Acute Illness Midterm
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Questions and Answers

A patient undergoing cancer treatment develops a persistent cough and shortness of breath. Imaging reveals inflammation in the lungs. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

  • Administering anti-emetics to prevent nausea.
  • Monitoring for neutropenia and initiating infection control measures.
  • Implementing skin care protocols for radiation burns.
  • Managing pulmonary effects such as pneumonitis and fibrosis. (correct)

A patient with advanced cancer is experiencing significant pain despite regular opioid administration. Which approach aligns with the WHO pain ladder for managing breakthrough pain?

  • Providing an extra dose of a short-acting opioid as needed. (correct)
  • Discontinuing the opioid and initiating nerve block therapy.
  • Adding a non-opioid analgesic to the regimen.
  • Administering a scheduled dose of the long-acting opioid.

A patient is diagnosed with a tumor that has spread to regional lymph nodes but not to distant sites. According to the TNM staging system, which stage best describes this patient's cancer?

  • Stage IV
  • Stage I
  • Stage II
  • Stage III (correct)

A patient undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia experiences a rapid breakdown of cancer cells. Which metabolic emergency is this patient at risk for?

<p>Tumor Lysis Syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing Superior Vena Cava Syndrome?

<p>Elevating the head of the bed and administering oxygen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 50-year-old female is diagnosed with early-stage breast cancer. The tumor is small and localized, and the lymph nodes are negative for cancer. Which treatment approach is most likely to be recommended?

<p>Lumpectomy followed by radiation therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following signs and symptoms is most indicative of spinal cord compression in a patient with metastatic cancer?

<p>Sudden onset of lower back pain with progressive leg weakness (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of palliative care in cancer management?

<p>To provide comfort and manage symptoms to improve quality of life. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes their pain as 'stabbing' and 'burning.' According to the OPQRSTUV pain assessment, which component does this information fall under?

<p>Quality (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is transferring a patient from the hospital to a rehabilitation center. Which action is most crucial to ensure a smooth transition of care?

<p>Providing detailed medication reconciliation and updated care plan. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Stage IV cancer. What does this staging indicate?

<p>The cancer has spread to distant sites in the body. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The TNM staging system is used to classify the extent of cancer. What does the 'N' in TNM refer to?

<p>Nodal involvement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing chemotherapy experiences a significant drop in white blood cell count. Which side effect is the patient most likely experiencing?

<p>Myelosuppression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving palliative care expresses a desire to focus on comfort and symptom management rather than aggressive treatment. Which nursing action aligns best with the goals of palliative care?

<p>Providing pain relief and emotional support. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a bone marrow transplant, a patient develops a rash, jaundice, and diarrhea. Which complication is most likely occurring?

<p>Graft-versus-host disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with breast cancer is prescribed hormone therapy. How do estrogen blockers work to treat breast cancer?

<p>By blocking estrogen receptors on cancer cells, preventing estrogen from stimulating their growth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing cancer treatment develops febrile neutropenia. What is the MOST immediate concern for this patient's well-being?

<p>Facing a significantly elevated risk of infection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pain management approach is generally considered MOST effective for patients dealing with chronic pain?

<p>Providing pain medication consistently around-the-clock, tailored to the patient's needs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoing cancer treatment experiences an adverse skin reaction. Which treatment is MOST likely the cause?

<p>Radiation therаpy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of COPD presents with increased lethargy and confusion after receiving high-flow oxygen therapy. Which complication is most likely occurring?

<p>Carbon dioxide narcosis due to suppression of the hypoxic drive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset dyspnea, sharp chest pain, and hemoptysis. Which diagnostic test should be ordered first to evaluate for a pulmonary embolism?

<p>D-dimer test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common primary cause of death among cancer patients?

<p>Overwhelming infection leading to sepsis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During transitions in care (e.g., hospital to home), what is a CRITICAL nursing responsibility to ensure patient safety and continuity of care?

<p>Providing accurate and comprehensive medication reconciliation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a long history of smoking is diagnosed with lung cancer. They are scheduled to undergo a surgical resection of the tumor. What additional type of treatment might be recommended post-surgery to target any remaining cancer cells?

<p>Chemotherapy to eradicate residual cancer cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Which combination of symptoms would be most indicative of the need for immediate antibiotic treatment?

<p>High fever, severe dyspnea, and altered mental status. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the LEARN model for cultural competence, what does the 'L' stand for, and why is it the initial step?

<p>Listen to the patient's perspective to understand their beliefs and values. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with COPD is being discharged. Which medication primarily aims to reduce inflammation in the airways for long-term management?

<p>Fluticasone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is BEST categorized as a social determinant of health that can impact a person's well-being and access to healthcare?

<p>A person's income level and socioeconomic status. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with asthma presents with a 'silent chest' during auscultation. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

<p>Preparing for intubation and mechanical ventilation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a persistent cough. To differentiate between possible diagnoses, which additional symptom would most strongly suggest lung cancer rather than a typical upper respiratory infection?

<p>Hemoptysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing pain in a cognitively impaired patient who cannot reliably communicate, which assessment parameter is MOST indicative of their pain level?

<p>Observing vocalizations such as groaning or crying. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a severe asthma exacerbation, a patient's peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is measured at 30% of their personal best. What does this indicate about the patient's condition?

<p>The patient is in a life-threatening state requiring immediate intervention. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe COPD is struggling to breathe. Which position should the nurse recommend to facilitate improved lung expansion and airflow?

<p>Tripod position (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While assessing a patient, you suspect they have a pleural effusion. Which assessment findings would best corroborate this suspicion?

<p>Decreased breath sounds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic COPD is being discharged home on oxygen therapy. What education point is most critical to emphasize to the patient and their family?

<p>The dangers of smoking near oxygen equipment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops pneumonia while on mechanical ventilation in the ICU. Which type of pneumonia is this classified as?

<p>Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To minimize the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in intubated patients, which nursing intervention demonstrates the best evidence-based practice?

<p>Hand hygiene and oral care (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pulmonary edema is rapidly deteriorating. What is the most immediate and life-threatening complication that requires prompt intervention.

<p>Hypoxia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A sputum sample from a patient with pneumonia is described as purulent. What does this finding most likely suggest about the nature of the infection.

<p>Bacterial infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most realistic and achievable primary goal for a patient undergoing long-term asthma management?

<p>Reduction of rescue inhaler use (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which compensatory mechanism in heart failure leads to increased cardiac output by stretching myocardial fibers?

<p>Frank-Starling Mechanism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are ACE inhibitors prescribed for patients with heart failure?

<p>To reduce afterload (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with heart failure is prescribed a beta-blocker. What is the primary goal of this medication in this context?

<p>Reduce heart workload (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with heart failure is advised to restrict sodium and fluid intake. What is the primary rationale for this recommendation?

<p>To reduce fluid overload (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hypertension is prescribed diuretics. What is the most important electrolyte to monitor regularly?

<p>Potassium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with stable angina reports predictable chest pain with exertion. Which medication would be most appropriate for the immediate relief of this chest pain?

<p>Nitroglycerin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test result is MOST specific in confirming myocardial damage?

<p>Elevated Troponin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which statins help prevent coronary artery disease (CAD)?

<p>Reducing LDL cholesterol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic. The patient's weight has increased by 5 pounds in the last 24 hours, and they report increased shortness of breath. Which of the following sets of vital sign changes would MOST strongly suggest worsening heart failure?

<p>Blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min with crackles. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in the emergency department is diagnosed with acute pulmonary edema secondary to left-sided heart failure. The patient is anxious, struggling to breathe, and has copious frothy sputum. Which intervention is the MOST appropriate initial nursing action?

<p>Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy and administer intravenous diuretics. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with heart failure is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which statement BEST explains the primary mechanism by which ACE inhibitors improve cardiac function in heart failure?

<p>ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing afterload and preload. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic heart failure is being discharged home. Which of the following dietary instructions is MOST important for the nurse to emphasize to manage fluid balance and prevent exacerbations?

<p>Adhere to a low-sodium diet and monitor daily fluid intake. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a routine assessment, the nurse notes that a patient with heart failure has developed new-onset atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Which potential consequence of atrial fibrillation is of GREATEST concern in this patient?

<p>Increased risk of stroke due to thromboembolism. (C), Increased risk of decreased ventricular filling time and cardiac output. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. What is the most important electrolyte imbalance the nurse should monitor for?

<p>Hypokalemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Stage 2 hypertension and is otherwise healthy. Which of the following initial interventions should the nurse prioritize when educating the patient?

<p>Implementing lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic stable angina reports experiencing chest pain more frequently and with less exertion than usual. How should the nurse interpret this change in their condition?

<p>The patient's angina is worsening and could indicate progression to unstable angina. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an assessment, a patient with heart failure exhibits jugular venous distention (JVD) and peripheral edema. Which type of heart failure is most likely associated with these findings?

<p>Right-sided heart failure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being discharged after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Which medication is most important for the nurse to emphasize for long-term secondary prevention?

<p>Statin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale for administering morphine to a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI)?

<p>Decrease pain and reduce cardiac workload (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known CAD reports taking sustained-release nitroglycerin. What statement indicates understanding of this medication?

<p>&quot;I take this medication every day to help prevent chest pain.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with left-sided heart failure is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. What is the primary mechanism by which this medication improves the patient's condition?

<p>By reducing the preload and afterload on the heart. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with new-onset right-sided weakness, facial droop, and slurred speech. What is the MOST critical initial nursing intervention based on these symptoms?

<p>Ensuring that the patient has a patent airway and is receiving oxygen. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who suffered a head trauma begins to show signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following assessment findings would indicate late stage increased ICP?

<p>Cushing’s triad and fixed, dilated pupils. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is actively seizing. What action should the nurse take first?

<p>Protect the patient from injury and maintain a patent airway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is caring for a patient with a known brain tumor. What intervention should the nurse prioritize to prevent increases in intracranial pressure (ICP)?

<p>Administering stool softeners to prevent straining. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with a suspected stroke. Prior to administering tPA, which information is most critical for the nurse to gather?

<p>The time of onset of the patient's symptoms. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a left hemisphere stroke is likely to exhibit which of the following?

<p>Difficulty with speech and language. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a seizure, a patient is drowsy, confused, and reports a headache. Which phase of the seizure is the patient experiencing?

<p>Postictal phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following indicates the medication is having the desired effect?

<p>Increased urine output and improved level of consciousness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with diabetes is found unresponsive. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

<p>Check the patient's blood glucose level. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking metformin is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which instruction is MOST important for the nurse to provide to the patient?

<p>&quot;Hold your metformin dose for 24-48 hours after the scan, as directed by your doctor.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Type 1 diabetes reports exercising regularly. Which adjustment should the nurse advise before exercise?

<p>Consume a carbohydrate snack if exercising for longer than 30 minutes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a teaching session, the nurse explains the Somogyi effect and the dawn phenomenon to a patient with diabetes. What statement indicates correct understanding?

<p>&quot;The dawn phenomenon is caused by a drop in blood sugar overnight, leading to a rebound high blood sugar in the morning.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with diabetes presents with nausea, abdominal pain, Kussmaul respirations, and a fruity odor on their breath. What condition is the patient MOST likely experiencing?

<p>Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with type 2 diabetes is consistently hyperglycemic despite lifestyle modifications. Which medication is typically initiated as a first-line treatment?

<p>Metformin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with long-standing diabetes develops microalbuminuria. Which chronic complication is MOST likely developing?

<p>Nephropathy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and deep, rapid breathing. Which symptom is most indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

<p>Kussmaul respirations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Type 2 diabetes is prescribed glipizide. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding of this oral antidiabetic agent?

<p>&quot;This medication will help my pancreas release more insulin.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS) regarding ketone production?

<p>HHS does not typically involve ketoacidosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A conscious patient with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL and is able to swallow. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

<p>Provide 15g of rapid-acting glucose and recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is teaching a patient about rapid-acting insulin. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

<p>&quot;This insulin will provide long-lasting blood sugar control throughout the day.&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Albuminuria is an early sign of what diabetes-related complication?

<p>Nephropathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is about to eat breakfast. Which type of insulin should be administered to cover the glucose intake from the meal?

<p>Lispro (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with type 2 diabetes starts a regular exercise program. How does exercise impact blood glucose levels and insulin sensitivity?

<p>Lowers blood glucose and increases insulin sensitivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most important immediate nursing intervention for a patient presenting with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?

<p>Initiate IV fluid replacement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a stroke, a patient exhibits impaired swallowing. What intervention is MOST appropriate to ensure patient safety during meals?

<p>Positioning the patient upright at 90 degrees during meals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient post-stroke is diagnosed with ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion. Which nursing intervention is MOST critical in the acute phase?

<p>Maintaining blood pressure within the prescribed parameters. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has suffered a right-brain stroke is exhibiting impulsive behavior. What is the MOST appropriate nursing intervention?

<p>Provide a calm and structured environment with clear instructions and frequent redirection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having a stroke upon arrival to the emergency room. After the initial assessment, which diagnostic test is the PRIORITY to determine the type of stroke?

<p>Computed tomography (CT) scan. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known history of seizures is observed to be in status epilepticus. What nursing intervention takes PRIORITY?

<p>Administering intravenous lorazepam or diazepam as prescribed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following nursing interventions is CONTRAINDICATED?

<p>Placing the patient in a flat, supine position. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being treated for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following assessment findings is indicative of Cushing's triad, a sign of severely increased ICP?

<p>Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which dietary recommendation is MOST appropriate for the secondary prevention of stroke in a patient with hypertension and hyperlipidemia?

<p>DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being cared for. Besides administering medications, what is another nursing intervention to help decrease ICP?

<p>Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To promote neurological recovery and minimize increases in ICP, which nursing action should be avoided?

<p>Clustering nursing care activities to minimize disturbances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, a patient is drowsy and confused. Which term BEST describes this state?

<p>Postictal phase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who has experienced a stroke is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention upon admission?

<p>Keeping the patient NPO until swallow reflex is evaluated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern when managing a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke?

<p>Monitoring for and preventing recurrent bleeding. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A lumbar puncture is performed on a patient. What is the MAIN purpose of this procedure in the context of neurological assessment?

<p>To evaluate the pressure and components of cerebrospinal fluid for evidence of infection, bleeding, or other abnormalities. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient recovering from a stroke is at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention is MOST effective in preventing DVT in this patient population?

<p>Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is admitted with a suspected stroke. Upon initial assessment, the nurse notes sudden onset of unilateral facial drooping and slurred speech. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Immediately obtain a stat CT scan of the head to differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Nursing Process

A systematic approach to patient care involving assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

Cancer

A disease characterized by uncontrolled cell growth and defective differentiation.

TNM Staging

Determines extent of cancer spread using T (tumor size), N (lymph node involvement), and M (metastasis).

Cancer Stage I

Localized tumor

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Chemotherapy

Systemic treatment that kills cancer cells

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Palliative Care

Focuses on comfort and symptom management, not curative treatment.

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Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Rapid breakdown of cancer cells releasing intracellular contents into the bloodstream.

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Breast Cancer Risk Factors & Symptoms

Age >60, family history. Symptoms: Lump, nipple discharge

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OPQRSTUV

A pain assessment tool using Onset, Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing, Understanding, and Values.

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Transitions in Care

Ensuring patient safety and continuity of care during changes in healthcare settings.

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Evaluation (Nursing)

The final step of the nursing process, evaluating the effectiveness of implemented interventions.

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Radiation Therapy

Uses high-energy rays to damage and kill cancer cells in a localized area.

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Palliative Care Goal

To improve the patient's quality of life by relieving symptoms and reducing suffering.

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Myelosuppression

Suppression of bone marrow activity, leading to decreased production of blood cells.

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Activity for Fatigue

Encouraging patients to engage to prevent deconditioning and promote well being.

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Febrile Neutropenia Concern

Increased risk of infection due to low neutrophil count and fever.

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Chronic Pain Strategy

Consistent administration of medication to maintain stable pain control.

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Radiation Therapy Side Effect

It can cause skin reactions, like redness, irritation, or burns.

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Primary Cause of Death in Cancer

Often due to weakened immunity and opportunistic infections.

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Nursing Role in Care Transitions

Ensuring accurate medication lists and addressing patient or caregiver concerns.

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LEARN Model First Step

Listen to understand the patient's perspective and beliefs.

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Social Determinant of Health

Conditions in environments that affect health outcomes.

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Pain Assessment in Cognitively impaired patient

Changes in facial expressions, body language, or vocalizations.

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COPD

Progressive airflow limitation associated with chronic inflammation.

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Asthma

Airway hyper-responsiveness leading to reversible airflow obstruction.

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Pneumonia

Inflammation of the lung parenchyma, often caused by infection.

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Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

Blockage of pulmonary arteries by (often) a blood clot.

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Oxygen Therapy

Using supplemental oxygen to increase blood oxygen levels.

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Lung Cancer

Uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs.

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Pulse oximetry

Measures the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen.

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CT pulmonary angiography

Imaging to visualize pulmonary blood flow for embolism

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Salbutamol (Albuterol)

A bronchodilator (B2 agonist) used as a "rescue inhaler" to quickly relieve asthma symptoms.

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Montelukast

Medication that reduces inflammation in the airways, thereby preventing asthma symptoms

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Early Lung Cancer Symptom

A persistent cough is often dismissed but is the most common initial sign.

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Tripod Position

Sitting and leaning forward to maximize lung expansion.

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Pleural Effusion Assessment

Diminished or absent sounds may indicate fluid or air in the pleural space.

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Preventing VAP

Good hygiene prevents spread of germs, VAP is healthcare related situation, oral care reduces bacterial reservoirs in the mouth.

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Purulent Sputum

Purulent (Thick and yellow/green) indicates bacterial presence.

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Tension Pneumothorax Cause

Excess air trapping in the pleural space, creating one-way valve effect.

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Hypertension

Sustained high blood pressure, endangering organs.

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Nonmodifiable HTN Risks

Non-changeable risk factors like age, sex, family history, ethnicity.

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Modifiable HTN Risks

Changeable risk factors like obesity, smoking, diet, inactivity.

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Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

Narrowing of heart arteries due to plaque buildup.

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Chronic Stable Angina

Sudden chest pain due to heart muscle not getting enough oxygen.

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Unstable Angina (UA)

New chest pain indicating a sudden reduction of blood flow to the heart.

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Myocardial Infarction (MI)

Heart muscle damage due to complete blockage of a heart artery.

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Heart Failure (HF)

Heart's inability to pump enough blood or fill properly.

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Frank-Starling Mechanism

Increased stroke volume due to increased preload.

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Neurohormonal Activation

SNS and RAAS activation to maintain blood pressure and volume.

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Myocardial Hypertrophy

Ventricular enlargement and thickening due to chronic stress.

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Diuretics

Reduce fluid overload.

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ACE Inhibitors

Reduce afterload.

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Beta-Blockers

Reduce workload and heart rate.

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Salt and Fluid Restriction

Restrict intake to manage fluid retention.

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Primary cause of hypertension?

Increased peripheral vascular resistance

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Dysrhythmias

Abnormal heart rhythms that can reduce cardiac output.

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Normal Sinus Rhythm (NSR)

Regular heart rate between to 60-100 bpm.

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Atrial Fibrillation (AFib)

Irregular atrial activity causing loss of atrial contraction.

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Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)

Early ventricular beats.

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Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib)

Chaotic electrical activity; no cardiac output; fatal if untreated.

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Stroke (CVA)

A sudden loss of brain function due to interrupted blood flow.

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Stroke Symptoms (FAST)

Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911.

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Right Brain Stroke

Spatial-perceptual deficits, impulsive behavior, left-side paralysis.

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Left Brain Stroke

Speech/language impairment (aphasia), slow cautious behavior, right-side paralysis.

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Early Signs of Increased ICP

Restlessness, headache, vomiting.

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Cushing's Triad

Bradycardia, hypertension, irregular breathing.

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Seizure Phases

Warning signs (hours/days before), sensory disturbances, seizure activity, recovery phase.

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Status Epilepticus

Continuous seizure activity >5 min; requires emergency treatment.

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Airway Clearance

Ensuring a clear passage for air to enter the lungs.

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Aspiration Risk

Risk of food or liquid entering the lungs instead of the stomach.

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Impaired Physical Mobility

Reduced ability to move the body or parts of it.

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Risk for Skin Breakdown

Risk of damage to the skin due to pressure or lack of movement.

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Ineffective Cerebral Tissue Perfusion

Reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to potential damage.

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Impaired Swallowing

Difficulty in swallowing food, liquids, or saliva.

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Impaired Communication

Difficulty in expressing thoughts or understanding others.

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Cushing’s Triad

Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations related to increased pressure inside the skull..

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DKA/HHS Symptoms

High blood sugar, rapid deep breathing, fruity breath, dehydration, abdominal pain, nausea are signs of...

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Hypoglycemia Symptoms

Anxiety, tremors, sweating, palpitations, and confusion indicate...

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Macrovascular Complications

Damage to large blood vessels which can cause heart disease, stroke, and peripheral artery disease is called...

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Microvascular Complications

Damage to small blood vessels, affecting eyes, kidneys and nerves.

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Exercise Benefits (Diabetes)

Blood glucose is lowered and insulin sensitivity is increased with...

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Rapid-acting Insulin

Which type of insulin is given at meals?

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Somogyi Effect

A nocturnal drop in blood glucose causes a rebound increase in the morning

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Diabetes: Nursing Focus

What are the nursing priorities for diabetes management?

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Type 1 Diabetes (T1DM)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency.

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Type 2 Diabetes (T2DM)

Insulin resistance combined with relative insulin deficiency; often linked to lifestyle.

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A1C

Glycated hemoglobin; reflects average blood sugar over 2-3 months.

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Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) Diagnostic Value

Fasting plasma glucose level indicating diabetes.

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Random Blood Glucose Diagnostic Value

A blood glucose level taken at any time that indicates diabetes when combined with symptoms.

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Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) Diagnostic Value

Blood glucose level after a glucose challenge, indicating diabetes.

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Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

A life-threatening complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis.

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Causes of DKA

Illness, infection, missed insulin doses, or stress.

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Metformin

First-line medication to lower blood glucose by improving insulin sensitivity and reducing liver glucose production.

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Kussmaul Respirations

Deep, rapid breathing to exhale excess carbon dioxide due to metabolic acidosis.

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HHS vs. DKA

Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Syndrome; lacks significant ketoacidosis.

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Hypoglycemia Treatment

Administer 15g of glucose and recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes.

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Diabetic Nephropathy

Kidney damage due to diabetes, monitored by urine microalbumin.

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Lispro Insulin

Rapid-acting insulin, taken right before or after meals.

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Exercise & Glucose

Lowers blood glucose by increasing glucose uptake by muscles.

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Diabetic Diet

Low-fat, balanced meals with controlled portions.

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Study Notes

Cancer treatment modalities

  • Surgery sometimes combined with treatments aims at tumor removal
  • Chemotherapy aims at systemic killing of cancer cells
  • Radiation therapy uses high energy radiation to destroy cancer cells
  • For blood cancers, bone marrow transplant replaces damaged bone marrow
  • Hormonal therapy is suited for hormone sensitive cancers
  • Palliative care focuses on comfort and symptom management

Nursing Management in Cancer Care

  • Manage fatigue by encouraging rest, hydration, and nutrition
  • Prevent infection, monitor neutropenia, and implement precautions
  • Address skin reactions by caring for radiation burns and maintaining skin integrity
  • Moderate GI effects through anti-emetics and dietary modifications
  • Manage pulmonary effects by managing pneumonitis and fibrosis

Obstructive and metabolic emergencies in cancer

  • Tumor pressing on the spinal cord leads to spinal cord compression
  • Rapid cancer cell breakdown releasing toxins results in Tumor Lysis Syndrome
  • Obstruction of the superior vena cava results in Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

Breast cancer

  • Risk factors include age >60, family history, early menarche, late menopause, obesity, and hormone therapy
  • Diagnosis occurs via mammography, biopsy, and hormone receptor status
  • Treatment includes surgery like lumpectomy or mastectomy, chemotherapy, radiation, and hormonal therapy
  • Symptoms include a lump, nipple discharge, peau d'orange, and nipple retraction

Pain management

  • Pain assessment uses OPQRSTUV:
  • Onset
  • Understanding
  • Severity
  • Region -Provocative/Palliative
  • Values
  • Quality
  • Timing
  • Types of pain include acute, chronic, and breakthrough

Respiratory assessment

  • History includes smoking history (packs per day, years smoked), environmental exposures, and past respiratory diseases like COPD, asthma, TB, and pneumonia
  • PQRST is used for symptom analysis:
    • Cough: duration, sputum production
    • Shortness of breath: with activity level
    • Chest pain: associated with breathing
    • Level of consciousness: is determined by orientation and what medications affecting breathing are being taken

###Diagnostic tests

  • Radiology: CXR, CT scan, MRI, VQ scan, pulmonary angiography, PET scan,
  • Endoscopic Exams: Bronchoscopy, lung biopsy, thoracentesis
  • Blood Tests: Hemoglobin (Hgb), hematocrit (Hct), arterial blood gases (ABGs)
  • Pulmonary Function Tests: Spirometry, peak expiratory flow meter
  • Pulse Oximetry measures SaO2

Obstructive vs. Restrictive Pulmonary Disease

  • Restrictive diseases exhibit decreased lung compliance, limited expansion (pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary edema)
  • Obstructive diseases exhibit increased airway resistance (asthma, COPD, emphysema, chronic bronchitis)

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

  • Symptoms: Chronic cough, sputum production, dyspnea, wheezing, barrel chest, cyanosis
  • Risk Factors: Smoking, air pollution, infections, genetics
  • Pathophysiology: characterized by Irreversible airflow limitations,
    • Mucus hypersecretion, causing ciliary dysfunction
    • Hyperinflation, causing abnormalites in gas exchange
  • Complications: Cor pulmonale, acute exacerbations, respiratory failure,

Asthma

  • Asthma attacks present with: wheezing, breathlessness, cough, and tight chest
  • Triggers include allergens, exercise, and respiratory infections,
  • Severe attacks result in a silent chest, PEFR <40%, RR >30/min, pulse >120/min
  • Status Asthmaticus is life-threatening and unresponsive to treatment.

Pneumonia

  • Symptoms: Fever, chills, dyspnea, productive or dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, crackles
  • Types:
    • Community-acquired (CAP)
    • Aspiration pneumonia
    • Hospital-acquired (HAP)
    • Ventilator-associated (VAP)
  • Complications: Pleural effusion, atelectasis, bacteremia
  • Treatment: Antibiotics, hydration, oxygen therapy

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

  • Blockage of pulmonary arteries, due to a thrombus, fat, or air embolus
  • Symptoms manifest often include sudden dyspnea, chest pain, hemoptysis, tachycardia, and/or hypoxia
  • Treatment: Anticoagulants, thrombolytics, surgical removal
  • Diagnostics: D-dimer test, CT pulmonary angiography,

Oxygen Therapy

  • Methods: Nasal cannula, face mask, non-rebreather mask, mechanical ventilation
  • Complications: Oxygen toxicity, carbon dioxide narcosis (COPD patients), infection risk

Lung Cancer

  • Symptoms: Persistent cough, hemoptysis, weight loss, hoarseness,
  • Risk Factors: Smoking as the primary concern, exposure to carcinogens such as air polution,
  • Treatment: Surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, targeted therapy,
  • The nursing process involves assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation
  • Evaluation is the nursing process' final phase and assesses the effectiveness of interventions
  • Lung Cancer treatment consists of surgery, radiation, chemotherapy or targeted therapy
  • Cancer Encompasses more than 200 diseases, all involving uncontrolled cell growth and defective differentiation,
  • Cancer is caused by genetic mutations, carcinogens (chemical, radiation, viral, genetic factors), and lifestyle factors like smoking, alcohol, and obesity
  • Spinal Cord Compression involves a tumor pressing on the spinal cord
  • Ensuring smooth transitions between care settings prevents medication errors and ensures continuity of care.

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