Emergency Care: Core Principles and Consent

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

In what instance is implied consent generally considered valid for the treatment of a patient?

  • When an adult patient is unconscious and requires medical attention for a life-threatening condition. (correct)
  • When a patient verbally agrees to basic first aid but hesitates on advanced interventions.
  • When a language barrier prevents clear communication and the patient nods in agreement to treatment.
  • When a minor requires treatment and their parents are unreachable by phone.

How does the concept of 'in loco parentis' apply to emergency medical care for minors?

  • It allows teachers and school officials to provide consent for treatment of injuries that occur in a school or camp setting. (correct)
  • It permits minors to make healthcare decisions independently if they are living away from home.
  • It grants legal guardianship to the EMTs providing care, overriding parental rights during transport.
  • It requires EMTs to seek consent exclusively from the school principal before treating any student.

What is the critical consideration for an EMT when encountering a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order?

  • Withholding only resuscitation efforts, while continuing supportive care like oxygen and pain relief. (correct)
  • Ignoring the DNR if family members insist on full resuscitative measures.
  • Immediately ceasing all medical interventions, including pain management.
  • Contacting legal counsel to validate the DNR's authenticity before any action.

Under what circumstances can patient information be legally released without the patient's explicit consent?

<p>In cases involving a legal subpoena or when required by billing personnel. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) impact an EMT's responsibilities regarding patient information?

<p>It mandates strict confidentiality of Protected Health Information (PHI) and sets penalties for breaches. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must a valid Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order generally include to be honored by EMS personnel?

<p>A clear statement of the patient's medical problem(s), signature of the patient or legal guardian, and signature of one or more physicians. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between 'presumptive' and 'definitive' signs of death in the field?

<p>Presumptive signs suggest death has occurred, while definitive signs conclusively indicate death. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should a medical examiner or coroner typically be notified in the event of a death?

<p>In cases of DOA, death without prior medical care, suspected suicide, or violent death. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What legal principle is invoked when an EMT exceeds their scope of practice, potentially leading to patient harm?

<p>Negligence (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition must be met for the legal doctrine of negligence to apply to an EMT's actions?

<p>A cause-and-effect relationship must exist between the breach of duty and the damages suffered by the patient. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is abandonment legally defined in the context of EMT care?

<p>Unilaterally terminating care without ensuring the continuation of care by an equally competent medical professional. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes 'battery' in the context of providing emergency medical care?

<p>Unlawfully touching a person, including providing emergency care without consent. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under Good Samaritan laws, what conditions must generally be met for an EMT to be protected from liability when providing assistance?

<p>The EMT acted in good faith, rendered care without expectation of compensation, did not exceed their scope of practice, and did not act in a grossly negligent manner. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of maintaining complete and accurate records of all incidents involving sick or injured patients?

<p>It is a crucial safeguard against legal complications and demonstrates adherence to standard of care. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario exemplifies a potential breach of patient confidentiality via social media?

<p>Posting about a call, omitting names but including identifiable details about the location and patient's condition. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of ethical responsibilities, what does 'applied ethics' refer to for an EMT?

<p>The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of punitive damages awarded in a trial involving an EMT?

<p>To deter the defendant from repeating the behavior and are reserved for cases where the defendant has acted intentionally or with a reckless disregard. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which types of incidents typically fall under special mandatory reporting requirements for EMTs?

<p>Child abuse, domestic violence, and certain communicable diseases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do local EMS protocols contribute to an EMT's standard of care?

<p>They may differ from national standards and should always be followed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key factor differentiating libel from slander in the context of defamation?

<p>Libel is written defamation, while slander is spoken defamation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is consent?

Permission to render care.

What is informed consent?

Must explain the nature of treatment, risks, benefits, and alternatives.

What is implied consent?

Consent assumed for unconscious or incapable patients needing emergency care.

What is involuntary consent?

Consent applied to mentally ill, or developmentally delayed patients; requires guardian consent.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is abandonment?

Termination of care without patient consent or proper transfer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is assault?

Unlawfully placing a person in fear of immediate bodily harm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is battery?

Unlawfully touching a person

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is kidnapping?

Seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away by force.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is defamation?

Communication of false information that damages a person's reputation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Good Samaritan Law?

Protects those who help in good faith, without expecting compensation, and within their scope of practice.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Standard of Care?

The manner in which you must act or behave toward a patient.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Duty to Act?

Individual's duty to provide patient care.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is negligence?

Failure to provide the expected standard of care.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Scope of Practice?

The care you are allowed to provide.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nonmaleficence

A basic principle of emergency care is to do no further harm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are Special Mandatory Reporting Requirements?

Requires reporting obligations for healthcare providers and responders.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Confidentiality

A communication between you and the patient is considered confidential.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Do Not Resuscitate (DNR)?

Gives permission to withhold resuscitation

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Protected Health Information (PHI)?

Medical information and any other information that can be used to identify the patient.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is Patient autonomy?

The patient's right to make decisions about his or her health.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Core Principles

  • A basic tenet of emergency care is to do no further harm.
  • Competent care within your scope of practice, adhering to the standard of care, helps avoid legal issues.
  • Lawsuits can occur even if care is properly administered.
  • Permission to provide care is required.
  • A person must give consent for treatment.
  • A conscious, rational patient can refuse care.
  • Decision-making capacity is foundational to consent.
  • Patients have a right to make their own healthcare decisions which is known as patient autonomy.
  • Factors impacting decision-making capacity include intellectual ability, legal age, or impairment.
  • Expressed Consent: Patient acknowledges willingness to receive care or transport.
  • Informed Consent: Requires explaining the treatment, risks, benefits, alternatives, and consequences of refusal.
  • Implied Consent: Applies when patients are unconscious or unable to make rational decisions, used only when a serious medical condition poses a threat to life or limb.
  • Known as the emergency doctrine, implied consent is when a relative or spouse should be consulted prior to treatment.
  • Involuntary Consent: Applies to the mentally ill, those in behavioral crises, or the developmentally delayed; requires consent from a guardian or conservator.
  • Generally, a parent or legal guardian gives consent for minors.
  • An emancipated minor is an individual under the legal age who is legally considered an adult.
  • Emancipated minors are those who are married, in the armed services, or living away from home and self-supporting.
  • Teachers/officials can act in loco parentis in school/camp settings.
  • Implied consent can be applied when there is a true emergency in the absence of a parent(s) or legal guardian.

Forcible Restraint

  • Is permissible when a patient is a danger to themselves or others, and needs medical treatment and transport.
  • Medical control authorization and law enforcement assistance is needed.
  • Restraining without legal authority invites civil and criminal penalties.
  • Local laws and protocols should be known/followed in regards to forcible restraint.
  • Do not remove en route unless restraints endanger the patient.
  • ALS backup can provide chemical restraint.

The Right to Refuse Treatment

  • Conscious, alert adults with decision-making capacity can refuse treatment, with the result being possible death or serious injury.
  • Refusal of treatment calls often lead to litigation; local protocols/policies must be adhered to.
  • Consultation with medical control must occur and is needed for documention.
  • Base treatment decisions of guardian/caregiver on information provided such as assessment results, necessary treatment details, risks, alternatives, refusal consequences.
  • Assess and document the patient's ability to make an informed decision by asking/repeating questions, assessing answers, and observing behavior.
  • Confused, delusional, or suicidal patients cannot make an informed refusal.

Action Tips for EMTs

  • Providing treatment is more defensible than withholding it when in doubt and not endangering yourself.
  • Encourage the patient/caregiver to permit treatment again before leaving the scene after refusal.
  • Advise calling 9-1-1 if the patient changes their mind.
  • Advise contacting a physician promptly.
  • Request a signed refusal form.
  • A witness should be present.
  • Document all refusals thoroughly.

Confidentiality

  • Communications between you and the patient is confidential.
  • Confidential information consists of patient history, assessment findings, and treatment information.
  • Releasing information inappropriately may be considered a breach of confidentiality, or disclosure without authorization.
  • Records can be released if the patient signs a release, a legal subpoena is presented, or is needed by billing personnel.

HIPAA

  • The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 includes a section on patient privacy, strengthening privacy laws.
  • HIPAA offers guidance on protected information types, provider responsibilities, and breach penalties.
  • HIPAA regards all patient information you obtain as protected health information (PHI).
  • PHI includes medical information and any data that can identify the patient.
  • Civil or criminal action against you/your agency can be the result of failing to follow HIPAA rules.
  • The public may record identifying/protected patient data and images when permitted by law.

Social Media

  • Avoid logos, uniforms, vehicles, or associating marks with your agency while off duty, unless acting as an agency spokesperson.
  • Maintain on-duty professionalism when off duty.
  • Respect patients, bystanders, colleagues, and the organization you represent both online and in person.
  • Freedom of speech isn't a right to say anything without repercussions.

Advance Directives

  • Family may not want you to resuscitate a patient who is dying when you arrive.
  • A do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order gives permission to withhold resuscitation.
  • Does not mean "do not treat" as supportive measures (oxygen, pain relief, comfort) are still obligated for a patient in a cardiac arrest.
  • Protocols need to be in place for each ambulance service in such circumstances.
  • Advance directives are written documents specifying medical treatment for a competent patient in the event they cannot make decisions.
  • This is most commonly used when a patient is comatose.
  • They are often referred to as a living will or health care directive.
  • A clear statement of the patient's medical problem(s).
  • Signature of the patient or legal guardian.
  • Signature of one or more physicians or other licensed health care providers.
  • DNR orders with expiration dates must be dated in the preceding 12 months to be valid.
  • In terminal care facilities often POLST or MOLST medical orders describe acceptable interventions, which is required to be signed by an authorized medical provider.
  • Contact medical control for guidance when these documents are encountered.
  • Some patients may have named surrogates to make decisions for them when they can no longer do so.
  • These are called durable powers of attorney for healthcare or health care proxies.

Physical Signs of Death

  • A physician is responsible for determining the cause of death.
  • Presumptive signs of death: Unresponsiveness to pain, lack of pulse/heartbeat, no chest rise/fall, no reflexes, no pupillary reactivity, no blood pressure, profound cyanosis, lowered body temperature.
  • Definitive signs of death: Obvious mortal injury, dependent lividity (blood settling), rigor mortis (stiffening), algor mortis (cooling).
  • Putrefaction occurs between 40 and 96 hours post mortem as bodily tissues decompose.

Medical Examiner Cases

  • The medical examiner's involvement depends on the death's nature and scene.
  • The coroner or medical examiner must be notified when someone is DOA, or there is death without previous medical care, a suicide, suspected poisoning, violent death, an accident, suspicious of a criminal act, and infant or child deaths.
  • Disturb the scene as little as possible.
  • Document emergency medical care and scene findings carefully when care has been initiated .

Special Situations

  • Organ donors have the wish to donate their organs and their consent is evidenced by information on a donor card or driver's license.
  • Prioritize saving the patient's life while remembering the organs require oxygen.
  • Medical identification insignias include bracelets, necklaces, keychains, or cards that indicate allergies, or other serious medical condition.
  • USB medical bracelets often store data as PDFs.

Scope of Practice

  • Outlines the care you're able to provide and is defined at the state level.
  • A medical director refines it further via protocols/standing orders.
  • The medical director authorizes care through telephone/radio (online) or standing orders/protocols (offline).
  • Exceeding scope may be considered negligence.

Standards of Care

  • The way one must act/behave is called a standard of care.
  • How someone with similar training would act in similar situations, with how the standard of care is defined.
  • The standard of care is established by local custom, imposed by law, professional/institutional benchmarks, textbooks, and states.

Duty to Act

  • An individual's responsibility to provide patient care.
  • A legal duty exists once an ambulance responds to a call.
  • Off-duty EMTs usually aren't legally bound to help at a crash scene.
  • Knowledge of local laws and protocols is key in determining ones duty to act.

Negligence

  • Negligence- failure to provide the same care that someone with similar training would.
  • All four must be present for the legal doctrine of negligence to apply:.
  • Duty: The obligation to provide care within training/protocols.
  • Breach of duty from an EMT who didn't act within the expected/reasonable care standard.
  • Damages: A patient is physically or psychologically harmed in some way.
  • Causation: A cause-and-effect from a breach of duty that results in damages to the patient.
  • Res ipsa loquitur arises when it is shown the injury was caused by the EMT and the negligence.

Negligence Per Se & Torts

  • Arises when a statute occurs because of a clear violation.
  • An EMT performing an ALS skill that is the reason for a patients injury is one example.
  • Civil wrongs outside US criminal courts include defamation and privacy invasion.

Abandonment

  • Abandonment: When the EMT unilaterally terminates care without the patient's consent, without arranging for further medical attention.
  • The EMT has a duty to act until a more qualified provider assumes responsibility once care has started.
  • Can occur when the patient is dropped off at the scene or in the emergency department where you are dropping off your patient.
  • Obtain a signature on the patient care report from the person accepting transfer of care at the hospital.

Assault, Battery and Kidnapping

  • Assault is unlawfully causing fear of bodily hard.
  • Battery is unlawfully touching a person without the patient's consent.
  • Includes threatening to restrain a patient who does not want to be transported.
  • Kidnapping involves restriction of movement against someones will.
  • This can include transporting a patient against their will and can include false imprisonment.
  • Legal problems may arise when consent is not clear.

Defamation

  • Defamation is communicating false information that damages reputation.
  • Libel (written)
  • Slander (spoken)
  • Statements on run reports must be accurate, factual, & relevant.

Good Samaritan Laws and Immunity

  • The common law principle that allows individuals that help reasonably to not be held reliable for damages.
  • To be protected by provisions of Good Samaritan law, several conditions must generally be met:
    • Act in good faith.
    • Render care without expectation of compensation.
    • Do not exceed your scope of practice.
    • Do not act in a grossly negligent manner.
  • Gross negligence is a reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
  • Limitations on liability that EMS systems have are provided by Immunity statutes for those that are a governmental agency.

Records and Reports

  • To safeguard legal complications agencies must mainatin good records of patients interactions (sick or injured).
  • Courts view them as essential for recalling ones duty of care and a accurate representation of treatment.
  • A procedure that is not written was not done.
  • Untidy or incomplete is evidence of inexpert care.
  • National EMS Information System (NEMSIS) permits the storage, standardization, and sharing of data throughout the United States.

Mandatory Reporting

  • EMTs and health providers must report obligations in most states.
  • Special reporting requirements may include:
    • All forms of abuse.
    • Felonies, drug related injuries, and childbirth injuries.
    • Attempted suicides or certain deaths.
    • Communicable diseases, dog bites, or crimes of any kind.
    • Exposure concerns for all kinds of communicable diseases.

Ethical Responsibilities

  • In addition to legal duties, EMTs have ethical responsibilities to themselves, coworkers, the public, and the patient.
  • Ethics is the philosophy of right and wrong and involves moral duties, and ideal behavior.
  • Morality is the code of conduct affecting character, conduct, and conscience.
  • Bioethics addresses ethical issues in health care.
  • One must evalutate application to their own and professional standards.

The EMT in Court

  • EMTs often enter as a witness or defendant in civil or criminal cases.
  • You should alert management when receiving any subpoenas that you will be testifying in court.
  • Always review past case reports and remain neutral.
  • An attorney is require, usually supplied.
  • Statues apply to cases that must commence within a specific time and also affect what amount of money can be rewarded.
  • Discovery involves the opportunity for both sides to obtain more information to reach a better understanding of the case.
  • The discovery phase is usually when cases are settled.
  • Rewards provided are compensatory for damages or injuries etc and the punitive to warn against continuing the harmful behavior.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

First Aid Consent and Support Sources
9 questions
EMS Ethics and Consent Quiz
19 questions
EMT Scope of Practice and Patient Consent
42 questions
EMT Ethical and Legal Responsibilities
43 questions
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser