7 Medicines and Pharmacology

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Which medication is known for its selective inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 and is associated with fewer gastrointestinal side effects compared to nonselective agents?

Celecoxib

What is the most significant adverse effect associated with the use of infliximab in patients with inflammatory bowel disease?

TB reactivation

Which medication can cause extrapyramidal manifestations such as tardive dyskinesia and should be managed with Benadryl?

Haldol

Which medication is a derivative of prostaglandin E1 and is used to prevent peptic ulcer disease in patients on chronic NSAIDs?

Misoprostol

What is the most common side effect associated with gadolinium contrast?

Nausea

Which medication is known to cause metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and ototoxicity as side effects due to over-diuresis?

Furosemide (Lasix)

Which medication is an antibody to TNF-alpha given intravenously and is used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease?

Infliximab (Remicade)

What is the most common side effect associated with iodine contrast?

Nausea

Which medication inhibits aldosterone and can cause metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia as side effects due to over-diuresis?

Spironolactone

What is the first acid-base disorder that occurs in a patient with ASA poisoning?

Respiratory alkalosis

Which route of drug administration bypasses the liver and has higher bioavailability compared to oral drugs?

Rectal

What is largely responsible for binding drugs such as penicillins and warfarin?

Albumin

Which drug can displace unconjugated bilirubin from albumin in newborns and should be avoided in this population?

Sulfonamides

Which type of drug kinetics involves a constant amount of drug being eliminated regardless of the dose?

Zero-order kinetics

How many half-lives does it take for a drug to reach steady state?

5 half-lives

What does the volume of distribution of a drug represent?

The amount of drug in the body compared to its concentration in plasma or blood

Which route of administration involves drug absorption based on lipid solubility through the epidermis?

Transdermal

Which type of drug is restricted to nonionized, lipid-soluble drugs for absorption into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

Lipid-soluble drugs

Which drug is stored in bone and follows zero-order kinetics for elimination?

Tetracycline

Which drug has the potential to cause kernicterus in newborns due to displacement of unconjugated bilirubin from albumin?

Sulfamethoxazole

What is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation known as?

Bioavailability

Which drug level is defined as the level at which death occurs in 50% of patients?

LD50

What effect is seen at an unusually low dose of a drug?

Hyperactive

Which phase of drug metabolism involves demethylation, oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis reactions?

Phase I

Which of the following is an inhibitor of P-450 system?

Erythromycin

What is the most important organ for eliminating most drugs?

Kidney

What is the end product of purine metabolism that causes gout?

Uric acid

What medication binds tubulin and inhibits migration of white blood cells?

Colchicine

Which lipid-lowering agent binds bile acids in the gut, forcing the body to resynthesize bile acids from cholesterol?

Cholestyramine

Which drug is used to treat torsades de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)?

Amiodarone

Test your knowledge about drug absorption and distribution with this quiz. Explore concepts such as sublingual and rectal drug administration, skin and CSF absorption, as well as the role of albumin in drug binding.

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