Podcast
Questions and Answers
The following statement is/are true regarding the relationship of bond length and bond polarity except:
. As the bond polarity increase, the bond length decreases
b. A C-F bond has a longer bond length than C-C
c. As bond polarity increases the bond length also increases
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
The following statement is/are true regarding the relationship of bond length and bond polarity except: . As the bond polarity increase, the bond length decreases b. A C-F bond has a longer bond length than C-C c. As bond polarity increases the bond length also increases d. A and B only e. B and C only
The following statement/s is/are true regarding the relationship of hybridization of orbitals and bond length:
a. As the s character increases, the bond length increases
b. As the s character increases, the bond length decreases
c. The bond length of acetylene is longer than the bond length of ethylene
d. The bond length of ethane is shorter than the bond length of ethylene
e. None of the choices
The following statement/s is/are true regarding the relationship of hybridization of orbitals and bond length: a. As the s character increases, the bond length increases b. As the s character increases, the bond length decreases c. The bond length of acetylene is longer than the bond length of ethylene d. The bond length of ethane is shorter than the bond length of ethylene e. None of the choices
Bond strength or bond energy is the energy necessary to break the only bond in a diatomic
molecule or to dissociate the bonded atoms to their bond state. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding its relationship with orbital hybridization, bond length and bond
poarity?
Bond strength or bond energy is the energy necessary to break the only bond in a diatomic molecule or to dissociate the bonded atoms to their bond state. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding its relationship with orbital hybridization, bond length and bond poarity?
What is the name of the following structure: CH3CH2CH2-C=CH
What is the name of the following structure: CH3CH2CH2-C=CH
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Organic pharmaceuticals are often complex molecules which have a variety of acidic and basic
functional groups. The behaviour of these groups in an aqueous environment will influence the
activity of the drug and its absorption in the different compartments of the body. Which of the
following statement is/are true regarding the pH of the medium and the acidic/basic property of the drug?
Organic pharmaceuticals are often complex molecules which have a variety of acidic and basic functional groups. The behaviour of these groups in an aqueous environment will influence the activity of the drug and its absorption in the different compartments of the body. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding the pH of the medium and the acidic/basic property of the drug?
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Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drug distribution and pKa?
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drug distribution and pKa?
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These lipid soluble compounds are also paraffin or saturated hydrocarbons. They commonly
undergo halogination and combustion reaction and, in vivo, terminal carbon or side chain
hydroxylation may occur.
These lipid soluble compounds are also paraffin or saturated hydrocarbons. They commonly undergo halogination and combustion reaction and, in vivo, terminal carbon or side chain hydroxylation may occur.
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These lipid soluble compounds are also known as olefins and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Their
common reactions are the addition of hydrogen or halogenation, hydration (to form glycols), and
oxidation (to form peroxides).
These lipid soluble compounds are also known as olefins and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Their common reactions are the addition of hydrogen or halogenation, hydration (to form glycols), and oxidation (to form peroxides).
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The structure of these compounds is based on benzene. These molecules exhibit multicenter
bonding, which confers unique chemical properties.
The structure of these compounds is based on benzene. These molecules exhibit multicenter bonding, which confers unique chemical properties.
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Which of the following alcohols is the most water soluble?
Which of the following alcohols is the most water soluble?
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Which of the following statement is /are true regarding oxidation of alcohols?
Which of the following statement is /are true regarding oxidation of alcohols?
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Which of the following compounds has a general formula of R-O-R with an oxygen bonded to 2
carbon atoms?
Which of the following compounds has a general formula of R-O-R with an oxygen bonded to 2 carbon atoms?
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These compounds have a general formula of R-CHO and contain a carbon group (C=O). The
common reactions of these compounds are oxidation and hemiacetal and acetal formation.
These compounds have a general formula of R-CHO and contain a carbon group (C=O). The common reactions of these compounds are oxidation and hemiacetal and acetal formation.
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Which of the following statements is/are correct about the water solubility of amines?
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the water solubility of amines?
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These compounds have a general formula of RCOOR and commonly undergo hydrolysis to form
carboxylic acid and alcohol.
These compounds have a general formula of RCOOR and commonly undergo hydrolysis to form carboxylic acid and alcohol.
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These compounds have a general formula of RCOOH and commonly undergo salt formation
with bases, esterification and decaroxylation.
These compounds have a general formula of RCOOH and commonly undergo salt formation with bases, esterification and decaroxylation.
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Which of the following functional group when added to a benzene nucleus, decreases the lipid
solubility of the benzene
I. A carboxylic acid group
II. An ethyl group
III. A phenolic group
Which of the following functional group when added to a benzene nucleus, decreases the lipid solubility of the benzene
I. A carboxylic acid group II. An ethyl group III. A phenolic group
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Decomposition the drug molecule at room temperature most likely would occur by
Decomposition the drug molecule at room temperature most likely would occur by
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Reactions that will be possible metabolic pathways for the drug molecule include
I. Ring hydroxylation
II. Glucuronide formation
III. Enzymatic hydrolysis
Reactions that will be possible metabolic pathways for the drug molecule include
I. Ring hydroxylation II. Glucuronide formation III. Enzymatic hydrolysis
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Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drugs?
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drugs?
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Most drugs bind to their targets by means of intermolecular bonds. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding these forces?
Most drugs bind to their targets by means of intermolecular bonds. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding these forces?
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This is the type of enzyme inhibition where the drug react with the enzyme and forms a covalent
bond.
This is the type of enzyme inhibition where the drug react with the enzyme and forms a covalent bond.
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These type of inhibitor binds to the enzyme substrate complex in which its effect cannot be
overcome by increasing the substrate concentration
These type of inhibitor binds to the enzyme substrate complex in which its effect cannot be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration
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Which of the following drugs is incorrectly match with its target enzyme?
Which of the following drugs is incorrectly match with its target enzyme?
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This type of inhibitor binds to a binding site different from the active site. They alter the shape of
the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
This type of inhibitor binds to a binding site different from the active site. They alter the shape of the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
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Evaluate the following statements: Antagonists can mimic the natural messengers and activate
receptors. Antagonist can bind to the receptor but they do not activate it.
Evaluate the following statements: Antagonists can mimic the natural messengers and activate receptors. Antagonist can bind to the receptor but they do not activate it.
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The following factors must be considered in designing an agonist:
The following factors must be considered in designing an agonist:
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Which of the following statements is/are true regarding structurally-specific and structurally non
specific drugs?
I. The biologic effect of structurally non specific drugs is more closely correlated with the
physical properties of the molecules than with the chemical structure.
II. Examples of structurally non specific drugs are 6-mercaptopurine, phenothiazines,
pyrimethamine, and primaquine.
III. The biologic effect of structurally specific drugs, although not completely independent of the
physical properties, depends on certain chemical structure on drug molecule. Chemical
reactivity of the drug plays an important role as reflected in bonding propensities and
exactness of fit on the receptors.
IV. General anesthetics, hypnotics and volatile insecticides are typical examples of structurally
specific drugs.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding structurally-specific and structurally non specific drugs?
I. The biologic effect of structurally non specific drugs is more closely correlated with the physical properties of the molecules than with the chemical structure. II. Examples of structurally non specific drugs are 6-mercaptopurine, phenothiazines, pyrimethamine, and primaquine. III. The biologic effect of structurally specific drugs, although not completely independent of the physical properties, depends on certain chemical structure on drug molecule. Chemical reactivity of the drug plays an important role as reflected in bonding propensities and exactness of fit on the receptors. IV. General anesthetics, hypnotics and volatile insecticides are typical examples of structurally specific drugs.
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Which of the following drug-enzyme pairs is/are correctly matched?
I. Penicillins – transpeptidase
II. Cephalosphorins – transpeptidase
III. Pyrimethamine – Dihydrofolate reductase
IV. Epinephrine – Adenylyl cyclise
Which of the following drug-enzyme pairs is/are correctly matched?
I. Penicillins – transpeptidase II. Cephalosphorins – transpeptidase III. Pyrimethamine – Dihydrofolate reductase IV. Epinephrine – Adenylyl cyclise
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It is generally conceived that an exact fit of the drug molecule and receptor is necessary to evoke
maximal biologic response that is imperative to consider the stereochemical makeup of drugs.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the biologic activity of some
stereochemical isomers?
I. Only the (-) isomer of ascorbic acid has antiscorbutic activity
II. Only the D isomers of alpha and beta glucose show high affinity for the red blood cell
sugar transfer stem.
III. Only the (-) isomer of alpha methyldopa has hypotensive activity
IV. Only the D(threo) isomer has high anti-bacterial activity
It is generally conceived that an exact fit of the drug molecule and receptor is necessary to evoke maximal biologic response that is imperative to consider the stereochemical makeup of drugs. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the biologic activity of some stereochemical isomers?
I. Only the (-) isomer of ascorbic acid has antiscorbutic activity
II. Only the D isomers of alpha and beta glucose show high affinity for the red blood cell
sugar transfer stem.
III. Only the (-) isomer of alpha methyldopa has hypotensive activity
IV. Only the D(threo) isomer has high anti-bacterial activity
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What is the rate-limiting step in drug absorption of orally administered solid dosage forms?
What is the rate-limiting step in drug absorption of orally administered solid dosage forms?
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Which of the following factors can influence the dissolution rate of drugs from solid dosage forms
and hence, the therapeutic activity?
I. Solubility, particle size, crystalline form and salt form of the drug
II. Rate of disintegration in the gastrointestinal lumen
III. Gastric pH, motility and presence of food at the absorption site
Which of the following factors can influence the dissolution rate of drugs from solid dosage forms and hence, the therapeutic activity?
I. Solubility, particle size, crystalline form and salt form of the drug II. Rate of disintegration in the gastrointestinal lumen III. Gastric pH, motility and presence of food at the absorption site
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Which of the following statements is/are true regarding renal excretion of drugs?
I. Renal excretion involves three processes: glomerular filtration, secretion and tubular
reabsorption.
II. Both the free drug and the drug bond to plasma proteins are filtered by the kidneys.
III. Drugs with high lipid/water partition coefficients are reabsorbed readily while those with
low lipid/water partition coefficients are unable to diffuse back across the tubular membrane
and are excreted in the urine unless reabsorbed by an active carrier system.
IV. Altering the pH of urine can result to termination of biologic activity of weakly acidic and
basic drugs
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding renal excretion of drugs?
I. Renal excretion involves three processes: glomerular filtration, secretion and tubular reabsorption. II. Both the free drug and the drug bond to plasma proteins are filtered by the kidneys. III. Drugs with high lipid/water partition coefficients are reabsorbed readily while those with low lipid/water partition coefficients are unable to diffuse back across the tubular membrane and are excreted in the urine unless reabsorbed by an active carrier system. IV. Altering the pH of urine can result to termination of biologic activity of weakly acidic and basic drugs
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Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Phase I and Phase II Metabolic
reactions?
I. Phase I reactions include oxidation, hydroxylation, reduction and hydrolysis-enzymatic
reactions in which a new functional group in introduced into the drug molecule or an existing
functional group is modified making the drug more polar and more readily excreted.
II. Phase II reactions are enzymatic syntheses whereby a functional group is masked by the
addition of a new group, for example, acetyl, sulphate, glucoronic acid or certain amino
acids, which increases the polarity of the drug.
III. Most drugs undergo phase I reactions only.
IV. Drugs that are resistant to drug-metabolizing enzymes or that are hydrophilic are
excreted largely unchanged.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Phase I and Phase II Metabolic reactions?
I. Phase I reactions include oxidation, hydroxylation, reduction and hydrolysis-enzymatic reactions in which a new functional group in introduced into the drug molecule or an existing functional group is modified making the drug more polar and more readily excreted. II. Phase II reactions are enzymatic syntheses whereby a functional group is masked by the addition of a new group, for example, acetyl, sulphate, glucoronic acid or certain amino acids, which increases the polarity of the drug. III. Most drugs undergo phase I reactions only. IV. Drugs that are resistant to drug-metabolizing enzymes or that are hydrophilic are excreted largely unchanged.
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Which of the following statements regarding NADPH-Dependent Oxidative Reactions in Liver
Microsomes is/are correct?
I. Aniline is converted to p-Aminophenol by aromatic hydroxylation
II. Codeine is converted to morphine and formaldehyde by N-dealkylation.
III. Imipramine is converted to Despiramine by O-dealkylation
IV. Amphetamine is converted to Phenylacetone by deamination
I. Aniline is converted to p-Aminophenol by aromatic hydroxylation
II. Codeine is converted to morphine and formaldehyde by N-dealkylation.
III. Imipramine is converted to Despiramine by O-dealkylation
IV. Amphetamine is converted to Phenylacetone by deamination
Which of the following statements regarding NADPH-Dependent Oxidative Reactions in Liver Microsomes is/are correct? I. Aniline is converted to p-Aminophenol by aromatic hydroxylation II. Codeine is converted to morphine and formaldehyde by N-dealkylation. III. Imipramine is converted to Despiramine by O-dealkylation IV. Amphetamine is converted to Phenylacetone by deamination
I. Aniline is converted to p-Aminophenol by aromatic hydroxylation II. Codeine is converted to morphine and formaldehyde by N-dealkylation. III. Imipramine is converted to Despiramine by O-dealkylation IV. Amphetamine is converted to Phenylacetone by deamination
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Phase I metabolic transformation introduce new and polar functional groups into the molecule,
which may produce one or more of the following changes, except:
Phase I metabolic transformation introduce new and polar functional groups into the molecule, which may produce one or more of the following changes, except:
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Which of the following Phase II pathway is correctly paired with their activated conjugating
immediate?
I. Glucoronic acid conjugation: uridine phosphate glucoronic acid (UDP-GA)
II. Sulfate conjugation: 3’-phospho adenosine-5’-phosphosulfate (PAPS)
III. Methylation: S-adenosylmethionine
IV. Amide synthesis: Coenzyme A
Which of the following Phase II pathway is correctly paired with their activated conjugating immediate?
I. Glucoronic acid conjugation: uridine phosphate glucoronic acid (UDP-GA) II. Sulfate conjugation: 3’-phospho adenosine-5’-phosphosulfate (PAPS) III. Methylation: S-adenosylmethionine IV. Amide synthesis: Coenzyme A
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Sulfonamides can undergo which metabolic pathway?
I. Acetylation at the N4 amino group
II. Conjugation with glucoronic acid or sulphate at the N4 amino group
III. Acetylation or conjugation with glucoronic acid at the N1 amino group
IV. Hydroxylation and conjugation in the heterocyclic ring, R
Sulfonamides can undergo which metabolic pathway?
I. Acetylation at the N4 amino group
II. Conjugation with glucoronic acid or sulphate at the N4 amino group
III. Acetylation or conjugation with glucoronic acid at the N1 amino group
IV. Hydroxylation and conjugation in the heterocyclic ring, R
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The first purely synthetic antimicrobial drug which was developed by Paul Erlich. This drug was
used in the treatment of tryponosomiasis and syphilis.
The first purely synthetic antimicrobial drug which was developed by Paul Erlich. This drug was used in the treatment of tryponosomiasis and syphilis.
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Which of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting the metabolism of microbial
organism but not of the host?
Which of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting the metabolism of microbial organism but not of the host?
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Which of the following antibacterial agents inhibit s bacterial cell wall synthesis?
Which of the following antibacterial agents inhibit s bacterial cell wall synthesis?
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Which of the following antibacterial agent can interact with the plasma membrane of bacterial
cells to affect membrane permeability?
Which of the following antibacterial agent can interact with the plasma membrane of bacterial cells to affect membrane permeability?
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Which of the following antibacterial agents can disrupt the synthesis of essential proteins and
enzyme required for the cell’s survival?
Which of the following antibacterial agents can disrupt the synthesis of essential proteins and enzyme required for the cell’s survival?
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This antibacterial agent can inhibit the nucleic acid transcription and replication which prevents
cell division and.or protein synthesis.
This antibacterial agent can inhibit the nucleic acid transcription and replication which prevents cell division and.or protein synthesis.
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Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the structure-activity relationship of
sulphonamides?
I. The p-amino group must be unsubstituted unless it is a prodrug or when the body can further
metabolize it to generate the active compound.
II. Extra substitution of the aromatic ring increases activity.
III. The sulphonamide nitrogen must be primary or secondary.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the structure-activity relationship of sulphonamides?
I. The p-amino group must be unsubstituted unless it is a prodrug or when the body can further metabolize it to generate the active compound. II. Extra substitution of the aromatic ring increases activity. III. The sulphonamide nitrogen must be primary or secondary.
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Which part of the drug molecule can only be varied to retain the antibacterial activity?
Which part of the drug molecule can only be varied to retain the antibacterial activity?
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A sulphonamide used in combination with pyrimethamine in the treatment of Malaria.
A sulphonamide used in combination with pyrimethamine in the treatment of Malaria.
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It is an orally active dyaminopyridine structure which has proved to be highly selective
antibacterial and antimalarial agent often given in conjunction with sulfamethoxazole. It inhibits the
enzyme dihydrofolate reductase leading to the inhibition of DNA synthesis and cell growth.
It is an orally active dyaminopyridine structure which has proved to be highly selective antibacterial and antimalarial agent often given in conjunction with sulfamethoxazole. It inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase leading to the inhibition of DNA synthesis and cell growth.
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Successfully isolated penicillin using processes such as freeze-drying and chromatography.
Successfully isolated penicillin using processes such as freeze-drying and chromatography.
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Addition of electron-withdrawing group into the acyl side chain of penicillin structure will render
the drug
Addition of electron-withdrawing group into the acyl side chain of penicillin structure will render the drug
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What is the effect of steric shields to the penicillin structure?
What is the effect of steric shields to the penicillin structure?
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This drug is a penicillin analogue with isoxazolyl incorporated in the acyl side chain making it
useful against Staphylococcus aureus infections and acid resistant.
This drug is a penicillin analogue with isoxazolyl incorporated in the acyl side chain making it useful against Staphylococcus aureus infections and acid resistant.
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Which of the following broad-spectrum penicillin analogues do not have a urea functional group
at the alpha-position?
Which of the following broad-spectrum penicillin analogues do not have a urea functional group at the alpha-position?
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Which of the following broad spectrum penicillin analogues has carboxylic acid group in the acyl
side chain?
Which of the following broad spectrum penicillin analogues has carboxylic acid group in the acyl side chain?
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Which of the following amino acids are the biosynthetic precursors of penicillin?
Which of the following amino acids are the biosynthetic precursors of penicillin?
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Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the chemical structure of
cephalosporins?
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the chemical structure of cephalosporins?
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Which of the following statements correctly describe/s the structure of carbapenems such as
imipenem and meropenem?
Which of the following statements correctly describe/s the structure of carbapenems such as imipenem and meropenem?
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Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor used in combination with amoxicillin and other Blactamase antibiotics. Which of the following statements correctly describe clavulanic acid?
Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor used in combination with amoxicillin and other Blactamase antibiotics. Which of the following statements correctly describe clavulanic acid?
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Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam and tazobactam are B-lactamase inhibitors that act as suicide
substrates are administered with B-lactam antibiotics to prevent their degradation. Which of the
following combinations are correctly matched to their brand names?
Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam and tazobactam are B-lactamase inhibitors that act as suicide substrates are administered with B-lactam antibiotics to prevent their degradation. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched to their brand names?
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This antibiotic was isolated from Streptomyces garyphalus and inhibits bacterial cell wall
synthesis by mimicking the structure of D-Alanine and inhibiting the enzymes L-Alanine racemase
and D-Ala-D-Ala ligase.
This antibiotic was isolated from Streptomyces garyphalus and inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by mimicking the structure of D-Alanine and inhibiting the enzymes L-Alanine racemase and D-Ala-D-Ala ligase.
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A polypeptide complex produced from Bacillus subtilis that binds and inhibits the carrier lipid
responsible for carrying the cell wall components across the cell membrane.
A polypeptide complex produced from Bacillus subtilis that binds and inhibits the carrier lipid responsible for carrying the cell wall components across the cell membrane.
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A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces orientalis.
A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces orientalis.
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A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Actinomyces teichomyceticus
A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Actinomyces teichomyceticus
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An antibiotic composed of 16 amino acids that is described as a ‘tunnelling’ molecule that act on
the plasma membrane and result in the uncontrolled movement of ions across cell membrane
leading to cell death.
An antibiotic composed of 16 amino acids that is described as a ‘tunnelling’ molecule that act on the plasma membrane and result in the uncontrolled movement of ions across cell membrane leading to cell death.
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An ionophore antibiotic with a cyclic structure obtained from Streptomyces fermentation that acts
on the plasma membrane structure by allowing the uncontrolled movement of ions across the cell
membrane. This ionophore is specific for potassium ions over sodium ions.
An ionophore antibiotic with a cyclic structure obtained from Streptomyces fermentation that acts on the plasma membrane structure by allowing the uncontrolled movement of ions across the cell membrane. This ionophore is specific for potassium ions over sodium ions.
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A polypeptide antibiotic derived from Bacillus polymyxa which can cause leakage of small
molecules such as nucleosides from the cell resulting to cell death.
A polypeptide antibiotic derived from Bacillus polymyxa which can cause leakage of small molecules such as nucleosides from the cell resulting to cell death.
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A cyclic lipopeptide derived from a bacterial strain of Streptomyces roseosporus and works by
disrupting multiple functions of bacterial cell membrane.
A cyclic lipopeptide derived from a bacterial strain of Streptomyces roseosporus and works by disrupting multiple functions of bacterial cell membrane.
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A bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitor that was isolated from Streptomyces griseus. This
antibiotic contains a carbohydrate and basic amine groups in its structure.
A bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitor that was isolated from Streptomyces griseus. This antibiotic contains a carbohydrate and basic amine groups in its structure.
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A bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of
ribosomes and preventing aminoacyl tRNA from binding. This drug was isolated from Streptomyces
aureofasciens.
A bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of ribosomes and preventing aminoacyl tRNA from binding. This drug was isolated from Streptomyces aureofasciens.
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Which of the following antibiotics has a large lactone ring, a ketone group and a glycosidically
linked amino sugar in its structure?
Which of the following antibiotics has a large lactone ring, a ketone group and a glycosidically linked amino sugar in its structure?
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Clindamycin, a sulphur containing antibiotic, must not be given with which of the following drugs
because of having the same binding site at the ribosomes?
Clindamycin, a sulphur containing antibiotic, must not be given with which of the following drugs because of having the same binding site at the ribosomes?
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Quinupristin and Dalfupristin are streptogramins isolated from
Quinupristin and Dalfupristin are streptogramins isolated from
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Which of the following drug is an oxazolidinone that can prevent the formation of 70s ribosome
by binding to the 50s subunit?
Which of the following drug is an oxazolidinone that can prevent the formation of 70s ribosome by binding to the 50s subunit?
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Nalidixic acid was the first therapeutically agent in the class of compounds that inhibits
topoisomerase enzymes, resulting in inhibition of replication and transcription. Which of the following
is related to nalidixic acid?
Nalidixic acid was the first therapeutically agent in the class of compounds that inhibits topoisomerase enzymes, resulting in inhibition of replication and transcription. Which of the following is related to nalidixic acid?
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An aminoacridine agent used topically to treat deep surface wounds. It can interact directly with
bacterial DNA by intercalation.
An aminoacridine agent used topically to treat deep surface wounds. It can interact directly with bacterial DNA by intercalation.
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The antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces mediterranei which inhibits Gram positive bacteria and
works by binding noncovalently to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibiting the start of RNA
synthesis. The flat naphthalene ring and several of the hydroxyl groups in its structure are essential
for activity, and the drug exists in as zwitterions giving it good solubility in both aqueous acid and
lipids
The antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces mediterranei which inhibits Gram positive bacteria and works by binding noncovalently to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibiting the start of RNA synthesis. The flat naphthalene ring and several of the hydroxyl groups in its structure are essential for activity, and the drug exists in as zwitterions giving it good solubility in both aqueous acid and lipids
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A nitroimidazole structure introduced as an anti-protozoal agent and later became anti bacterial
agent. Its mechanism of action involves the drug entering the bacterial cell wall where the nitro group
is reduced and free radicals are formed and act on DNA.
A nitroimidazole structure introduced as an anti-protozoal agent and later became anti bacterial agent. Its mechanism of action involves the drug entering the bacterial cell wall where the nitro group is reduced and free radicals are formed and act on DNA.
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A drug used to treat urinary tract infections where it degrades in acid conditions to give
formaldehyde as the active agent.
A drug used to treat urinary tract infections where it degrades in acid conditions to give formaldehyde as the active agent.
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An antiviral drug that has a nucleoside-like structure and contains the same nucleic acid base as
deoxyguanosine, but lacks the complete sugar ring. It specifically inhibits viral DNA polymerase and
used in the treatment of infections due to herpes simplex 1 and 2 as well as varicella-zoster viruses.
An antiviral drug that has a nucleoside-like structure and contains the same nucleic acid base as deoxyguanosine, but lacks the complete sugar ring. It specifically inhibits viral DNA polymerase and used in the treatment of infections due to herpes simplex 1 and 2 as well as varicella-zoster viruses.
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Which of the following is the valine ester prodrug of acyclovir useful in the treatment of varicellazoster virus infections?
Which of the following is the valine ester prodrug of acyclovir useful in the treatment of varicellazoster virus infections?
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Which of the following antiviral drug is an analogue of deoxythymidine used in the treatment of
herpes keratitis? The triphosphate form of this drug inhibits viral DNA polymerase as well as
thymidylate synthetase.
Which of the following antiviral drug is an analogue of deoxythymidine used in the treatment of herpes keratitis? The triphosphate form of this drug inhibits viral DNA polymerase as well as thymidylate synthetase.
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A plant product used in the treatment of genital warts caused by DNA virus papilloma virus
A plant product used in the treatment of genital warts caused by DNA virus papilloma virus
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This drug consists of 21 nucleotides and phosphothionate backbone. It is a DNA antisense
molecule that blocks the translation of viral RNA and is used against retinal inflammation caused by
CMV in AIDS patients.
This drug consists of 21 nucleotides and phosphothionate backbone. It is a DNA antisense molecule that blocks the translation of viral RNA and is used against retinal inflammation caused by CMV in AIDS patients.
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A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor which is an analogue of deoxythymidine where the
3’hydroxyl group is replaced by an azido group.
A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor which is an analogue of deoxythymidine where the 3’hydroxyl group is replaced by an azido group.
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The anti-HIV drug contains inosine as the nucleic acid base and is converted through a series of
enzyme reaction to 2’,3’-dideoxyadenosine triphosphate which is the active drug.
The anti-HIV drug contains inosine as the nucleic acid base and is converted through a series of enzyme reaction to 2’,3’-dideoxyadenosine triphosphate which is the active drug.
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Which of the following anti-HIV drug is an analogue of deoxycytidine where the 3’ carbon has
been replaced by sulphur?
Which of the following anti-HIV drug is an analogue of deoxycytidine where the 3’ carbon has been replaced by sulphur?
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The only guanosine analogue that is used against HIV infections and Hepatitis B.
The only guanosine analogue that is used against HIV infections and Hepatitis B.
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A second generation non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that has a benzoxaxinone
structure.
A second generation non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that has a benzoxaxinone structure.
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Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding anti-HIV drugs?
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding anti-HIV drugs?
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Which substituent of chloramphenicol is responsibe for its toxic effect?
Which substituent of chloramphenicol is responsibe for its toxic effect?
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding Erythromycin?
I. Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes
II. When administered together with chloramphenicol, their bacteriostatic effect will increase.
III. The ketone and 2 alcohol groups in its structure are responsible for its acid sensitivity.
IV. Increasing the size of the macrocycle to a 16-membered ring can increase the acid stability
of the molecule.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Erythromycin?
I. Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes II. When administered together with chloramphenicol, their bacteriostatic effect will increase. III. The ketone and 2 alcohol groups in its structure are responsible for its acid sensitivity. IV. Increasing the size of the macrocycle to a 16-membered ring can increase the acid stability of the molecule.
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Amantadine is one of the earliest antiviral drugs used clinically against flu. Which of
the following statements is correct regarding amantadine?
I. Amantadine is an adamantine related to rimantadine.
II. It inhibits the penetration and uncoating of the influenza virus.
III. It can inhibit replication of the influenza virus by blocking a viral ion channel
called matrix (M2) protein
IV. At high concentrations, it can alter pH of endosomes and prevent the acidic
environment required by the hemagglutinins to fuse the viral membrane with
that of the endosome.
Amantadine is one of the earliest antiviral drugs used clinically against flu. Which of the following statements is correct regarding amantadine?
I. Amantadine is an adamantine related to rimantadine. II. It inhibits the penetration and uncoating of the influenza virus. III. It can inhibit replication of the influenza virus by blocking a viral ion channel called matrix (M2) protein IV. At high concentrations, it can alter pH of endosomes and prevent the acidic environment required by the hemagglutinins to fuse the viral membrane with that of the endosome.
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A semi-synthetic analogue of camptothecin given intravenously and is a prodrug used in
combination with fluorouracil and folinic acid for the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer.
A semi-synthetic analogue of camptothecin given intravenously and is a prodrug used in combination with fluorouracil and folinic acid for the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer.
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An antisense drug designed to inhibit the mRNA molecules that code for proteins which
suppress apoptosis.
An antisense drug designed to inhibit the mRNA molecules that code for proteins which suppress apoptosis.
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A natural product that reacts with nucleophiles to produce diradical species. Its reaction with
DNA ultimately leads to cutting of the DNA chains.
A natural product that reacts with nucleophiles to produce diradical species. Its reaction with DNA ultimately leads to cutting of the DNA chains.
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It is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy, the metabolism of
which produces arcolein which is toxic to the bladder and kidneys.
It is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy, the metabolism of which produces arcolein which is toxic to the bladder and kidneys.
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An alkylating agent that can cause intrastrand cross-linking preferref over cisplatin for the
intravenous treatment of advanced ovarian tumors because of its less severe side effects.
An alkylating agent that can cause intrastrand cross-linking preferref over cisplatin for the intravenous treatment of advanced ovarian tumors because of its less severe side effects.
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Which of the following drugs is not an alkylating agent used in cancer chemotherapy?
Which of the following drugs is not an alkylating agent used in cancer chemotherapy?
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A thiopurine prodrug which is converted to its corresponding monophosphate that inhibits
purine synthesis.
A thiopurine prodrug which is converted to its corresponding monophosphate that inhibits purine synthesis.
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An antimetabolite that is very similar in structure to the natural folates differing only in additional
amino and methyl groups. It inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase which is responsible in
maintaining levels of the enzyme cofactor tetrahydrofolate.
An antimetabolite that is very similar in structure to the natural folates differing only in additional amino and methyl groups. It inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase which is responsible in maintaining levels of the enzyme cofactor tetrahydrofolate.
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This drug acts as a prodrug for a suicide inhibitor. It is converted in the body to the fluorinated
analogue of 2’deoxyuridylic acid monophosphate which then combines with the enzyme thymidylate
synthase and the cofactor.
This drug acts as a prodrug for a suicide inhibitor. It is converted in the body to the fluorinated analogue of 2’deoxyuridylic acid monophosphate which then combines with the enzyme thymidylate synthase and the cofactor.
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An anti-leukemia drug isolated from Streptomyces antibioticus and is a powerful inhibitor of
Adenosine deaminase.
An anti-leukemia drug isolated from Streptomyces antibioticus and is a powerful inhibitor of Adenosine deaminase.
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A prodrug analogue of 2’deoxycytidine which inhibits DNA polymerases
A prodrug analogue of 2’deoxycytidine which inhibits DNA polymerases
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Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
I. Glucocorticoids: Megestrol acetate
II. Progestins: prednisone
III. Estrogens: Diethylstilbestrol
IV. Androgens: Fluoxymesterone
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
I. Glucocorticoids: Megestrol acetate II. Progestins: prednisone III. Estrogens: Diethylstilbestrol IV. Androgens: Fluoxymesterone
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A decapeptide analogue of the luteinizing hormone – releasing hormone designed to be more
resistant to peptidase degradation.
A decapeptide analogue of the luteinizing hormone – releasing hormone designed to be more resistant to peptidase degradation.
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A reversible competitive inhibitor of the enzyme aromatase , the design of which is based on
structure of amino gluthetimide.
A reversible competitive inhibitor of the enzyme aromatase , the design of which is based on structure of amino gluthetimide.
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This mode of therapy involves an antibody which has catalytic activity designed to activate a
prodrug.
This mode of therapy involves an antibody which has catalytic activity designed to activate a prodrug.
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This mode of therapy involves the delivery of a gene that codes for an enzyme capable of
activating an anticancer prodrug into a cancer cell.
This mode of therapy involves the delivery of a gene that codes for an enzyme capable of activating an anticancer prodrug into a cancer cell.
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This involves irradiation of tumors containing porphyrin photosensitizers resulting to the
production of reactive oxygen species which are fatal to the cell.
This involves irradiation of tumors containing porphyrin photosensitizers resulting to the production of reactive oxygen species which are fatal to the cell.
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This therapy involves an antibody-enzyme conjugate that is targeted to specific cancer cells.
Once the antibody has become attached to the outer surface of cancer cells, a prodrug is
administered which is activated by the enzyme at the tumor site.
This therapy involves an antibody-enzyme conjugate that is targeted to specific cancer cells. Once the antibody has become attached to the outer surface of cancer cells, a prodrug is administered which is activated by the enzyme at the tumor site.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine?
I. It is very useful in treating such conditions that requires it because it can be readily
synthesized in the laboratory.
II. It is easily hydrolyzed in the stomach by acid catalysis and cannot be given orally.
III. It is administered intravenously as it is stable in blood because of the absence of enzymes
such as esterases.
IV. There is no selectivity of action upon administration of acetylcholine.
Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine?
I. It is very useful in treating such conditions that requires it because it can be readily synthesized in the laboratory. II. It is easily hydrolyzed in the stomach by acid catalysis and cannot be given orally. III. It is administered intravenously as it is stable in blood because of the absence of enzymes such as esterases. IV. There is no selectivity of action upon administration of acetylcholine.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine analogues?
Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine analogues?
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Physostigmine is a carbamate inhibitor of the enzyme
acetylcholinesterase which was first isolated from
Physostigma venenosum. Which of its functional group/s
is/are essential for its activity?
Physostigmine is a carbamate inhibitor of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase which was first isolated from Physostigma venenosum. Which of its functional group/s is/are essential for its activity?
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the structural features of
muscarinic antagonists?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the structural features of muscarinic antagonists?
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What is the clinical indication of aryloxypropranolamines?
What is the clinical indication of aryloxypropranolamines?
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Which of the following statements describe the ideal antiepileptic drug?
I. It should completely suppress seizures in doses that also cause sedation.
II. It should be well tolerated, highly effective against various types of seizures and devoid of
undesirable side effects on vital organs and functions
III. Its onset of action should be rapid after parenteral injection for control of status epilepticus.
IV. It should have a long duration of effect after oral administration for prevention of recurrent
seizures.
Which of the following statements describe the ideal antiepileptic drug?
I. It should completely suppress seizures in doses that also cause sedation. II. It should be well tolerated, highly effective against various types of seizures and devoid of undesirable side effects on vital organs and functions III. Its onset of action should be rapid after parenteral injection for control of status epilepticus. IV. It should have a long duration of effect after oral administration for prevention of recurrent seizures.
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. Which of the following correctly describes the barbiturate 5-ethyl-5-phenylbarbituric acid?
. Which of the following correctly describes the barbiturate 5-ethyl-5-phenylbarbituric acid?
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Which of the following statements correctly describe 2-ethyl-2-methylsuccinide?
Which of the following statements correctly describe 2-ethyl-2-methylsuccinide?
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Which of the following statements correctly describe 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione?
Which of the following statements correctly describe 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione?
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Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure-activity relationship of tricyclic
psychotropic drugs?
I. Optimal psychotropic activity is observed in ring systems that have a six-membered or
seven-membered central ring.
II. Dihenylalamine and Diphenylmethane derivatives that lack a central ring are devoid of
psychotropic activity.
III. Derivatives that contain a five-membered central ring lack psychotropic activity.
IV. Rigidly planar tricyclic diphenylmethane derivatives such as anthracene are inactive.
Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure-activity relationship of tricyclic psychotropic drugs?
I. Optimal psychotropic activity is observed in ring systems that have a six-membered or seven-membered central ring. II. Dihenylalamine and Diphenylmethane derivatives that lack a central ring are devoid of psychotropic activity. III. Derivatives that contain a five-membered central ring lack psychotropic activity. IV. Rigidly planar tricyclic diphenylmethane derivatives such as anthracene are inactive.
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Which of the following are pharmacologic responses elicited by phenothiazine?
I. Antipsychotic effect
II. Antiparkinsonian effect
III. Anti-adrenergic, anticholinergic, antihistaminic and antiserotonin effects
IV. Antiemetic effect
Which of the following are pharmacologic responses elicited by phenothiazine?
I. Antipsychotic effect II. Antiparkinsonian effect III. Anti-adrenergic, anticholinergic, antihistaminic and antiserotonin effects IV. Antiemetic effect
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Which of the following drugs is/are a butyrophenone derivative?
I. thioridazine
II. Fluphenazine
III. Droperidol
IV. Haloperidol
Which of the following drugs is/are a butyrophenone derivative?
I. thioridazine II. Fluphenazine III. Droperidol IV. Haloperidol
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A drug used in the treatment in myocardial insufficiency that is structurally similar to adenosine,
a natural vasodilatory substance released by the myocardium during hypoxic episodes.
A drug used in the treatment in myocardial insufficiency that is structurally similar to adenosine, a natural vasodilatory substance released by the myocardium during hypoxic episodes.
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. An antiarrythmic drug composed of a quinoline ring and a bicyclic quinuclidine ring system
connected by a hydroxymethylene bridge that is a member of a family of alkaloids found in cinchona
. An antiarrythmic drug composed of a quinoline ring and a bicyclic quinuclidine ring system connected by a hydroxymethylene bridge that is a member of a family of alkaloids found in cinchona
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An antiarrythmic drug that is an ᾳ-methyl analog structurally related to monoethylglycinexylide,
the active metabolite of xylocaine.
An antiarrythmic drug that is an ᾳ-methyl analog structurally related to monoethylglycinexylide, the active metabolite of xylocaine.
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Which of the following statement is true regarding agonist at the H1 and H2 receptor antagonist
of histamine?
Which of the following statement is true regarding agonist at the H1 and H2 receptor antagonist of histamine?
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Which of the following statements correctly describes the ideal anesthetic agent?
I. it should provide adequate muscular contraction
II. It should produce rapid and uncomplicated induction and emergence
III. It should have no effect on myocardium or respiration at anesthetic doses.
IV. It should be non-flammable
Which of the following statements correctly describes the ideal anesthetic agent?
I. it should provide adequate muscular contraction II. It should produce rapid and uncomplicated induction and emergence III. It should have no effect on myocardium or respiration at anesthetic doses. IV. It should be non-flammable
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Which f the following statement is true regarding anesthetics?
I. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers increases the anesthetic activity.
II. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers decreases the anesthetic activity.
III. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether increases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
IV. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether decreases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
Which f the following statement is true regarding anesthetics?
I. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers increases the anesthetic activity. II. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers decreases the anesthetic activity. III. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether increases potency and shortens induction and emergence IV. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether decreases potency and shortens induction and emergence
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Which of the following statements is true regarding halogenated anesthetic agents?
I. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability
II. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often increases anesthetic potency.
III. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability
IV. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often decreases anesthetic potency.
Which of the following statements is true regarding halogenated anesthetic agents?
I. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability II. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often increases anesthetic potency. III. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability IV. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often decreases anesthetic potency.
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Which of the following metabolic transformation of barbiturates can lead to loss of depressant
activity?
Which of the following metabolic transformation of barbiturates can lead to loss of depressant activity?
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Which of the following acids has mycobacteriostatic activity?
Which of the following acids has mycobacteriostatic activity?
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Which of the following alcohols has a local anesthetic property?
Which of the following alcohols has a local anesthetic property?
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Which of the following amino ethers has antihistamine property?
Which of the following amino ethers has antihistamine property?
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Which of the following halogenated compounds has hypnotic properties?
Which of the following halogenated compounds has hypnotic properties?
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Which of the following functional groups can decrease the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
Which of the following functional groups can decrease the absorption of cetirizine and clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
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Which of the following functional groups can increase the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
Which of the following functional groups can increase the absorption of cetirizine and clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
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If a truck driver asks you to recommend an antihistamine drug for his seasonal allergies, which
of the two drugs will you recommend?
If a truck driver asks you to recommend an antihistamine drug for his seasonal allergies, which of the two drugs will you recommend?
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A 35 year old woman comes to the pharmacy and asks you to recommend an antifungal cream
rather than a spray or powder. You recommended terbinafine, an effective topical antifungal agent
that is sold over the counter. What are the structural features/functional groups present in terbinafine
that makes it an agent that can be used topically?
A 35 year old woman comes to the pharmacy and asks you to recommend an antifungal cream rather than a spray or powder. You recommended terbinafine, an effective topical antifungal agent that is sold over the counter. What are the structural features/functional groups present in terbinafine that makes it an agent that can be used topically?
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Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target
enzyme of terbinafine and form an ionic interaction with the tertiary amine group?
Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target enzyme of terbinafine and form an ionic interaction with the tertiary amine group?
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Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target
enzyme of terbinafine and form an hydrophobic interaction with the aromatic hydrocarbons?
Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target enzyme of terbinafine and form an hydrophobic interaction with the aromatic hydrocarbons?
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Wich of the following drugs is an ethylenediamine antihistamine?
Wich of the following drugs is an ethylenediamine antihistamine?
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Which of the following drugs in an example of tricyclic antihistamine?
Which of the following drugs in an example of tricyclic antihistamine?
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Which of the following drugs is an example of an ethanolamine ether antihistamine?
Which of the following drugs is an example of an ethanolamine ether antihistamine?
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Which of the following drugs has a little or no sedative qualities?
Which of the following drugs has a little or no sedative qualities?
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According to this drug receptor theory, the number of drug receptor interactions per unit time
determines the intensity of the biological response
According to this drug receptor theory, the number of drug receptor interactions per unit time determines the intensity of the biological response
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This drug receptor theory suggest that the biological response is directly related to the number
of receptors bound by an agonist.
This drug receptor theory suggest that the biological response is directly related to the number of receptors bound by an agonist.
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This drug receptor theory suggest that the drug approaches the receptor, a conformational
change occurs in the receptor to allow effective binding.
This drug receptor theory suggest that the drug approaches the receptor, a conformational change occurs in the receptor to allow effective binding.
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According to this theory, receptors are always in dynamic equilibrium between active and
inactive states. Agonist function by shifting the equilibrium toward the activated state, whereas
antagonist prevent the activated state.
According to this theory, receptors are always in dynamic equilibrium between active and inactive states. Agonist function by shifting the equilibrium toward the activated state, whereas antagonist prevent the activated state.
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This drug receptor theory suggest that two types of conformational changes exist and the rate
of their existence determines the observed biological response.
This drug receptor theory suggest that two types of conformational changes exist and the rate of their existence determines the observed biological response.
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Which of the following statements correctly describes an agonist?
Which of the following statements correctly describes an agonist?
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Which of the following statements correctly describes an antagonist?
Which of the following statements correctly describes an antagonist?
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These are exogenous chemical messengers that act as antagonist, but also eliminate any
resting acivity associated with a receptor.
These are exogenous chemical messengers that act as antagonist, but also eliminate any resting acivity associated with a receptor.
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This condition may occur when an agonist is bound to its receptor for a long period of time.
This condition may occur when an agonist is bound to its receptor for a long period of time.
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This condition may occur when an antagonist is bound to a receptor for a long period of time.
The cell synthesize more receptor to counter the antagonist effect.
This condition may occur when an antagonist is bound to a receptor for a long period of time. The cell synthesize more receptor to counter the antagonist effect.
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This is a situation where increases doses of a drug over time to achieve same effect.
This is a situation where increases doses of a drug over time to achieve same effect.
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This is related to the body’s ability to adapt to the presence of a drug. On stopping the drug,
withdrawal symptoms occur as a result of abnormal levels of target receptor.
This is related to the body’s ability to adapt to the presence of a drug. On stopping the drug, withdrawal symptoms occur as a result of abnormal levels of target receptor.
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This is a measure of how strongly a drug binds to a receptor.
This is a measure of how strongly a drug binds to a receptor.
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This is determined by measuring the maximum possible effects resulting from receptor-ligand
binding
This is determined by measuring the maximum possible effects resulting from receptor-ligand binding
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This relates how effective a drug is in producing a cellular effect. It can be determined by
measuring the concentration of drug required to produce 50% of the maximum possible effect.
This relates how effective a drug is in producing a cellular effect. It can be determined by measuring the concentration of drug required to produce 50% of the maximum possible effect.
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These are molecules that act as substrates for a target enzyme, but which are converted into a
highly reactive species as a result of the enzyme catalyzed reaction mechanism. The species
formed then reacts with amino acid residues present in the active site to form covalents bonds, and
act as irreversible inhibitors.
These are molecules that act as substrates for a target enzyme, but which are converted into a highly reactive species as a result of the enzyme catalyzed reaction mechanism. The species formed then reacts with amino acid residues present in the active site to form covalents bonds, and act as irreversible inhibitors.
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This type of inhibition binds to a different site other than the active site and can alter the shape
of the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
This type of inhibition binds to a different site other than the active site and can alter the shape of the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
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These are enzyme inducers that are designed to mimic the transition state of an enzymecatalyze reaction mechanism. They bind more strongly than either the substrate or product.
These are enzyme inducers that are designed to mimic the transition state of an enzymecatalyze reaction mechanism. They bind more strongly than either the substrate or product.
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The type of inhibitors that bind to the active site and compete with either substrate or cofactor.
The type of inhibitors that bind to the active site and compete with either substrate or cofactor.
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Physostigmine inhibit which of the following enzyme?
Physostigmine inhibit which of the following enzyme?
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sildenafil, a drug for erectile dysfunction, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
sildenafil, a drug for erectile dysfunction, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
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. ethambutol, a drug for tuberculosis, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
. ethambutol, a drug for tuberculosis, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
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Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-glucosidase?
Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-glucosidase?
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Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-amylase?
Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-amylase?
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Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
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Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
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Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
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Which of the following drugs (inhibitor) enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
Which of the following drugs (inhibitor) enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
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Which of the following phenolic drugs has an expectorant activity?
Which of the following phenolic drugs has an expectorant activity?
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Which of the following dyes is available as vaginal suppository for the treatment of yeast
infection and has also been used orally as a anthelmintic for strongyloidiasis and oxyurias?
Which of the following dyes is available as vaginal suppository for the treatment of yeast infection and has also been used orally as a anthelmintic for strongyloidiasis and oxyurias?
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Which of the following dyes is a mixture of the chlorides of rosaniline and p-rosaniline? It is an
ingredient of castellanis paint which is used topically in the treatment of fungal infection, such as
ringworm and athletes foot?
Which of the following dyes is a mixture of the chlorides of rosaniline and p-rosaniline? It is an ingredient of castellanis paint which is used topically in the treatment of fungal infection, such as ringworm and athletes foot?
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It is a non classical folate antagonist that is structurally similar to methotrexate. It inhibits the
enzyme dihydrofolate reductase and has been approved for the treatment of pneumocystis carinii in
patients with aids.
It is a non classical folate antagonist that is structurally similar to methotrexate. It inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase and has been approved for the treatment of pneumocystis carinii in patients with aids.
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Which of the following anti-inflammatory analgesic is an arylacetic derivative that is comparable
to aspirin in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, with a lower incidence of side effects? It has also
been approved for used in primary dysmenorrhea.
Which of the following anti-inflammatory analgesic is an arylacetic derivative that is comparable to aspirin in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, with a lower incidence of side effects? It has also been approved for used in primary dysmenorrhea.
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Which of the following anti-inflammatory agents is an arylanthranilic acid derivative that has
lower incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding than aspirin, and has been approved for use in the
management of primary dysmenorrhea?
Which of the following anti-inflammatory agents is an arylanthranilic acid derivative that has lower incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding than aspirin, and has been approved for use in the management of primary dysmenorrhea?
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Which of the following drugs is a derivative of aniline and has an analgesic and antipyretic
properties? The FDA requires a warning label that read as follows: Warning: Do not give to children
under 3 years of age or use for more than 10 days unless directed by a physician.
Which of the following drugs is a derivative of aniline and has an analgesic and antipyretic properties? The FDA requires a warning label that read as follows: Warning: Do not give to children under 3 years of age or use for more than 10 days unless directed by a physician.
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The following are synthetic estrogens except:
The following are synthetic estrogens except:
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Which of the following estrogens is an estradiol metabolite originally obtained from the urine of
horses especially pregnant mares?
Which of the following estrogens is an estradiol metabolite originally obtained from the urine of horses especially pregnant mares?
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Which of the following progestins is classified as a derivative of testosterone?
Which of the following progestins is classified as a derivative of testosterone?
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Which of the following progestins are classified as derivative of testosterone?
Which of the following progestins are classified as derivative of testosterone?
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Which of the following prodrugs was designed to improve the membrane permeability of its
active metabolite?
Which of the following prodrugs was designed to improve the membrane permeability of its active metabolite?
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Which of the following prodrugs was designed to prolong the drug activity of its active
metabolite?
Which of the following prodrugs was designed to prolong the drug activity of its active metabolite?
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Which of the following prodrugs was designed to lower water solubility of the active metabolite?
Which of the following prodrugs was designed to lower water solubility of the active metabolite?
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Which of the following prodrugs was designed to mask the toxic side effects of its active
metabolite?
Which of the following prodrugs was designed to mask the toxic side effects of its active metabolite?
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Which of the following prodrugs was designed to increase the water solubility of the active
metabolite?
Which of the following prodrugs was designed to increase the water solubility of the active metabolite?
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Which of the following prodrug was designed to increase the chemical stability of the active
metabolite?
Which of the following prodrug was designed to increase the chemical stability of the active metabolite?
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These are isomer that contain at least one assymetric, or chiral, carbon atom. Each asymmetric
carbon atom can exist in one of two non-superimposable isomeric forms.
These are isomer that contain at least one assymetric, or chiral, carbon atom. Each asymmetric carbon atom can exist in one of two non-superimposable isomeric forms.
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This type of isomer occurs as a result of restricted rotation about a chemical bond, owing to
double bond or rigid ring system in the molecule.
This type of isomer occurs as a result of restricted rotation about a chemical bond, owing to double bond or rigid ring system in the molecule.
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Also known as rotamers, these are non-superimposable orientation of a molecule which result
from the rotation of atoms about single bonds.
Also known as rotamers, these are non-superimposable orientation of a molecule which result from the rotation of atoms about single bonds.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding ester-type local anesthetics?
Which of the following statements is true regarding ester-type local anesthetics?
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Which of the following statements is true regarding amide-type local anesthetics?
Which of the following statements is true regarding amide-type local anesthetics?
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the antipsychotic agents in the
phenothiazine class?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the antipsychotic agents in the phenothiazine class?
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Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
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Which of the following pairs of newer class of antipsychotic is correctly matched?
Which of the following pairs of newer class of antipsychotic is correctly matched?
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Which of the following statements is true regarding tricyclic antidepressants?
Which of the following statements is true regarding tricyclic antidepressants?
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Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure and mechanism of action of
mao inhibitors?
Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure and mechanism of action of mao inhibitors?
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Certain metabolites retain the pharmacologic activity of their of their parent compounds to a
greater or lesser degree. Which of the following drugs produce such metabolites?
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine
II. Demethylation of morphine
III. Dealkylation of iproniazid
IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
Certain metabolites retain the pharmacologic activity of their of their parent compounds to a greater or lesser degree. Which of the following drugs produce such metabolites?
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine II. Demethylation of morphine III. Dealkylation of iproniazid IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
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Which of the following biotransformation produces a metabolite with an activity different from
that of their parent compound?
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine
II. Demethylation of morphine
III. Dealkylation of iproniazid
IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
Which of the following biotransformation produces a metabolite with an activity different from that of their parent compound?
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine II. Demethylation of morphine III. Dealkylation of iproniazid IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
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Which of the following biotransformation produces a inactive metabolite
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine
II. Demethylation of morphine
III. Dealkylation of iproniazid
IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
Which of the following biotransformation produces a inactive metabolite
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine II. Demethylation of morphine III. Dealkylation of iproniazid IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
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Which of the following statements is true regarding oxidation reaction?
I. It is a most common phase 1 of biotransformation
II. Oxidation reactions can occur in the liver
III. The vast majority of oxidation is catalyze by a group or mixed function oxidases
known as CYP450.
IV. The increased polarity of the oxidized product (metabolites) enhances their water
solubility and increases their tubular reabsorption to some extent, thus favoring their
excretion in the urine
Which of the following statements is true regarding oxidation reaction?
I. It is a most common phase 1 of biotransformation II. Oxidation reactions can occur in the liver III. The vast majority of oxidation is catalyze by a group or mixed function oxidases known as CYP450. IV. The increased polarity of the oxidized product (metabolites) enhances their water solubility and increases their tubular reabsorption to some extent, thus favoring their excretion in the urine
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Which of the following statements is true regarding reduction reaction?
I. It has same goal as oxidation reaction to create polar functional groups that can be easily
excreted.
II. Bacteria resident in the GI tract are also responsible for reductions of azo and nitro
groups
III. Chloramphenicol, sulfasalazine and acetohexamide can undergo reduction reaction
IV. Cytochrome P450 enzymes is not involved in the reduction reaction
Which of the following statements is true regarding reduction reaction?
I. It has same goal as oxidation reaction to create polar functional groups that can be easily excreted. II. Bacteria resident in the GI tract are also responsible for reductions of azo and nitro groups III. Chloramphenicol, sulfasalazine and acetohexamide can undergo reduction reaction IV. Cytochrome P450 enzymes is not involved in the reduction reaction
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Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP1A?
Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP1A?
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Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP4B?
Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP4B?
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding Phase ll reactions?
l.These are reactions in which the functional groups of the original drug(or metabolite)are masked by conjugation
reaction
ll.These reactions require both a high-energy molecules and an enzyme
lll.High-energy molecules consist of a coenzyme bound to the endogenous substrate,the parent drug,or the
drug’s phase l metabolite.
lV.Most conjugates are highly polar and unable to cross cell membranes,making them almost almost always
pharmacology inactive and of little or no toxicity.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Phase ll reactions?
l.These are reactions in which the functional groups of the original drug(or metabolite)are masked by conjugation reaction ll.These reactions require both a high-energy molecules and an enzyme lll.High-energy molecules consist of a coenzyme bound to the endogenous substrate,the parent drug,or the drug’s phase l metabolite. lV.Most conjugates are highly polar and unable to cross cell membranes,making them almost almost always pharmacology inactive and of little or no toxicity.
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Flashcards
Bond Polarity and Length
Bond Polarity and Length
As bond polarity increases, bond length decreases.
Hybridization and Bond Length
Hybridization and Bond Length
As s character increases, bond length decreases.
Bond Strength
Bond Strength
Energy needed to break a bond in a diatomic molecule.
Alkanes
Alkanes
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Alkenes
Alkenes
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Aromatic Hydrocarbons
Aromatic Hydrocarbons
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Water Soluble Alcohol
Water Soluble Alcohol
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Oxidation of Alcohols
Oxidation of Alcohols
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General Formula for Ethers
General Formula for Ethers
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Aldehydes
Aldehydes
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Carboxylic Acid Functions
Carboxylic Acid Functions
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Phase I Metabolic Reactions
Phase I Metabolic Reactions
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Phase II Metabolic Reactions
Phase II Metabolic Reactions
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Drug Absorption Rate Limiting Step
Drug Absorption Rate Limiting Step
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Renal Excretion Processes
Renal Excretion Processes
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Sulfonamides
Sulfonamides
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Penicillins
Penicillins
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Polymyxins
Polymyxins
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Trimethoprim
Trimethoprim
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Salvarsan
Salvarsan
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Drug Target Binding
Drug Target Binding
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Irreversible Inhibition
Irreversible Inhibition
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Uncompetitive Inhibition
Uncompetitive Inhibition
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Antagonists
Antagonists
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Drug Enzyme Match
Drug Enzyme Match
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Stereochemical Isomers
Stereochemical Isomers
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Hydrolysis of Esters
Hydrolysis of Esters
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Lipid Solubility Effects
Lipid Solubility Effects
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