30 Questions
Which medication is known for its selective inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 and is associated with fewer gastrointestinal side effects compared to nonselective agents?
Celecoxib
What is the most significant adverse effect associated with the use of infliximab in patients with inflammatory bowel disease?
TB reactivation
Which medication can cause extrapyramidal manifestations such as tardive dyskinesia and should be managed with Benadryl?
Haldol
Which medication is a derivative of prostaglandin E1 and is used to prevent peptic ulcer disease in patients on chronic NSAIDs?
Misoprostol
What is the most common side effect associated with gadolinium contrast?
Nausea
Which medication is known to cause metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, and ototoxicity as side effects due to over-diuresis?
Furosemide (Lasix)
Which medication is an antibody to TNF-alpha given intravenously and is used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease?
Infliximab (Remicade)
What is the most common side effect associated with iodine contrast?
Nausea
Which medication inhibits aldosterone and can cause metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia as side effects due to over-diuresis?
Spironolactone
What is the first acid-base disorder that occurs in a patient with ASA poisoning?
Respiratory alkalosis
Which route of drug administration bypasses the liver and has higher bioavailability compared to oral drugs?
Rectal
What is largely responsible for binding drugs such as penicillins and warfarin?
Albumin
Which drug can displace unconjugated bilirubin from albumin in newborns and should be avoided in this population?
Sulfonamides
Which type of drug kinetics involves a constant amount of drug being eliminated regardless of the dose?
Zero-order kinetics
How many half-lives does it take for a drug to reach steady state?
5 half-lives
What does the volume of distribution of a drug represent?
The amount of drug in the body compared to its concentration in plasma or blood
Which route of administration involves drug absorption based on lipid solubility through the epidermis?
Transdermal
Which type of drug is restricted to nonionized, lipid-soluble drugs for absorption into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Lipid-soluble drugs
Which drug is stored in bone and follows zero-order kinetics for elimination?
Tetracycline
Which drug has the potential to cause kernicterus in newborns due to displacement of unconjugated bilirubin from albumin?
Sulfamethoxazole
What is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation known as?
Bioavailability
Which drug level is defined as the level at which death occurs in 50% of patients?
LD50
What effect is seen at an unusually low dose of a drug?
Hyperactive
Which phase of drug metabolism involves demethylation, oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis reactions?
Phase I
Which of the following is an inhibitor of P-450 system?
Erythromycin
What is the most important organ for eliminating most drugs?
Kidney
What is the end product of purine metabolism that causes gout?
Uric acid
What medication binds tubulin and inhibits migration of white blood cells?
Colchicine
Which lipid-lowering agent binds bile acids in the gut, forcing the body to resynthesize bile acids from cholesterol?
Cholestyramine
Which drug is used to treat torsades de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)?
Amiodarone
Test your knowledge about drug absorption and distribution with this quiz. Explore concepts such as sublingual and rectal drug administration, skin and CSF absorption, as well as the role of albumin in drug binding.
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