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Questions and Answers

A 28-year-old pregnant woman is screened for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 26 weeks gestation. Her 1-hour glucose screen is 145 mg/dL. According to the guidelines, what is the appropriate next step in management?

  • Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) with a 100-g loading dose (correct)
  • Reassure the patient that the value is within normal limits
  • Start the patient on a diabetic diet and recheck glucose in 2 weeks
  • Initiate insulin therapy immediately

A patient is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which of the following fasting blood glucose levels, if attained through treatment, would be considered within the recommended goal range?

  • 100 mg/dL
  • 90 mg/dL (correct)
  • 105 mg/dL
  • 98 mg/dL

A 32-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test. An ultrasound reveals a gestational sac but no fetal pole. Serial hCG titers are followed. Which of the following best describes the appropriate next step in management if a viable pregnancy cannot be confirmed?

  • Recommend expectant management with pelvic exams and TVUS. (correct)
  • Prescribe a course of high-dose progestins to support the pregnancy.
  • Administer methotrexate to terminate the presumed ectopic pregnancy.
  • Schedule immediate dilation and curettage (D&C).

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for prescribing combination oral contraceptive pills?

<p>History of well-controlled hypertension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a benefit associated with the use of combination oral contraceptive pills?

<p>Shorter, less painful periods (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 42-year-old lactating woman requests contraception. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be MOST appropriate?

<p>Progestin-only pill (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports that their last menstrual period (LMP) started on July 14, 2023. Using Nägele's rule, what is their estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

<p>April 21, 2024 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 30 weeks' gestation reports feeling dizzy and nauseous when lying flat on their back during an ultrasound. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

<p>Supine hypotension due to aortocaval compression. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using the progestin-only pill calls the office stating she took her pill 5 hours late. What advice should the provider give regarding back-up contraception?

<p>She needs to use another form of birth control for 48 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old patient is using a transdermal contraceptive patch. She reports that the patch keeps falling off. What counseling should the provider give regarding this issue?

<p>The patch has decreased efficacy in patients &gt;198 lbs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a prenatal visit at 22 weeks' gestation, a patient's fundal height measures 20 cm. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Reassure the patient that this measurement is within normal limits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is starting the contraceptive vaginal ring. Which of the following instructions is MOST accurate regarding its use?

<p>Insert the ring at the start of menses and leave in place for three weeks. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A first-time pregnant patient asks about the purpose of fetal shunts. Which of the following correctly describes the function of the ductus venosus?

<p>Shunts a portion of umbilical vein blood flow directly to the inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 10 weeks gestation presents for initial prenatal labs. All of the following labs are typically performed EXCEPT:

<p>Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following instructions is MOST important to emphasize to a patient when prescribing a diaphragm for contraception?

<p>The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6-8 hours after intercourse. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 35 weeks' gestation undergoes a biophysical profile (BPP). Which of the following parameters is assessed during this test?

<p>Fetal breathing movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and non-stress test results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring, the mnemonic VEAL CHOP is used to remember associations between FHR patterns and potential causes. VEAL CHOP stands for Variable decelerations, Early decelerations, ________ decelerations, Cord compression, Head compression, Okay, and Placental insufficiency. Fill in the blank:

<p>Late (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old patient with a history of well-controlled hypertension and migraine headaches presents requesting contraception. She is concerned about estrogen-related side effects. Which of the following contraceptive methods is MOST appropriate, considering her medical history?

<p>Etonogestrel implant (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 24-year-old presents for emergency contraception 78 hours after unprotected intercourse. Her BMI is 32. Which of the following is the BEST option?

<p>Ulipristal acetate (Ella) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding emergency contraception?

<p>The copper IUD is contraindicated in patients with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-year-old patient with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and a strong family history of breast cancer is seeking long-term contraception. Which of the following contraceptive options is MOST contraindicated?

<p>Etonogestrel implant (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old woman presents requesting an etonogestrel implant. Which of the following conditions would be a CONTRAINDICATION to the placement of this contraceptive method?

<p>Current diagnosis of breast malignancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg, and a urine dipstick reveals 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most accurate classification of her hypertensive disorder?

<p>Mild preeclampsia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 36-year-old woman, currently 26 weeks pregnant, has a history of hypertension well-managed with medication prior to conception. Her blood pressure remains elevated above 140/90 mmHg despite being on the same medication. Which of the following is the most appropriate classification?

<p>Chronic hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 165/115 mmHg and 5.2 g of protein in a 24-hour urine collection. She also complains of a severe headache and blurred vision. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Severe preeclampsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 22 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings would necessitate a reclassification of her diagnosis to preeclampsia?

<p>Proteinuria of 350 mg in a 24-hour urine collection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presents with elevated blood pressure readings. Her history is unremarkable, and she denies any significant symptoms. A 24-hour urine collection reveals 280 mg of protein. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

<p>Gestational Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 155/100 mmHg, and she has 350 mg of protein in her urine. She is being managed as an outpatient. Which of the following findings would necessitate immediate hospitalization?

<p>Visual disturbances and severe headache (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the classification of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy, differentiate between transient hypertension and gestational hypertension. Transient hypertension is characterized by hypertension occurring __________ without __________ and with normalization of blood pressure __________. Gestational hypertension, on the other hand, develops __________ without __________. Fill in the blanks.

<p>in late pregnancy, other features of preeclampsia, postpartum; after 20 weeks gestation, proteinuria. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 33-year-old pregnant patient with pre-gestational diabetes is being monitored closely for signs of preeclampsia. Which of the following clinical findings is most indicative of superimposed preeclampsia in this patient?

<p>New onset proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following situations presents the highest risk for the development of preeclampsia?

<p>A multigravida with a history of eclampsia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with leaving a diaphragm in place for longer than 24 hours?

<p>Elevated risk of urinary tract infection (UTI). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 17-year-old female is seeking contraception and desires a method that is highly effective and reversible. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP), which of the following is an ideal option?

<p>Copper IUD (ParaGard) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is considering the use of a cervical cap for contraception. What instructions should MOST appropriately be given regarding the duration of time the cap should remain in place after intercourse?

<p>The cap must remain in place for 6 hours, but no longer than 48 hours. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old nulliparous woman is seeking contraception and is interested in using a contraceptive sponge. What is the maximum amount of time this method can safely remain in place?

<p>30 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which IUD releases levonorgestrel?

<p>Hormonal IUD (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old patient with a history of irregular bleeding and painful periods is seeking contraception. She is not planning to have children in the future. Which of the following IUDs might be MOST appropriate for this patient?

<p>Hormonal IUD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When initiating depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injections for contraception, the injection should be administered within the first _____ days of menses.

<p>5 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a relative contraindication to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs)?

<p>Congenital or acquired anatomical distortions of the uterus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the FDA, the use of depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) has a limitation of 2 years due to what side effect?

<p>Decreased bone mineral density (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with irregular bleeding while using a levonorgestrel-releasing IUD. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this side effect?

<p>Reassure the patient that irregular bleeding is a common side effect and typically improves within the first few months of use. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 31-year-old primigravida presents at 37 weeks gestation with a blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg. She denies headache, visual changes, or abdominal pain. A urine dipstick is negative for protein. According to the diagnostic criteria, what is the most appropriate diagnosis?

<p>Gestational Hypertension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old woman, G1P0 at 30 weeks' gestation, has a history of well-controlled hypertension prior to pregnancy. At today's appointment, her blood pressure is 150/98 mmHg. Urinalysis is negative for protein. How would you classify her condition?

<p>Chronic hypertension with superimposed gestational hypertension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In differentiating between chronic hypertension and gestational hypertension, which of the following is a key distinguishing factor?

<p>The gestational age at onset of hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 35-year-old G3P2 presents at 36 weeks gestation with a blood pressure of 162/112 mmHg. She also reports a persistent headache and visual disturbances. A 24-hour urine collection reveals 5.3 grams of protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Severe preeclampsia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old primigravida at 29 weeks gestation presents with new onset hypertension and is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. Which of the following findings would elevate her diagnosis to severe preeclampsia?

<p>Platelet count of 120,000/microliter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 38-year-old G5P4 at 39 weeks gestation is admitted with a blood pressure of 158/100 mmHg and proteinuria of 350mg, and is diagnosed as mild preeclampsia. During her admission, which of the following findings would be most concerning and warrant immediate intervention?

<p>A platelet count decreasing from 200,000 to 160,000 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 24-year-old nulliparous woman presents for her initial prenatal visit at 9 weeks gestation. Her past medical history is significant for obesity (BMI 34) and pre-gestational diabetes, well-controlled with metformin. Which of the following factors presents the highest risk for the development of preeclampsia during her pregnancy?

<p>Pre-gestational diabetes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old woman is interested in the etonogestrel implant for contraception. Which of the following conditions, if present in her medical history, would be a contraindication to the use of this contraceptive method?

<p>Unexplained vaginal bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient asks about the mechanism of action of Plan B One-Step for emergency contraception. Which of the following best describes how Plan B One-Step prevents pregnancy?

<p>It primarily works by preventing ovulation and fertilization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old woman with a BMI of 35 is seeking emergency contraception 48 hours after unprotected intercourse. Considering her BMI, which of the following emergency contraception options would be the most effective?

<p>Copper IUD (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled to receive an etonogestrel implant. Which of the following statements accurately describes the correct timing for insertion of the etonogestrel implant?

<p>It should be placed within the first 5 days of the onset of the last menstrual period. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception 60 hours after unprotected intercourse. She is considering different options. Which of the following statements accurately compares the effectiveness timelines of ulipristal acetate (Ella) and levonorgestrel (Plan B One-Step)?

<p>Ulipristal acetate is effective up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse, while levonorgestrel's effectiveness is significantly reduced after 72 hours. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 22-year-old nulliparous woman is seeking contraception. She is interested in using a contraceptive sponge. She asks how long it can safely remain in place. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response?

<p>Up to 24 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is using a diaphragm for contraception and asks how long it should remain in place after intercourse. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response?

<p>At least 6 hours, but no more than 24 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is considering using a cervical cap for contraception. What is the MOST appropriate instruction regarding the duration of time the cap should remain in place after intercourse?

<p>It must remain in place for 6 hours, but no more than 48 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 27-year-old patient is starting depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injections for contraception. Within how many days of the start of menses should the first injection be administered to ensure effective contraception?

<p>Within the first 5 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old patient is using a levonorgestrel-releasing IUD, and is experiencing persistent, unscheduled spotting. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate FIRST-LINE management strategy?

<p>Administer NSAIDs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 23-year-old patient is interested in using a copper IUD for contraception. Which of the following is the MOST accurate mechanism of action of the copper IUD?

<p>Creating a cytotoxic response in the endometrium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 16-year-old is asking about contraception. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP), which of the following contraceptive methods is considered an ideal first-line option for adolescents?

<p>Intrauterine device (IUD) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 36 year old patient is on the injectable depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA). She is concerned about the FDA's boxed warning about the medication. What is the warning?

<p>Decreased bone density (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old patient presents for an IUD insertion. Which of the following historical findings is a CONTRAINDICATION to the placement of an IUD?

<p>Unexplained abnormal uterine bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-year-old G0 patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraception. She reports a nickel allergy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate choice?

<p>Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old primigravida at 35 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg and is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia. After initiating magnesium sulfate and hydralazine, which of the following blood pressure readings would necessitate immediate delivery, regardless of gestational age?

<p>170/110 mmHg after the first dose of hydralazine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old G1P0 at 36 weeks gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is consistently around 145/95 mmHg, and she has 1+ protein on urine dipstick. Which of the following findings would be MOST concerning and indicate a progression to severe preeclampsia, warranting immediate intervention?

<p>A platelet count of 120,000/µL. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with new-onset hypertension and proteinuria. Her labs reveal elevated liver enzymes and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

<p>Administer magnesium sulfate and prepare for delivery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 31-year-old G2P1 at 38 weeks gestation with gestational diabetes is being induced due to macrosomia. Her initial blood glucose is 110 mg/dL. During labor, her blood glucose rises to 180 mg/dL. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in managing her blood glucose?

<p>Initiate a continuous intravenous insulin infusion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old G1P0 is diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 28 weeks gestation. She has been adhering to a diabetic diet but her fasting blood glucose levels remain elevated above 95 mg/dL. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

<p>Start insulin therapy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 27-year-old woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms BEST explains the insulin resistance observed in gestational diabetes?

<p>Placental secretion of counter-regulatory hormones. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 33-year-old G1P0 at 26 weeks gestation is undergoing a 1-hour glucose challenge test. The result is 190 mg/dL. Following the American Diabetes Association guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Order a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-year-old patient with a history of gestational diabetes during a previous pregnancy is now 7 weeks postpartum. When should she be screened to assess for persistent diabetes?

<p>In 4-12 weeks with a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old female with gestational diabetes (GDM) managed with diet and exercise alone delivers a healthy baby at term. She asks about her future risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding her long-term risk?

<p>She has a significantly increased risk of developing T2DM later in life. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) based on a 3-hour Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT). Which set of values, if two or more are met or exceeded, confirms this diagnosis?

<p>Fasting &gt;95 mg/dL, 1 hr: &gt;180 mg/dL, 2 hr: &gt;155 mg/dL, 3 hr: &gt;140 mg/dL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A lactating woman requests contraception. Considering the mechanism of action and specific instructions, which of the following requires the MOST diligent adherence to timing for optimal efficacy?

<p>Progestin-only pill (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using a combined hormonal transdermal patch for contraception reports inconsistent adhesion, especially during physical activity. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation?

<p>Consider an alternative contraceptive method if the patient weighs more than 198 lbs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is considering using a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following statements reflects the MOST accurate and complete instructions regarding its use?

<p>Insert the diaphragm up to 6 hours before intercourse and leave it in place for at least 6-8 hours after intercourse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old patient with a history of migraines with aura is seeking contraception. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be most appropriate?

<p>Progestin-only pills (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman using combination oral contraceptive pills reports experiencing increased blood pressure and worsening migraines since starting the medication. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

<p>Recommend discontinuation of the combined oral contraceptive pills. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following laboratory results would necessitate a 3-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) in a pregnant woman who had a 50-g 1-hour glucose screen?

<p>Glucose level &gt; 130 mg/dL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed combination oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following conditions is an absolute contraindication to taking combination oral contraceptive pills?

<p>History of thromboembolism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is interested in using the progestin-only pill for contraception. What is the MOST important instruction to emphasize for effective use?

<p>Take the pill at approximately the same time every day; if &gt;3hrs late another form of BC must be used for 48 hrs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old G1P0 patient at 34 weeks gestation presents for a routine antepartum visit. Which of the following physical exam findings MOST accurately reflects the expected location of the uterine fundus?

<p>Between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following BEST describes the physiological mechanism behind the cardiovascular changes observed during pregnancy relating to increased cardiac output (CO)?

<p>Increased blood volume and decreased systemic vascular resistance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation, which of the following antepartum findings would warrant the MOST immediate further evaluation?

<p>Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient is undergoing a Biophysical Profile (BPP). Which of the following parameters are assessed during a BPP?

  1. Fetal breathing movements
  2. Fetal tone
  3. Amniotic fluid volume
  4. Fetal presentation

<p>1, 2, and 3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During antepartum care, a 26-year-old primigravida asks about the purpose of nuchal translucency screening. Which of the following is the MOST accurate explanation?

<p>Screens for chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old G1P0 patient presents for her initial prenatal visit at 10 weeks gestation. Her history is notable for well-controlled asthma and a family history of neural tube defects. Based on this information, which of the following is MOST appropriate?

<p>Obtaining a detailed family history and recommending a higher dose of folic acid due to family history. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In assessing fetal well-being using a non-stress test (NST), reactivity is determined by the presence of accelerations. A reactive NST requires at least __________ accelerations, each at least __________ beats per minute above baseline, lasting at least __________ seconds, within a __________ minute period.

<p>Two / 15 / 15 / 20 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old patient presents to your clinic requesting contraception. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension, smokes less than half a pack of cigarettes daily, and reports occasional migraine headaches without aura. Which of the following contraceptive options would be the MOST appropriate initial choice, considering her medical history?

<p>Etonogestrel implant (Nexplanon) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being fitted for a diaphragm. Which of the following instructions regarding diaphragm use is MOST critical to emphasize to the patient to prevent potential complications?

<p>The diaphragm should be left in place for at least six hours after intercourse, but no longer than ______ hours to reduce the risk of toxic shock syndrome (TSS). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old presents for an etonogestrel (Nexplanon) implant insertion. The provider is reviewing her medical history and discovers a previously undocumented diagnosis. Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication to the placement of this contraceptive method?

<p>Undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 24-year-old patient presents requesting emergency contraception. She had unprotected intercourse 60 hours ago. She is concerned about the effectiveness of different options and asks for the MOST effective method. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation?

<p>Copper IUD (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is interested in using a cervical cap for contraception. The patient should be instructed to leave the cap in place for at least 6 hours post sex, but not longer than ______ hours.

<p>48 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected intercourse 4 days ago (96 hours). Which of the following emergency contraception options remains a viable option for her?

<p>Ulipristal acetate (Ella) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is considering using a contraceptive sponge. What is the maximum amount of time this method can safely remain in place?

<p>24 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Emergency contraception primarily prevents pregnancy through which of the following mechanisms? Fill in the blank: Emergency contraception works to prevent __________ and __________; it has NO effect on __________.

<p>Ovulation, fertilization, implantation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following intrauterine devices (IUDs) releases levonorgestrel?

<p>Mirena (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When initiating intramuscular depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injections for contraception, the injection should be administered within the first _____ days of menses.

<p>5 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 23-year-old patient is interested in using the copper IUD (ParaGard) for contraception. Which of the following is the MOST accurate mechanism of action of the copper IUD?

<p>Inhibiting sperm motility and fertilization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 36-year-old patient is on the injectable depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA). She is concerned about the FDA's warning about the medication. What is the warning?

<p>Decreased bone density with prolonged use (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the clinic requesting initiation of injectable depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) for contraception. Which point is MOST important to emphasize to the patient?

<p>DMPA injections should be administered within the first 5 days of menses to ensure effective contraception. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with irregular bleeding while using a levonorgestrel-releasing IUD. Initial testing rules out infection and pregnancy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this side effect?

<p>Reassurance and observation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old primigravid patient at 34 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg at two separate readings six hours apart. She denies headache, visual changes, or abdominal pain. A urine dipstick is negative for protein. Based on the provided information, which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?

<p>Gestational hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 38-year-old G4P3 patient with a pre-pregnancy history of well-managed chronic hypertension presents at 28 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure today is 155/100 mmHg, which is an increase from her baseline. Urine protein is negative. Which of the following best describes her hypertensive classification at this visit?

<p>Chronic hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, fill in the blanks to accurately describe gestational hypertension: Gestational hypertension is defined as hypertension developing after _______ weeks of gestation in the absence of _______.

<p>20; proteinuria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old nulliparous patient at 37 weeks gestation, diagnosed with mild preeclampsia, is being monitored as an outpatient. Which of the following new symptoms, if reported by the patient, would be most concerning and necessitate immediate evaluation for severe preeclampsia in the hospital setting?

<p>Sudden onset of epigastric pain and visual disturbances (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios presents the highest risk for the development of preeclampsia based on the provided information?

<p>A 20-year-old primigravida with a twin gestation and a BMI of 32. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 31-year-old patient at 8 weeks gestation reports experiencing nausea, vomiting, fatigue, and constipation. Which of these symptoms is considered most likely to be classified as hyperemesis gravidarum if it were severe and persistent?

<p>Nausea and Vomiting (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To meet the diagnostic criteria for chronic hypertension in pregnancy, a patient must have a blood pressure of ≥140 mmHg systolic or ≥90 mmHg diastolic, which is present either before pregnancy, before ______ weeks of gestation, or persists for more than ______ weeks postpartum.

<p>20; 12 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-year-old G2P1 patient at 32 weeks gestation has been diagnosed with gestational hypertension. Her blood pressure is consistently around 148/98 mmHg, and she has no proteinuria. Which of the following findings would most strongly suggest a progression from gestational hypertension to preeclampsia?

<p>Presence of 350 mg of protein in a 24-hour urine collection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 27-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation reports experiencing persistent fatigue. While fatigue is a common symptom in the first trimester, which of the following factors would warrant further investigation to differentiate normal pregnancy fatigue from a potentially concerning underlying condition?

<p>Fatigue that is debilitating and interferes with daily activities, alongside pallor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) diagnosis during pregnancy requires that at least two of the following 3-hour Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) values are met or exceeded. Fill in the blanks with the correct glucose thresholds:

Fasting: > _____ mg/dL 1-hour: > _____ mg/dL 2-hour: > _____ mg/dL 3-hour: > _____ mg/dL

<p>95, 180, 155, 140 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old woman with Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM), despite consistent dietary modifications and regular exercise, continues to have fasting blood glucose levels above the recommended goal. According to the provided guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?

<p>Insulin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient using progestin-only pills (POPs) for contraception calls the clinic and states she usually takes her pill at 9:00 AM, but today it is 1:00 PM and she has not yet taken it. According to the guidelines, how long must she use a backup method of contraception?

<p>48 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is instructed on the proper use of a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following statements reflects the MOST accurate timing for diaphragm insertion and removal in relation to intercourse?

<p>Insert up to 6 hours before intercourse and remove 6-8 hours after intercourse. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-year-old patient weighing 210 lbs (95 kg) is seeking contraception and is interested in the transdermal contraceptive patch. What is the MOST appropriate counseling regarding the patch's effectiveness for this patient?

<p>The patch may have decreased efficacy compared to patients under 198 lbs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is starting to use the contraceptive vaginal ring. Which of the following instructions is MOST accurate regarding the ring's recommended usage schedule?

<p>Insert the ring at the start of menses and leave it in place for 3 weeks, then remove for one week. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Beyond contraception, combination oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) are known to provide several health benefits. Which of the following gynecological conditions has a lower incidence associated with COCP use?

<p>Endometrial cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY mechanism by which progestin-only pills (POPs) prevent pregnancy?

<p>Thickening of the cervical mucus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 38-year-old patient who has been using combination oral contraceptive pills for 5 years presents with a blood pressure reading of 150/95 mmHg at a routine visit. She also reports a recent increase in migraine frequency and intensity, without aura, since her last refill. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in managing her contraception?

<p>Discontinue the combination oral contraceptive pills and switch to a progestin-only method. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided content, which of the following factors would necessitate earlier screening for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) in a pregnant patient?

<p>Family history of type 2 diabetes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old patient presents requesting an etonogestrel implant. Which of the following conditions, if present in her medical history, would be a contraindication to the use of this contraceptive method?

<p>Unexplained vaginal bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 37 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg. She denies any headaches or visual disturbances, and a urine dipstick is negative for protein. She reports that her blood pressure has been trending upward for the past few weeks. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Gestational hypertension (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old primigravida is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia at 34 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure is controlled with oral labetalol, and she is being monitored as an outpatient. Which of the following findings would necessitate immediate hospitalization due to the progression of her condition?

<p>New onset epigastric pain and elevated liver enzymes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Distinguish between transient and gestational hypertension by completing the following statement: Transient hypertension is characterized by hypertension occurring __________ without __________ and with normalization of blood pressure __________. Gestational hypertension, on the other hand, develops __________ without __________.

<p>late in pregnancy, proteinuria, postpartum, after 20 weeks, proteinuria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 39-year-old G3P2 at 37 weeks gestation with a history of chronic hypertension presents with a blood pressure of 162/112 mmHg, persistent headache, and visual disturbances. Urinalysis reveals 3+ protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 27-year-old previously healthy primigravida presents at 39 weeks' gestation with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, severe headache, and visual disturbances. Which of the following is MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Preeclampsia with severe features (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for the development of preeclampsia?

<p>A 38-year-old nulliparous woman with a history of well-controlled hypertension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 33-year-old G2P1 at 16 weeks of gestation with pre-gestational diabetes presents for a routine appointment. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and urine dipstick is negative. Which of the following, if newly present at 28 weeks, would be MOST indicative of superimposed preeclampsia?

<p>Sudden increase in blood pressure to 150/90 mmHg with proteinuria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 31-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg. She denies headache, visual changes, or abdominal pain. A urine dipstick reveals 1+ protein. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

<p>Mild preeclampsia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 33-year-old G1P0 at 37 weeks gestation with no significant past medical history presents with a blood pressure of 144/94 mmHg. She reports mild swelling in her hands and feet but denies headache or visual changes. A urine dipstick reveals 1+ protein. The MOST appropriate diagnosis is:

<p>Preeclampsia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary pathophysiological mechanism leading to gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?

<p>Insulin resistance due to placental secretion of hormones. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old patient diagnosed with gestational diabetes (GDM) asks what long-term implications GDM has for her child. Which of the following is the most accurate response?

<p>Your child is at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity in their teens or early adulthood. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a pregnant patient with severe preeclampsia at 32 weeks gestation, which of the following findings would be MOST indicative of the need for immediate delivery?

<p>Platelet count of 90,000/µL and elevated liver enzymes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following signs and symptoms is most commonly associated with HELLP syndrome?

<p>HA, worsening N/V, RUQ pain/tenderness, fatigue, malaise, visual disturbances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient at 34 weeks gestation reports experiencing lightheadedness and dizziness, particularly when lying supine during prenatal appointments. Which of the following physiological mechanisms BEST explains these symptoms?

<p>Aortocaval compression by the gravid uterus reducing venous return and subsequently decreasing cardiac output. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following delivery, a patient who had gestational diabetes should be screened for persistent diabetes with a glucose tolerance test at:

<p>2-4 months postpartum. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus serve as crucial shunts. Which of the following statements BEST describes the primary physiological consequence of the ductus venosus?

<p>It allows oxygenated blood returning from the placenta to bypass the fetal liver and directly enter the inferior vena cava. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient, unsure of her last menstrual period, presents for her first prenatal visit. An abdominal ultrasound at what she believes to be 6 weeks gestation reveals only a gestational sac and no fetal pole. A transvaginal ultrasound is then performed. At which gestational age, calculated from the last menstrual period, would cardiac activity MOST reliably be expected via transvaginal ultrasound in a viable pregnancy?

<p>5.5 - 6 weeks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 31-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia. While awaiting delivery, which medication is administered to prevent seizures?

<p>Magnesium sulfate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old primigravida undergoes first-trimester prenatal screening. The combined screening includes fetal nuchal translucency measurement and serum PAPP-A and free beta-hCG levels. Which of the following conditions is this screening panel PRIMARILY designed to assess the risk for?

<p>Fetal aneuploidies, specifically trisomy 21, trisomy 18, and trisomy 13. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 35-year-old G2P1 at 30 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, proteinuria, and new-onset thrombocytopenia. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step in management?

<p>Magnesium sulfate administration and preparations for delivery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of gestational diabetes is planning a future pregnancy. Which of the following interventions is most effective in reducing the risk of recurrence?

<p>Maintaining a healthy weight and lifestyle modifications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a non-stress test (NST) at 32 weeks gestation, a fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates variable decelerations. According to the VEAL CHOP mnemonic, variable decelerations are MOST commonly associated with which of the following underlying fetal conditions or issues?

<p>Umbilical cord compression causing transient fetal hypoxemia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of severe preeclampsia, at what gestational age is immediate delivery generally recommended, assuming maternal and fetal stability cannot be maintained?

<p>At or beyond 34 weeks gestation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a routine prenatal visit, a patient is 28 weeks pregnant. Palpation of the uterine fundus is noted to be approximately at the level of the umbilicus on her abdomen. Which of the following statements BEST describes the expected relationship between fundal height measurement in centimeters and gestational age in weeks after 20 weeks gestation?

<p>Fundal height measurement in centimeters generally correlates with gestational age in weeks, +/- 2 cm, between 20 and 36 weeks gestation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old primigravida at 27 weeks gestation presents with hypertension and proteinuria. Her labs show normal liver enzymes and platelets. Oral labetalol is initiated. What fetal surveillance should be ordered?

<p>Fetal growth restriction testing twice weekly, assess amniotic fluid every 3 weeks. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the initial prenatal visit at 8 weeks gestation, which of the following laboratory tests is considered MOST essential to perform as part of routine antepartum screening for all pregnant women, irrespective of risk factors?

<p>Blood type and Rh factor determination to identify risk for Rh incompatibility. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) based on a 3-hour Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) exhibits the following glucose levels: Fasting: 92 mg/dL, 1-hour: 175 mg/dL, 2-hour: 150 mg/dL, 3-hour: 135 mg/dL. According to Carpenter-Coustan criteria, what is the correct interpretation?

<p>GDM is not confirmed, as only one value is met or exceeded. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old lactating woman who is 6 weeks postpartum requests contraception. Considering the hormonal effects and safety profiles, which of the following contraceptive methods would be MOST appropriate and is associated with a strict adherence requirement regarding timing?

<p>Progestin-only pills (POPs) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old patient using a combined hormonal transdermal patch reports inconsistent adhesion, particularly during exercise and hot weather. Despite proper application to clean, dry skin, the patch frequently detaches. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation to improve adherence and efficacy?

<p>Switch to a contraceptive method that is not affected by external factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is considering using a diaphragm for contraception. Which accurately describes how long it should remain in place after intercourse and the implications for extended use?

<p>Leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6-8 hours. Leaving it in place for longer than 24 hours increases the risk of toxic shock syndrome (TSS). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old with migraines with aura is seeking contraception. Considering contraindications, which method is MOST appropriate?

<p>Progestin-only pills (POPs) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 35-year-old patient on combined oral contraceptive pills reports increased blood pressure readings and worsening migraines since starting the medication. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

<p>Discontinue the combined oral contraceptive pills and switch to a progestin-only method. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman has a 50-g 1-hour glucose screen result of 148 mg/dL. Which laboratory result from the subsequent 3-hour Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) would necessitate a diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)?

<p>Fasting: 96 mg/dL, 1-hour: 185 mg/dL, 2-hour: 156 mg/dL, 3-hour: 141 mg/dL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed combination oral contraceptive pills. Which condition is an absolute contraindication?

<p>History of deep vein thrombosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient opting for the progestin-only pill needs counseling. What is the MOST important instruction?

<p>Taking the pill at approximately the same time every day. If the pill is taken &gt; 3 hours late, another form of BC must be used for 48 hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-year-old G0 patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraception, but has a known Nickel allergy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate choice?

<p>Copper IUD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a routine first-trimester laboratory test for a pregnant woman?

<p>Blood type &amp; Rh factor, CBC, rubella titer, urine culture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the medical term for the fluttering movements felt by a pregnant woman around 16 weeks gestation?

<p>Quickening</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 28 weeks gestation undergoes a 1-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT). Which of the following results would require a follow-up 3-hour GTT?

<p>145 mg/dL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

<p>Uterine atony (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for a 36-week pregnant woman presenting with painless vaginal bleeding?

<p>Placenta previa (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fetal heart rate pattern is most concerning for uteroplacental insufficiency?

<p>Late decelerations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 22-year-old pregnant woman presents with fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia three days postpartum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Endometritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which screening test is performed between 15-20 weeks to assess for neural tube defects?

<p>Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old woman presents at 10 weeks gestation with severe nausea, vomiting, and dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Hyperemesis gravidarum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old woman at 36 weeks presents with a fundal height measuring at 30 cm. What is the most likely cause?

<p>Oligohydramnios (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an indication for Rhogam administration at 28 weeks?

<p>Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive father (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 37-week pregnant woman experiences a "gush of fluid" followed by continuous leakage. Which test confirms rupture of membranes?

<p>Nitrazine test and ferning test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with gestational diabetes is at increased risk for which neonatal complication?

<p>Shoulder dystocia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 20-year-old woman at 38 weeks presents with painful contractions every 3 minutes and cervical dilation of 5 cm. She is in which stage of labor?

<p>First stage, active phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication to vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?

<p>Previous classical (vertical) uterine incision (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the gold standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes?

<p>3-hour glucose tolerance test</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is first line medication for treating eclampsia?

<p>Magnesium sulfate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient has a positive Group B Strep (GBS) culture at 36 weeks. What is the appropriate management?

<p>IV penicillin during labor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP syndrome)?

<p>Preeclampsia with severe features (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 34-week pregnant woman has sudden severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a firm, tender uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Placental abruption (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 40-week pregnant woman is undergoing labor induction. Which is the most commonly used agent?

<p>Oxytocin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fetal heart rate tracing pattern is associated with umbilical cord compression?

<p>Variable decelerations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum and supporting pregnancy?

<p>Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which maneuver is used to determine fetal lie and position in late pregnancy?

<p>Leopold's maneuvers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which prenatal test is used to assess fetal lung maturity?

<p>Amniocentesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old primigravida at 30 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, 5 g of protein in a 24-hour urine collection, and complaints of headaches and visual disturbances. What is the most appropriate next step?

<p>Magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and antihypertensive therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the foramen ovale in fetal circulation?

<p>Allows oxygenated blood to bypass the fetal lungs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy) is true?

<p>Both complete and partial moles are associated with increased risk of choriocarcinoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Previous pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 35-year-old G2P1 woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with severe upper abdominal pain, nausea, and headache. Her labs reveal hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and a platelet count of 85,000. What is the best management?

<p>Immediate delivery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what gestational age does fetal lung surfactant production become sufficient to support extrauterine life?

<p>34 weeks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. Which of the following is a potential cause?

<p>Fetal renal agenesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a normal adaptation of pregnancy?

<p>Increase in blood volume by 45% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tests should be performed at 35-37 weeks gestation?

<p>Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Chadwick's Sign

Bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during pregnancy.

Hegar's Sign

Softening of the cervix, indicating pregnancy.

Quickening

Patient's initial perception of fetal movements, usually between 16-20 weeks.

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

Connects main pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the fetal lungs.

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Foramen Ovale

Allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium, bypassing the fetal lungs.

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Ductus Venosus

Shunts oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to the IVC, bypassing the liver.

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Naegele's Rule

LMP + 1 year, - 3 months, + 7 days

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Transient Hypertension

Elevated BP (>140/90 mmHg) first appearing in late pregnancy without proteinuria, which resolves postpartum.

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Chronic Hypertension in Pregnancy

Elevated BP (>140/90 mmHg) present before pregnancy, before 20 weeks gestation, or persisting >12 weeks postpartum

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Pregnancy Induced Hypertension (PIH)

Hypertension that develops after 20 weeks of gestation without proteinuria.

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Pre-eclampsia

New-onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation.

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Severe Pre-eclampsia

SBP >160 or DBP > 110 and > 5 g protein in 24 hr urine

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Mild pre-eclampsia

SBP >140, DBP >90, and proteinuria 300 mg in 24 hr urine

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Gestational Hypertension

Hypertension that occurs for the first time during pregnancy.

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Pre-eclampsia S&S

HA, visual disturbances (blurred vision or spots-scotomata), weight gain, edema (esp. face & hands), epigastric pain

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Multiple gestation

Being pregnant with more than one baby.

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Etonogestrel Implant (Nexplanon)

A subdermal contraceptive implant approved for up to 3 years, placed within the first 5 days of the last menstrual period.

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Etonogestrel Implant Side Effects

Irregular bleeding/amenorrhea and possible weight gain. Similar side effects to IUDs.

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Etonogestrel Implant Contraindications

Patients with hormone-responsive conditions (breast cancer), unevaluated vaginal bleeding, breast malignancy, thromboembolism history, cerebrovascular disease, or liver dysfunction.

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Emergency Contraception (EC)

Used after unprotected sex within 72 hours to prevent ovulation and fertilization, not implantation. Does not terminate existing pregnancies.

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Ella (Ulipristal Acetate)

A type of emergency contraception effective up to 5 days after unprotected sex, and requires a prescription.

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Cervical Cap

A barrier method of contraception that covers only the cervix. Higher risk of Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS).

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Contraceptive Sponge

A barrier method that fits over the cervix and contains spermicide. More effective in nulliparous women.

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Long-Acting Reversible Contraceptives (LARCs)

Contraception including IUDs and subdermal implants; very effective (99%).

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IUD Contraindications

Must be checked for placement. Contraindicated with uterine distortions, AUB, pelvic infection, or pregnancy.

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Hormonal IUD

Thickens cervical mucus. Side effects: irregular bleeding/spotting, amenorrhea, ovarian cysts

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Copper IUD (ParaGard)

Interferes with sperm motility and fertilization; creates a cytotoxic response in the endometrium.

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Depot Medroxyprogesterone Acetate (DMPA)

Injectable progesterone given every 3 months within the first 5 days of menses.

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DMPA Side Effects

Potential decrease in bone density with prolonged use (over 2 years).

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Diaphragm Use

Barrier method that must remain in place at least 6 hours post-sex, but not more than 24 hours.

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Diaphragm

Acts as a barrier method to prevent pregnancy. Requires fitting from a healthcare professional.

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3-Hour GTT

Requires a 100-g loading dose and is positive if 2 of the 3-hour values are increased.

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GDM Diagnostic Values

Fasting >95 mg/dL, 1 hr: >180 mg/dL, 2 hr: >155 mg/dL, 3 hr: >140mg/dL. Two or more of these values must be met or exceeded for diagnosis.

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GDM Initial Treatment

Lifestyle modifications (diet and exercise), then insulin if needed.

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Progestin-Only Pills Mechanism

Makes cervical mucus thick and relatively impermeable to sperm.

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Progestin-Only Pills Timing

Take at the same time every day; if >3 hrs late, use backup BC for 48 hrs.

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Progestin-Only Pills Indications

Lactating women and women >40 years old.

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Transdermal Patch Schedule

Combo patch lasting 1 week, replace weekly x 3 weeks, 4th week is patch-free.

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Transdermal Patch Placement

Clean, dry skin on the butt, upper outer arm, or lower abdomen.

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Transdermal Patch Efficacy

Less effective in women >198 lbs.

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Severe Pre-eclampsia Definition

SBP >160 or DBP > 110 and > 5 g protein in 24 hr urine.

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Mild Pre-eclampsia Definition

SBP >140, DBP >90, and proteinuria 300 mg in 24 hr urine.

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HELLP Syndrome

Preeclampsia with Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count; a life-threatening condition associated with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia.

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MgSO4 in Preeclampsia

Administered as a loading dose followed by maintenance to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia. Monitor levels for toxicity.

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Pathophysiology of GDM

Insulin resistance during pregnancy, often due to placental hormones. Can lead to postprandial hyperglycemia.

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HELLP Syndrome Treatment >34 Weeks

Defined as >34 weeks gestation, delivery via natural birth or C-section is the best course of action.

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Management of Mild Preeclampsia

Mild preeclampsia is managed expectantly prior to 37 weeks. Beyond 37 weeks, induce labor or perform C-section.

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Insulin resistance during preg

Occurs during preg due to placental secretion of hormones. Causes hyperglycemia (after eating) & carbohydrate intolerance, allows fetus to consume more nutrients.

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Screening in women w/H/O GDM

To prevent pre/diabetes at least every 3 years.

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Signs of preeclampsia

Increased BP, Proteinuria(hands or face).

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GDM: Diagnostic Criteria

Needing at least two elevated values out of four, after a 100g glucose load.

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GDM: Treatment

4x daily monitoring of blood glucose and daily insulin injections or continuous subcutaneous infusions to maintain target blood sugar.

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WHO Definition of Amenorrhea

Amenorrhea for 6 consecutive months or 12 non-consecutive months.

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Confirming Viable Pregnancy

Serial hCG titers and transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) used to confirm a viable pregnancy.

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Treatment options for nonviable pregnancy.

Expectant management, D&C, follow B-hCG levels until zero.

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Transdermal Patch Use

Start during first 5 days of menses, replaced weekly X 3 weeks, 4th week is patch-free, and place on clean, dry skin.

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Rings Function

Releases hormones, used once a month in the vagina for 3 weeks then taken out for 1 week.

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Cervical Cap Placement

A barrier method that covers only the cervix and is more easily displaced than a diaphragm.

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Copper IUD

ParaGard; interferes with sperm motility & fertilization.

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Diaphragm Use Time Frame

Must remain in place at least 6 hours after intercourse but not more than 24 hours.

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Hormonal IUDs Function

Thickens cervical mucus.

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Hormonal IUD Side Effects

Irregular bleeding, spotting, amenorrhea, and increased risk of ovarian cysts.

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Hormonal IUD Types

Releases levonorgestrel; place within 7 days of LMP or during menses.

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Etonogestrel Implant Placement Timing

A subdermal contraceptive implant placed within the first 5 days of the LMP that is approved for up to 3 years.

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Etonogestrel Implant Common Side Effects

Irregular bleeding/amenorrhea and potential weight gain, similar to IUD side effects.

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Etonogestrel Implant Key Contraindications

Patients with hormone-responsive cancers, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, history of thromboembolism, cerebrovascular disease, and liver dysfunction.

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Emergency Contraception Mechanism

Prevents ovulation and fertilization, and has no effect on implantation.

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Copper IUD for Emergency Contraception

Most effective if inserted within 5 days of unprotected sex; effectiveness is not affected by BMI.

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Prenatal Screening vs. Diagnostic Tests

Distinguishes between screening and diagnostic prenatal tests. Screening assesses risk, while diagnostic tests can confirm defects.

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Biophysical Profile (BPP)

Uses ultrasound during a non-stress test to evaluate fetal well-being, assessing breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid.

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Umbilical Vessels

One umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood to the fetus, while two umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood away.

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Non-Stress Test (NST)

Records baby's movement and heartbeat in response to contractions using an external monitor.

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Contraction Stress Test (CST)

Measures FHR in response to induced contractions, often using oxytocin.

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Subjective Fetal Well-Being Assessment

Fetal movement felt by the mother, typically assessed via kick counts.

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VEAL CHOP

A way to remember causes of fetal heart rate decelerations: Variable, Early, Acceleration, Late decelerations.

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Chronic Hypertension

Elevated BP (>140/90 mmHg) before pregnancy or before 20 weeks gestation or use of antihypertensive med before pregnancy or persistence for >12 wks after delivery.

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Severe Pre-eclampsia Criteria

SBP >160 or DBP > 110 and > 5 g protein in 24 hr urine.

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Pre-eclampsia Symptoms

Headache, visual disturbances, edema, epigastric pain.

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Pre-eclampsia Risk Factors

Nulliparous, >35 years, FMH of eclampsia, pre-existing HTN, renal disease, multiple gestation, pre-gestational DM, obesity.

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Mild Pre-eclampsia Criteria

SBP >140, DBP >90, and proteinuria 300 mg in 24 hr urine

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Plan B One-Step/Next Choice

Most common OTC emergency contraception, contains one pill of levonorgestrel.

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Copper IUD for EC

The MOST effective emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days of unprotected sex, unaffected by BMI.

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GDM Screening vs. Diagnosis

Testing done in pregnancy to check for gestational diabetes. If initial result is high, proceed to 3-hour test.

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GDM Treatment Order

Lifestyle changes, primarily diet and exercise, tried first. If ineffective, insulin is the next step.

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Primary vs. Secondary Amenorrhea

Amenorrhea means absence of menses. Primary means never having started; secondary means it stopped.

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Contraceptive Ring Use Cycle

Releases hormones, sits in the vagina for 3 weeks, then removed for 1 week to allow for withdrawal bleeding.

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Diaphragm Insertion and Removal

Inserted up to 6 hours before sex and needs to stay in place 6-8 hours after. Must be fitted by a provider.

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Progestin-Only Pill: Missed Pill Protocol

If > 3 hours late, use backup birth control for 48 hours.

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Progestin-Only Pills: Best Use Cases

Used by lactating women or women over 40 when estrogen is contraindicated.

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Diaphragm: Mechanism of Action

Barrier method that fits over the anterior vaginal wall & cervix, blocking sperm entry.

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Diaphragm: Proper Usage

Inserted prior to sex and must stay in place for several hours afterwards to ensure effectiveness.

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Transdermal Patch Cycle

Weekly for 3 weeks, then patch-free for the 4th week.

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Normal CV changes in pregnancy

Increased split during inspiration of the 2nd heart sound, distended neck veins, low-grade systolic ejection murmurs, and a heart rate increased by 10-15 BPM.

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Gestational Age

Gestational age is # of weeks from the first day of the Last menstrual period to current date.

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First Trimester Screening

Trisomy 21, 18, and 13.

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Maternal serum AFP screens for:

Open neural tube defects.

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Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) in Fetus

Connects the main pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta, allowing blood to bypass the fluid-filled, non-functioning fetal lungs. It should close after birth.

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Foramen Ovale in Fetus

Allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium, bypassing the fetal lungs. It normally closes after birth.

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Pre-eclampsia Definition

New-onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation.

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Etonogestrel Implant

Hormonal birth control method placed in the inner upper arm, lasting up to 3 years.

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Emergency Contraception

Method used within 72 hours of unprotected sex to prevent pregnancy, but not to terminate an existing pregnancy.

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Severe Pre-eclampsia Management

Management of severe preeclampsia involves magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures and hydralazine to control BP; delivery is the definitive treatment.

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HELLP Syndrome Symptoms

HA, N/V, RUQ pain, malaise, and visual disturbances; usually subsides within 2-3 days post-delivery.

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HELLP Syndrome Treatment

Delivery is the definitive treatment, ideally after 34 weeks, but may be necessary earlier with corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity.

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Postpartum GDM Screening

Glucose tolerance screening 2-4 months postpartum is crucial for women with GDM to assess for persistent diabetes.

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Lifelong Screening Post-GDM

Women with a history of GDM should have lifelong screening for prediabetes or diabetes, at least every 3 years.

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GDM Pathophysiology

Insulin resistance during pregnancy is caused by placental hormone secretion, leading to postprandial hyperglycemia.

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GDM Screening Test

Diagnosis involves a 50-g 1-hour oral glucose challenge at 24-28 weeks gestation.

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MgSO4: Monitoring

Monitor therapeutic MgSO4 level

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Treating High BP

Titrate Hydralazine to acceptable BP

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GDM Screening Window

Screening for gestational diabetes is recommended at 24-28 weeks of gestation using a glucose challenge test.

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GDM: When to use Insulin

GDM management when lifestyle changes aren't enough. Requires frequent blood sugar monitoring (ideally 4x daily).

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Combo Pill Benefits

Combination OCPs offer lighter periods and reduced risks of certain cancers and infections.

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Progestin-Only Pill MOA

Increases cervical mucus thickness and can only be 3 hours late

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Contraceptive Ring Schedule

Inserted monthly, left in place for 3 weeks, removed for withdrawal bleeding.

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Diaphragm Timing

Inserted up to 6 hours before sex and left in place for 6-8 hours after.

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Diaphragm Basics

Barrier method that needs to be fitted. Dome-shaped latex device.

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PCOS Symptoms

Persistent amenorrhea, infertility and virilization

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hCG levels post pregnancy

hCG titers should reach zero after pregnancy ends.

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Estrogen OCP Contraindications

Smoking, thromboembolism history, CAD, CHF, Stroke and migraine with aura

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1st Prenatal Visit Labs

Routine initial prenatal labs include blood type, Rh factor, CBC, rubella titer, and urine culture.

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What is Quickening?

The initial fetal movement felt by the mother, typically around 16-20 weeks.

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GTT Follow-Up Value

A 1-hour GTT result ≥ 140 mg/dL typically requires a 3-hour GTT to rule out gestational diabetes.

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Uterine Atony

The most common cause of bleeding after delivery.

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Placenta Previa

Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, caused by the placenta covering the cervix.

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Late Decelerations

A concerning fetal heart rate pattern indicating insufficient oxygen supply from the placenta.

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Endometritis

Infection post birth that causes fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia.

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Maternal Serum AFP Test

Performed between 15-20 weeks to check for neural tube defects liks spina bifida.

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Hyperemesis Gravidarum

Severe nausea, vomiting, and dehydration during pregnancy.

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Oligohydramnios

A lower than expected fundal height suggests too little amniotic fluid.

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Rhogam Indication

Administer to Rh- mothers carrying Rh+ fetus, to prevent the creation of antibodies,

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Nitrazine/Ferning Test

Confirms rupture of membranes.

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Shoulder Dystocia

A risk for newborns of mothers with poor blood sugar control during pregnancy.

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First Stage, Active Labor

Early labor, cervix 4-10 cm dilated with stronger more regular contractions

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VBAC Contraindication

Prior classical (vertical) incision increases risk of uterine rupture.

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Magnesium Sulfate

Preventing seizures in eclampsia, a severe pregnancy complication.

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IV Penicillin for GBS

Given during labor to GBS+ mothers to prevent newborn infection.

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Placental Abruption

Sudden abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, firm and tender uterus.

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Oxytocin

Commonly used for labor induction

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Variable Decelerations

This FHR pattern indicates cord compression.

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hCG Function

Maintains corpus luteum function and pregnancy.

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Leopold's Maneuvers

Used to determine fetal lie and position.

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Amniocentesis use

Assesses fetal lung maturity to plan timing of delivery.

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Treatment of hypertension and proteinuria

Prophylaxis and antihypertensive therapy

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GTD or Molar Pregnancy

Associated with choriocarcinoma

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PID

Increases likely hood of ectopic pregnancy

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Study Notes

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Antepartum Stress & Disparities

  • Stress hypothesis focuses on how stressful events during pregnancy affect mother and fetus.
  • Acute stress during pregnancy, lifetime stressors, and pre-pregnancy stressors affects perinatal outcomes.
  • Non-Hispanic Black women face maternal mortality rates 3-4 times higher than White women.
  • Hemorrhage, CV issues, cardiomyopathy, preeclampsia, embolism are the most common causes of death.

Late Pregnancy Changes & Labor

  • Increased uterine contraction strength and frequency is expected.
  • Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal contractions.
  • "Lightening" is a shape change due to sensation of the baby "dropping".
  • Ruptured Membranes (ROM) involves a gush/leak of fluid = Water Broke!
  • Bloody show is passage of blood-tinged mucus as the cervix effaces.
  • Cervical effacement is common before true labor.
  • True labor: regular, painful uterine contractions that causes cervical dilation and birth.

Braxton Hicks vs True Labor

  • Braxton Hicks is not associated with cervical dilation or intense discomfort.
  • Braxton Hicks contractions are localized in the lower abdomen and is alleviated by hydration.

Fetal Positioning & Heart Tones

  • Leopold maneuvers are 4-step palpations to the fetus to determine the fetal lie, presentation, and position.
  • Variable decels: cord compression --> place pt in knee-chest position!
  • Late Decels: worrisome --> Fetal Hypoxia

Pain Management

  • Epidural Block: local anesthetic + opioid, administered via continuous IV infusion.
  • Spinal Anesthesia: has more rapid onset than epidural, but is short lived, and preserves ambulation

Stages of Labor

  • 1st stage: contractions lead to cervical dilation
    • Latent stage = onset
    • Active stage = active maternal pushing
  • 2nd stage: complete cervical dilation
    • Passive Stage = complete cervical dilation and no maternal pushing is occurring
    • Active Stage = when pushing occurs
  • 3rd stage: cord clamp or delivery of the placenta
  • 4th stage: The first 1-2hrs post-delivery period

Assessment After Labor

  • Stage 4 has complications
  • Observe for spontaneous placental extrusion, ensure all pieces are present.
  • Check the umbilical cord for 2 arteries and 1 vein.
  • Evaluate lochia.

Postpartum Care

  • Palpate uterus for tone
  • Check Perineal pad
  • Monitor vitals.
  • Lochia changes: heavy for days then lasts wks with the following colors:
    • rubra = blood
    • serosa = less blood
    • alba = white discharge
  • Average time to ovulation occurs at day 45 non nursing, or 189 days while lactating.

Postpartum Depression & Anxiety

  • Blues occur in 70-80% of women
  • Depression in 10%
  • Psychosis: weeks later

Metritis & Infant Care

  • Metritis (endomyometritis) is infection of uterus
  • Evaluation of infant includes wiping nose/face, clamping cord, keep warm, with Kangaroo care for preemies
  • Ilotycin is antibacterial to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis gonorrhea

Abnormal & Difficult Labors - The3 Ps

  • eval the Ps should be Evaled: Powers, Passengers, Pelvis

Passenger & Powers

  • Passenger = Fetal wt
  • passenger include w/ shoulder dystocia >4000g

Induction of Labor

  • Stimulate uterine contractions before labor on its own: Aim for vaginal birth.
  • Methods include Balloon, Membrane stripping, Cytotec
  • With favorable cervix, it is centimeters, effaced, soft & anterior RIPE cervix
  • In the inverse, use Prostaglandins, and DO NOT rupture sac

Group B STR

  • V- test vaginal at/ after 4 weeks before delivery
  • Positive test needs PCN ABX:
    • indicators - preterm. rupture, GBS UTI

C/S and hydatidiform mole

  • MC is failure to progress during labor is an indication.
  • hydatidiform mole occurs after aberrant certificate

PP Hemorrhage

  • Separation cords for separation, includes increased bleeding, Shape of change.

Pregnancy Loss

  • Placenta Accreta. the placenta DOES penetrate uterus. Causes BLeeding

Ectopic Pregnancy - loss

  • Often in the Fallo tubes!
  • Assess pt reproductive age.

Contraception (sterilization)

  • Male sterilization should Occlude Vas Deferens with SE.
  • Female has Occlusion tubes where they apply clips (filshie clips).

Sterilization Stats

  • Most women who didn't use OCP or OCs correctly are MC cause of unintended pregnancy
  • Combo pills includes minipills

Sterilization Stats

  • Sterilization comes in many form which includes implants and removals

IUDs

  • adolescent canidates ideal

Contraindications to IUDs

  • uterus, abnormal uterine, cancer/ infection to uterus, and pregnancy for these device.

side effects for IUDs

  • IUD has increase PID< spont eruption to uterus.

Nex/ Inplaton

  • approved for 3 years.

progesterone Injections

  • caution on bone density should should consider benefit and risks.

Side effects injections

  • injections Similar IUD

Some Stats w/ side effects

  • Pt breast CA, vaginal bleed with undetermed cause

Sterization Side effects

  • pt needs to be in the 5 dats to determine if preg or not

Side effects

  • copper.

Contra

  • contra breast MC females problem: ovulatory dysfunction can use ART
  • If MC females problem: ovulatory dyfucntion and can use ART has high percent sucess.

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