Aircraft Approach Category based on?

    <p>Speed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the Airplane Design Group (ADG) based on?

    <p>Tail-height and wingspan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Unmanned Aerial Systems are licensed under what FAR part?

    <p>Part 107</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Model Aircraft and Part 107 operators have what maximum ceiling height?

    <p>400’</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Model aircraft operators must not fly no closer than ____ to an airport?

    <p>5 miles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What FAR Part refers to model aircraft hobbyists?

    <p>Part 101</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Part 107 is for which of the three classes of Unmanned Aerial Systems?

    <p>Civil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If you want to operate a drone that does not fit into Part 101 or Part 107, you must apply for what?

    <p>Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must an operator have to operate a UAV under Part 107?

    <p>A Part 107 Remote Pilot Airmen Certification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What visibility distance is required to operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

    <p>3 statute miles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What airspace can a UAV operate without contacting ATC for approval with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

    <p>Class G airspace</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Part 150 contains the basic requirements and procedures for approval of noise surrounding an airport as described in what model?

    <p>Integrated Noise Model (INM)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what law does the approval of a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) limit the ability of residents near an airport to recover damages from noise exposure?

    <p>Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA), if a resident moves in to their home after a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) has been created, it constitutes _____________ of the existence of that NEM.

    <p>Constructive knowledge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A person who acquires interest in a property within the 65 DNL contour after the approval of a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) cannot recover damages unless he can show __________ has occurred since the map was prepared?

    <p>a significant change</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What program subsidizes air service to 141 communities in the US?

    <p>Essential Air Service (EAS) Program</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What program provides grants to help small communities achieve sustainable air service?

    <p>Small Community Air Service Development Program</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Enhanced Essential Air Service (EAS)?

    <p>A program providing subsidized air service to rural communities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many intermediate stops are allowed to get from an Essential Air Service (EAS) airport to a medium or large hub airport?

    <p>1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What law provides the basis for a great majority of noise abatement planning at airports?

    <p>Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979</p> Signup and view all the answers

    FAR Part 150 Airport Land Use Compatibility Planning was created due to what law?

    <p>Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What did the passage of the Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) direct the FAA to do?

    <p>Establish procedures for noise and land compatibility planning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Safety and Security

    • The pilot-in-command has the final responsibility for the safety and security of a flight.
    • It is the pilot's inherent responsibility to be alert at all times for circumstances and conditions affecting the safe operation of aircraft according to the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

    Pre-Flight

    • Each pilot-in-command shall become familiar with all available information concerning the flight before beginning a flight according to Part 91.103.

    Airport Improvement Program

    • The Airport Improvement Program Handbook provides guidance on the eligibility of various items, plans, and projects.
    • The Airport Improvement Program Handbook does not provide guidance on project costs.
    • If the eligibility of a project is not specifically stated, it is up to the FAA regional office to determine if it meets the general guidance given in the AIP Handbook.
    • A grant application for a project cannot be approved unless it is consistent with the proposals of planning agencies where the airport is located.

    Insurance and Risk Management

    • Airport executives will routinely work with insurance agents and risk managers to add policy endorsements to cover needs extraneous to the basic policy.
    • The basic policy that most commercial aeronautical service providers should hold is a public liability insurance policy.

    Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS)

    • Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) is updated hourly.
    • Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) is updated by the FAA or authorized personnel.

    Hazardous Waste

    • Ignitability is defined as a hazardous characteristic if the waste burns the skin or dissolves metals.
    • High concentrations of pesticides or heavy metals are defined as hazardous.
    • Corrosivity is defined as a hazardous characteristic if the waste burns the skin or dissolves metals.
    • Reactivity is a hazardous characteristic if chemicals are unstable and go through rapid or violent chemical reactions with water.
    • The classification of an airport in hazardous waste generation is determined by the amount of hazardous waste generated per month.

    Airport Design

    • The Runway Design Code is selected based on the aircraft's approach category.
    • The Aircraft Approach Category is based on the aircraft's speed and weight.
    • The Airplane Design Group (ADG) is based on the aircraft's weight and wheel configuration.

    Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS)

    • Unmanned Aerial Systems are licensed under FAR Part 101.
    • Model Aircraft and Part 107 operators have a maximum ceiling height of 400 feet.
    • Model aircraft operators must not fly no closer than 5 miles to an airport.
    • FAR Part 101 refers to model aircraft hobbyists.
    • Part 107 is for small Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS) used for commercial purposes.
    • If you want to operate a drone that does not fit into Part 101 or Part 107, you must apply for a waiver.
    • To operate a UAV under Part 107, an operator must have a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate.
    • To operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107, a visibility distance of at least 3 miles is required.
    • A UAV can operate without contacting ATC for approval with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107 in Class G airspace.

    Noise Abatement

    • Part 150 contains the basic requirements and procedures for approval of noise surrounding an airport as described in the Integrated Noise Model.
    • The approval of a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) limits the ability of residents near an airport to recover damages from noise exposure under the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA).
    • If a resident moves in to their home after a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) has been created, it constitutes constructive knowledge of the existence of that NEM.
    • A person who acquires interest in a property within the 65 DNL contour after the approval of a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) cannot recover damages unless he can show a significant change has occurred since the map was prepared.

    Air Service

    • The Essential Air Service (EAS) program subsidizes air service to 141 communities in the US.
    • The Small Community Air Service Development Program provides grants to help small communities achieve sustainable air service.
    • Enhanced Essential Air Service (EAS) is a funding program that provides additional support to small communities.
    • Up to 2 intermediate stops are allowed to get from an Essential Air Service (EAS) airport to a medium or large hub airport.

    Noise Abatement Planning

    • The Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) provides the basis for a great majority of noise abatement planning at airports.
    • FAR Part 150 Airport Land Use Compatibility Planning was created due to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA).
    • The passage of the Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) directed the FAA to develop and implement noise abatement procedures.

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