Exam Instructions

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Considering both Hund's rule and the Aufbau principle, which electronic configuration is most stable for the ground state of an atom?

  • A configuration with the minimum exchange energy among electrons.
  • A configuration maximizing the number of paired electrons in each orbital.
  • A configuration with all orbitals fully filled before any are half-filled
  • A configuration maximizing the number of unpaired electrons within degenerate orbitals. (correct)

How does the de Broglie wavelength of an electron change when its kinetic energy is quadrupled?

  • It is halved. (correct)
  • It remains the same.
  • It is quadrupled.
  • It is doubled.

Why is the effective nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons generally less than the actual nuclear charge (atomic number)?

  • Because core electrons shield valence electrons from the full attractive force of the nucleus. (correct)
  • Because core electrons repel valence electrons, increasing their attraction to the nucleus.
  • Because valence electrons are more affected by relativistic effects, reducing their interaction with the nucleus.
  • Because the strong nuclear force reduces the electromagnetic force experienced by valence electrons

What is the effect of increased nuclear charge ($Z_{eff}$) on the size of an atom or ion within an isoelectronic series (species with the same number of electrons)?

<p>The size decreases due to stronger attraction between the nucleus and the electrons. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the addition of an electron to a neutral atom affect its ionic radius, and why?

<p>It increases because of increased electron-electron repulsion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following scenarios would the energy released during electron gain (electron affinity) be the greatest?

<p>Adding an electron to an atom with a nearly full electron shell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does nitrogen (N) exhibit a lower electron affinity than oxygen (O)?

<p>Nitrogen has a stable, half-filled p-orbital configuration, making it less energetically favorable to add an electron. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors primarily explains the general trend of decreasing ionization energy down a group in the periodic table?

<p>Increasing atomic size and shielding effect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the hydration energy of an ion generally relate to its size and charge?

<p>Hydration energy increases with decreasing size and increasing charge. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors explains why the lattice energy of magnesium oxide (MgO) is significantly greater than that of sodium chloride (NaCl)?

<p>MgO has higher charges on its ions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the bond order typically correlate with bond length and bond energy?

<p>Higher bond order implies shorter bond length and higher bond energy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains why the actual bond angle in water (H₂O) is slightly less than the ideal tetrahedral angle of 109.5°?

<p>The lone pairs on the oxygen atom exert greater repulsive forces than the bonding pairs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately predicts the relative bond angles in methane (CH₄), ammonia (NH₃), and water (H₂O)?

<p>CH₄ &gt; NH₃ &gt; H₂O due to increasing number of lone pairs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what conditions is a molecule with polar bonds considered nonpolar overall?

<p>When the dipole moments of the polar bonds cancel each other due to molecular symmetry. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following intermolecular forces is primarily responsible for the high boiling point of water compared to molecules of similar molar mass?

<p>Hydrogen bonding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Arrange the following substances in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces: methane (CH₄), carbon dioxide (CO₂), water (H₂O).

<p>CH₄ &lt; CO₂ &lt; H₂O (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does an increase in temperature typically affect the viscosity of a liquid, and why?

<p>It decreases viscosity because molecules have more thermal energy to overcome intermolecular forces. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of solid is characterized by high electrical conductivity, malleability, and ductility, and why?

<p>Metallic solids due to delocalized electrons. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason that graphite is a good electrical conductor, while diamond is an electrical insulator?

<p>Graphite has delocalized π electrons between its layers, while diamond's electrons are all localized in σ bonds. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does an increase in temperature generally affect the solubility of a solid in a liquid, and what is the underlying principle?

<p>It may increase or decrease solubility depending on whether the dissolution process is endothermic or exothermic. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What colligative property is primarily responsible for the ability of antifreeze (ethylene glycol) to lower the freezing point of water in a car radiator?

<p>Freezing point depression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A semipermeable membrane separates a solution from a solvent. What drives the process of osmosis?

<p>The movement of solvent from high to low concentration to equalize solute concentrations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the rate of a reaction and the activation energy?

<p>Higher activation energy leads to a slower reaction rate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are the rate constant (k) and the half-life (t₁/₂) related for a first-order reaction?

<p>They are inversely proportional. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Test format

The test is 3 hours and contains 180 questions, each worth 4 marks. Incorrect answers deduct 1 mark, and the maximum score is 720.

Pen usage

Use only a blue or black ballpoint pen for writing particulars and marking responses on the answer sheet.

Rough work location

Rough work should only be done in the provided space in the Test Booklet.

Returning answer sheet

Candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the invigilator before leaving. The Test Booklet can be taken away.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Answer sheet care

Do not fold or make stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Where to writ form number?

Do not write your Form No. anywhere except in the specified space.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cr electrons with n=2, l=1

The atomic number of Chromium with n=2 and l=1 is 4

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radii ratio (H, He+, Li2+)

The ratio of radii for H, He+, and Li2+ first orbits is 1:2:3

Signup and view all the flashcards

Matching principles and Laws

The Aufbau principle describes filling orbitals, de Broglie relates wavelength to momentum, Hund's rule states maximum unpaired electrons, and Planck's law relates energy to frequency.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Maximum e/m ratio

Isotopes with a lower mass number have a higher e/m ratio because the charge is divided by a smaller mass.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Atomic radii trend

The outermost shell determines the atomic radius; adding electron shells increases atomic size.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Successive ionization energy

Ionization potential increases drastically after removing all valence electrons due to increased nuclear attraction

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incorrect electron affinity

The order N < O < S is incorrect for electron affinity. More stable configurations have lower electron affinity

Signup and view all the flashcards

Electron gain enthalpy

N has a +ve electron affinity due to smaller size and more electron repulsion, while P has a -ve electron affinity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

H-bond strength order

H bonding strength: HF > H2O > NH3 due to electronegativity differences.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Synapsed chromosomes

The synapsed homologous chromosomes is known as the bivalent.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Protein Line direction

A protein is a chain (line) of amino acids, N-terminal to C-terminal

Signup and view all the flashcards

Centriole Structure

A centriole consists of 9 evenly spaced peripheral triplet fibrils of tubulin

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mitosis

Meiosis results in two identical daughter cells

Signup and view all the flashcards

Histone synthesis phase

Histone protein synthesis occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Plant cell adhesion

The middle lamella holds or glues different neighbouring plant cells together.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Formation of fibrin

Thrombin converts inactive fibrinogen to fibrin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Constituents of Lymph

Lymph is a coloured fluid and is an important carrier for nutrients, hormones etc.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Increase cardiac output

Cardiac output can be increased by sympathetic nerve and adrenal medullary hormones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

  • The test is 3 hours long and has 180 questions, each carrying 4 marks.
  • A correct answer earns 4 marks, while an incorrect one deducts 1 mark.
  • The maximum possible score is 720.
  • Blue/black ball point pens are the only acceptable writing utensil on the answer sheet.
  • Rough work is to be confined to the provided space in the test booklet.
  • Candidates must hand over both the original and office copies of the answer sheet to the invigilator before leaving.
  • Test booklets are permissible to take away.
  • Answer Sheets should not be folded to prevent damage.
  • The form number should only be written where specified on the answer sheet/test booklet.
  • White fluid is not allowed for corrections.
  • Candidates must present their Allen ID card upon request.
  • Leaving the seat is prohibited without the invigilator's explicit permission.
  • Answer sheets must be handed over to invigilators and the attendance sheet must be signed (with time) twice before leaving the examination hall.
  • Failure to sign a second time results in the candidate being considered for unfair means.
  • Electronic or manual calculators are forbidden.
  • Candidates are bound by all examination rules and regulations.
  • Detaching any part of the test booklet or answer sheet is not allowed.
  • Candidates need to correctly write their test booklet code on the answer and attendance sheets.

Chemistry key points:

  • In chromium, there are 4 electrons with n = 2 and l = 1.
  • Among orbitals 3dxy, 2px, 3s and 2s, 3dxy has max nodal planes and 2s has max radial nodes.
  • For multi-electron atoms, the 4f-orbital lies between the 6s and 5d orbitals in the energy level sequence.
  • Aufbau principle corresponds to electronic configuration.
  • De Broglie relates to λ = h / (mv).
  • Hund's rule relates to Max. unpaired e-.
  • Planck's law relates to λ = hc/ΔE.
  • The e/m ratio is maximum for a singly ionized hydrogen atom (H+).
  • The radius of the third orbit in Bohr's model is nine times the radius of the first orbit.
  • The ratio of the radii of the first orbits of H, He+, and Li2+ is 1:2:3

Chemistry Questions:

  • The maximum count of electrons in this period subshell for the 8th period is 50.
  • Types of subshells in the 8th period is 5.
  • [Rn]6d², 7s² corresponds to the element Thorium (Th), which is an f-block element.
  • Zeff increase is limited across a transition series due to the shielding effect of d-orbitals.
  • Elements and Atomic radii match as follows: O - 77, C - 68, B - 66, N -88.
  • The correct order of ionic sizes is Gd > Eu > Yb > Lu.
  • The process requiring maximum energy is M(g) → M2+(g).
  • Where Y+ and X- have a configuration of 2s2 2p6, IP of X− > IP of Y+.
  • Element outer shell configuration and I.E matches as: 3s1 - 22, 25, 36, 42, 250 etc.
  • Ionization Energy and elements match as so- 3s1 - S, 3s2 - R, 3s23p1 - Q, 3s23p2 - P.
  • The electron affinity orderCl > F > Br > I is incorrect.
  • The given electronic radius order Mg+2 < K+ < S−2 < Se−2 is incorrect.
  • The incorrect statement is, F has highest electron affinity.
  • The incorrect statement is, the decreasing order of bond dissociation energy is Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2.
  • The correct acidic nature order is N2O < N2O3 < N2O4 < N2O5.
  • Incorrect statement is, assertion: at room temperature O2 and N₂ are stable molecule but S2 and P2 are less stable, with reason collateral overlapping is effective but 3pπ – 3pπ overlapping is weak, is incorrect.
  • BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O is generally correct for the dipole moment.
  • The correct order for boiling point is CO2 < CS2 < CCl4 < H2O.
  • Incorrect statement is magnitude of the H-bonding depends on the physical state of the compound.
  • An incorrect orbital combination is s + py (where the x-axis is internuclear axis).

Biology key points:

  • DNA is not found in ribosomes.
  • Match Column-I with Column-II: Cristae - Infoldings in mitochondria, Thylakoids - Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids, Centromere - Primary constriction in chromosome, Cisternae - Disc shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus.
  • The outermost covering is the cell membrane in animals.
  • Statement-I incorrect, Statement-II correct. Explanation: The centriole forms the axoneme of cilia and flagella but NOT spindle fibres.
  • The incorrect statement is hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are optimally active at basic pH.
  • A centriole consists of 9 evenly spaced peripheral triplet fibrils of tubulin.
  • Incorrect statement is the material of the nucleus is stained by acidic dye.
  • Algal cell walls are made of Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans & Minerals likes CaCO3.
  • Middle lamella holds or glues the different neighbouring plant cells together.
  • Amyloplast are the type of plastid is involved in storage of starch.
  • Ribosomes are found only in prokaryotes .
  • synaptonemal complex formation occurs in prophase I.
  • Incorrect statement is Each chromosome has one chromatid in telophase-I.
  • The correct statements: Anaphase-II begins with the simultaneous splitting of the centromere and shortening of microtubules which are attached to kinetochore.
  • A very significant contribution of mitosis is cell repair.
  • Given a diploid cell contains 8 chromosomes, each daughter nuclei after meiosis-I will contain 4 chromosomes.
  • Correct Statements: Quiescent stage (G0) of the cell cycle is called inactive stage cells in Go metabolic active.
  • Mitosis involves division of cells that results in identical daughter cells.
  • Wrong statement: Chromosomal material start to condense
  • Complete disintegration of the nuclear membrane marks the start of Prophase in mitosis.
  • Prophase of mitosis follows the S and G2 phases of interphase.
  • Incorrect: In diakinesis, dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs.
  • During the S phase of the cell cycle, synthesis of histone protein takes place.
  • Key points for remaining Biology questions are listed below:
    • enzyme involved of crossing over is recombinase.
    • Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only about 90 mins.
    • The above diagram of (A) and (B) shows Guanine and Uracil which in DNA is Cytosine.
    • A protein is measured from the left end representing the first amino acid (N-terminal) and right end the last (C-terminal).
    • The odd one out from homopolymers is Protein.
    • The simplest amino acid is Glycine.
    • Inulin is NOT a protein.
    • Curcumin is not a toxin.
    • Arachidonic acid and palmitic acids have 20/16 carbon atoms in their structure.
    • Aldehyde functional group is within glucose.
    • Inulin is a linear polymer of fructose.
    • Codeine is a medically prescribed drug.
    • The substrate enzyme bines to its active site
    • Isomerases catalyses optical, geometric or positional isomers.
    • Statement a and d is correct. some nucleic acid that behave like enzyme are called ribozyme and catalytic activity of an enzyme is lost when co-factor is removed.
  • Zinc is a metal cofactors carboxypeptidase.
  • Co-factor that is a prosthetic group is Haem.
  • NAD and NADP is Niacin.
  • Given velocity Vmax of reaction - Km measures catalyst activity.

Anatomy and Physiology questions:

Key point of several human and biological questions:

  • Conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrin in the plasma is performed by Thrombin. Both statements are correct with Statement B, the first heart sound is incorrect since semi-lunar don't close until the second heart sound. _ both sympathetic nerve and hormone effect can increase the heart rate. Both statements are correct concerning the coloured liquid and carriers.

  • The correct types of white blood cells A= neutrophils, B=lymphocytes, C=basophil, D=Monocytes.

  • The nature of natures is phagocytic by both (2) & (3: neutrophils and monocytes.

  • Statements: a reduction of thromobocytes incorrect and (1) a reduction of thromobocytes incorrect

  • Antibodies stimulate production. A is negative where B is positive.

  • The following is absent in lymph (1 large, (3) both.)

  • Bicuspid of valves occurs atrial. (1) -assertion of is correct CO2 can have a negative charge

  • Assertion

  • assertion of is correct CO2 can have charge -Statements include function such as the following: Globulins for human transfer.

  • Fall of activate. correct JG cells B Angiostenin incorrect vasodillator.

  • The shown is an e-sign the cell Which match can.

  • ( 1 .)-Eosin to relation. Bicupids can't . Assertion

  • (Both CO2.

Physics:

  • Topics and equations relating to forces and movement in physics.
  • Center of mass and momentum of multiple system particles and other system with motion
  • Collison and kinetic calculation, with circular momentum.
  • Key Physics topics. (
  • 7√2.
  • Force: Force.
  • In
  • A , and A = -5i.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Real Estate National Exam Practice Test
40 questions
English 3 Summative Assessment
5 questions
DC Real Estate Exam Practice Test
25 questions
Electronics 2 Exam Instructions
15 questions
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser