Discharge of Contracts Overview

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Questions and Answers

What does the term 'discharge by performance' mean in the context of contracts?

  • The end of a contract due to mutual agreement.
  • Termination of the contract through legal action.
  • Satisfactory execution of all contractual obligations. (correct)
  • Cancellation of a contract due to unforeseen circumstances.

Which clause is designed to protect against losses that may arise after a contract has been completed?

  • Indemnification Provision (correct)
  • Limitation of Liability Clause
  • Force Majeure Clause
  • Survival Clause

What type of discharge occurs when parties agree to end their contractual obligations?

  • Discharge by Agreement (correct)
  • Discharge by Breach
  • Discharge by Frustration
  • Discharge by Law

Which type of clause limits the amount or types of damages a party may be liable for?

<p>Limitation of Liability Clause (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary legal consequence of a breach of contract?

<p>Court-imposed damages to the injured party. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes failure to perform in a contract?

<p>Partial or total inadequacy in performance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by the doctrine of substantial performance?

<p>Slight non-compliance with contractual terms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of damages focuses on the profits expected at the time of contract formation?

<p>Expectation Damages (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of liquidated damages?

<p>They are fixed amounts agreed upon in advance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do equitable remedies focus on?

<p>Requiring a specific act to be completed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of breach mitigation, what is expected from the non-breaching party?

<p>To take reasonable steps to minimize losses (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cost of performance differ from economic loss in damage calculations?

<p>Cost of performance covers the actual expense incurred (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of equitable remedy?

<p>Expectation Damages (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines reliance damages?

<p>Damages for wasted efforts incurred during contract performance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of consequential losses in breach of contract cases?

<p>Indirect damages reasonably foreseeable from the breach (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario describes a substituted agreement?

<p>Parties terminate the old contract and create a new one with updated terms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key requirement for a contract to be discharged by frustration?

<p>The frustrating event was unforeseen and outside both parties' control. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of clause exempts a party from liability for non-performance?

<p>Exemption clause (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What typically occurs in a breach of warranty?

<p>The non-breaching party remains bound to the contract but can claim damages. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following defines a 'condition' in a contract?

<p>An essential term that, if breached, permits termination and damages. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes an express repudiation of a contract?

<p>One party informs the other of their intention not to perform. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of a major breach of contract?

<p>It discharges the non-breaching party from obligations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when a contract contains a condition subsequent?

<p>A specified event will result in termination if it occurs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a contract, what does the 'Frustrated Contracts Act' ensure?

<p>Fair outcomes are provided when frustration makes performance impossible. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the term 'waiver' in contract law?

<p>It is an agreement to ignore a breach of contract. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a consequence of bankruptcy under the Bankruptcy and Insolvency Act?

<p>Pending collection actions are temporarily halted. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a 'time is of the essence' clause in a contract?

<p>It emphasizes the importance of timely performance, making delays a breach. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would NOT be a requirement for a discharge by agreement?

<p>The contract must have been fully performed by both parties. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining characteristic of a major breach of contract?

<p>A failure that defeats the overall purpose of the contract. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a judgment in legal terms?

<p>A court order requiring one party to pay damages or perform an action (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which step is NOT part of enforcing a judgment?

<p>Negotiating a settlement with the debtor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a garnishee order?

<p>To require a debtor's employer to withhold wages (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario does an agent alone become liable?

<p>When they misrepresent themselves as the principal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a method to create an agency relationship?

<p>Implied authority (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens if a debtor fails to attend an examination?

<p>It is considered contempt of court (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the principal's duty of good faith require?

<p>To maintain transparency and trust in dealings (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is a principal liable for the contracts made by their agent?

<p>When the agent acts with real or apparent authority (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for ratification to occur?

<p>The principal must have full knowledge of the act and its legality (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a duty of the agent to the principal?

<p>Duty to negotiate on behalf of the principal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines apparent authority in an agency relationship?

<p>A third party reasonably believes the agent to have authority based on the principal's actions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes an undisclosed principal?

<p>A principal whose identity is not revealed during the agency act (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What liability does a principal have in joint/several torts committed by an agent?

<p>Jointly liable with the agent for acts within real authority (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the mortgagee in a chattel mortgage?

<p>The mortgagee is the creditor holding the mortgage against the personal property. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a necessary step in the PPSA process?

<p>Approval by a government agency (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can a creditor perfect their security interest?

<p>Through registration under the PPSA and taking possession of the asset. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a floating charge?

<p>A mortgage on all of the assets of a corporation except those already charged. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Purchase Money Security Interest (PMSI) allow a creditor?

<p>To have priority over other perfected security interests for assets purchased with the loan. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must happen for a debtor's property to be subject to a security interest?

<p>The security interest must be created and attached. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of registering a security interest?

<p>It protects the creditor's interest from competing claims. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes 'after-acquired property'?

<p>It includes assets not specifically included in the mortgage agreement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of competing interests, which factor determines priority?

<p>The timing of perfection or registration of the security interest. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the PPSA impact third-party purchasers?

<p>It requires all security interests to be publicly registered. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence if an agent commits fraudulent misrepresentation?

<p>The contract is cancelled and the third party can sue. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition can a third party sue for breach of warranty of authority?

<p>If the agent has no real or apparent authority and there was never a contract. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the termination of an agency relationship?

<p>Lack of notice from one party. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary duty of a franchisor under the Arthur Wishart Act?

<p>To provide franchisees with a right to disclosure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the liability of an employer under vicarious liability?

<p>For actions committed within the scope of employment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What represents negligent hiring?

<p>Not performing adequate background checks before hiring. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of duty, what must an employee do when instructed by an employer?

<p>Obey only reasonable and lawful instructions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of an employment contract is NOT strictly mandatory for employers?

<p>Payment of overtime regardless of role. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary function of the franchise agreement?

<p>Outlining the conduct of business. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If an agent innocently exceeds their authority, what is the result?

<p>No contract is formed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a wrongful referral claim to be valid?

<p>Misleading information must be provided in the referral. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an obligation of an employer regarding payment to their employees?

<p>Pay at least the minimum wage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'vicarious performance' mean in contract liability?

<p>A third party performs on behalf of the promisor, but the promisor remains responsible. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary condition under which an employer can terminate employment immediately without notice?

<p>The employee's conduct constitutes a breach of the contract. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers automatic termination of an agent's authority?

<p>Completion of the specified task or project. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT typically considered when determining a reasonable notice period?

<p>Employee's age (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which situation would likely justify a dismissal for cause?

<p>The employee has committed a crime. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must a plaintiff demonstrate to mitigate their damages after wrongful dismissal?

<p>They must attempt to find comparable employment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered constructive dismissal?

<p>The employer changes the employment terms drastically. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main remedies sought by employees in cases of wrongful dismissal?

<p>Reinstatement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of damages are awarded to employees for mental anguish in wrongful dismissal cases?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition allows an employer to use payment in lieu of notice?

<p>The employer is choosing to terminate immediately. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key characteristic of secured transactions?

<p>The lender acquires a security interest in collateral. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of a bailee in a bailment relationship?

<p>The bailee must take care of the bailor’s goods. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of creditor does not require a judgment to act on collateral?

<p>Secured Creditor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of damage is specifically related to the employer acting in bad faith during wrongful dismissal?

<p>Punitive damages (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must employers provide to employees to avoid wrongful dismissal claims?

<p>Adequate notice or payment in lieu of notice (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which options define personal property in contrast to real property?

<p>Items not permanently fixed to land (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Discharge of a Contract

The ending of a contract's obligations for all parties involved.

Discharge by Performance

Both parties fulfill their contractual duties completely and satisfactorily.

Indemnification Provision

A clause ensuring one party compensates another for losses after contract completion.

Limitation of Liability Clause

Limits the liability of one or both parties to a specific amount or excludes specific damages.

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Survival Clause

Specifies which parts of the contract remain valid after its completion.

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Discharge by Agreement

Both parties agree to end the contract before it's fully completed.

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Waiver of Contract

An agreement to drop all obligations under an existing contract, even though one party might have already started work.

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Substituted Agreement

Parties replace the old contract with a new one to update terms or resolve issues. The old contract is no longer valid.

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Condition Precedent

A future event that must happen before either party is obligated to perform their part of the contract.

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Condition Subsequent

A future event that, if it happens, ends the contract's obligations for one or both parties.

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Discharge by Frustration

The contract ends because an unexpected external event makes performance radically different from what was intended.

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Self-Induced Frustration

A party intentionally creates the circumstance that makes performance impossible, so they can't use frustration as a defense.

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Effect of Frustration

Depending on whether performance has begun, parties may be released from their obligations or one side might receive a windfall (unexpected benefit).

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Frustrated Contracts Act

A legal framework to ensure fairness when a contract is frustrated, addressing how payments and costs are handled.

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Discharge by Operation of Law

Contract obligations can end due to legal circumstances beyond the parties' control, like bankruptcy or time limits.

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Bankruptcy and Insolvency Act

Protects creditors and debtors by stopping collection actions and ensuring fair distribution of assets.

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Limitations Act

Sets time limits for bringing legal action on contracts. Once the time runs out, the legal claims are lost.

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Breach of Contract

One party fails to comply with the terms of the contract, allowing the other party to seek compensation.

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Exemption Clauses

Contract clauses attempting to limit or exclude a party's liability for failing to perform their obligations.

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Condition vs. Warranty

A condition is a critical term of the contract, while a warranty is a non-essential term.

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Failure to Perform

A breach of contract where a party fails to complete their obligations as agreed upon, either partially or entirely. This can occur when performance is due.

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Substantial Performance

Performance that meets the essential terms of the contract but has minor deviations from the agreed-upon details. The non-breaching party must still perform and can sue for damages caused by the minor shortcomings.

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Damages (Breach of Contract)

Monetary compensation awarded to the injured party to make up for the losses caused by the breach of contract. This is intended to place the injured party in the position they would have been in if the contract had been fulfilled.

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Expectation Damages

Damages awarded to compensate for the expected profits under the contract at the time of its formation, including the lost opportunity cost of potentially making a different contract.

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Consequential Losses

Foreseeable damages that arise as a direct result of the breach, beyond the initial expected loss, such as halting business operations.

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Liquidated Damages

A pre-agreed amount specified in the contract to be paid in damages if a breach occurs, without needing to prove the actual financial loss.

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Quantum Meruit

A legal principle that allows a person to be compensated for the fair value of goods or services they provided, even if there was no formal contract. Basically, they are paid the reasonable amount based on the work performed.

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Mitigation

Actions taken by the aggrieved party to minimize their losses after a breach of contract. This is a reasonable effort to reduce the financial impact of the breach.

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Cost of Performance

Calculating damages based on the actual cost to fulfill the contractual obligations as agreed upon. This involves fixing or completing the performance to meet the original terms.

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Economic Loss

Calculating damages based on the difference in the expected financial position under the contract and the actual position after the breach. This focused on the financial impact, not necessarily the cost of fixing it.

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Judgment Creditor

The party who has been awarded a judgment by a court, meaning they are owed money or a specific action by another party.

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Judgment Debtor

The party who is legally obligated to pay damages or perform the action requested in a court judgment.

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Register Judgment

The process of officially recording a court judgment with the court, making it a public record.

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Writ

A legal document that instructs a person or entity to perform or stop performing a specific action.

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Levy Execution

The sheriff seizing a debtor's assets, like property or money, to satisfy a judgment.

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Garnishment Order

A court order requiring the debtor's employer to withhold a portion of their wages each payday and pay it to the creditor.

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Examination

A court-ordered meeting where the debtor must disclose their financial details under oath.

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Agent

A person authorized to act on behalf of another person (the principal) in dealings with third parties.

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Agency Agreement

Thecontract between a principal and an agent that outlines the agent's authority and duties.

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Implied Agency

An agency relationship created by the principal's actions or behavior, even without a formal agreement.

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Ratification

When the principal retroactively approves an agent's actions even if the agent didn't have authority at the time.

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Apparent Authority

When a third party reasonably believes an agent has authority to act for the principal, even if the agent lacks it.

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Duty to Comply

An agent's obligation to follow the terms of the agency agreement.

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Duty of Care

An agent's responsibility to exercise the same level of care as a reasonable agent in similar circumstances.

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Duty of Good Faith

An agent's fiduciary duty to act in the best interests of the principal.

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Undisclosed Principal

When an agent acts for a principal without revealing the principal's identity to the third party.

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What is 'pay in lieu of notice'?

When an employer terminates an employee immediately, but pays them the equivalent salary they would have earned during their notice period.

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Reasonable Notice Period

The minimum time an employer must give an employee before terminating their employment without cause.

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Factors for determining reasonable notice

Factors include the employee's length of service, industry norms, position level, and frequency of pay.

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Dismissal for Cause

Terminating an employee immediately without notice due to serious misconduct or breach of contract.

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Examples of Dismissal for Cause

Examples include theft, violence, insubordination, or severe incompetence.

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Insubordination

Refusal to obey a reasonable and lawful request from a superior.

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Incompetence

Lacking the necessary skills or abilities for the job.

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Wrongful Dismissal

When an employer fires an employee without just cause or proper notice.

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Employer Defenses

Employers can defend dismissal claims by proving just cause or providing proper notice.

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Constructive Dismissal

When an employer makes significant changes to an employee's job, forcing them to resign.

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Mitigation of Damages

A legal principle requiring a dismissed employee to make reasonable efforts to find new employment.

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Punitive Damages

Damages awarded in addition to regular pay for wrongful dismissal, due to malicious or egregious employer conduct.

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Reinstatement

A court order requiring an employer to rehire a wrongfully dismissed employee.

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Workers' Compensation

A government program providing benefits for employees injured at work.

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Secured Transaction

A loan where the lender acquires a security interest in the borrower's property.

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Chattel Mortgage

A mortgage on personal property, like equipment, securing a debt. It involves a mortgagor (debtor) and a mortgagee (creditor).

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After-Acquired Property

Property that's not owned at the time a mortgage is created. It's often used for inventory in businesses as it's constantly changing.

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Floating Charge

A mortgage on all assets of a corporation, except those already specifically charged, allowing flexibility for a business.

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Personal Property Security Act (PPSA)

Provincial legislation governing the creation, perfection, and registration of various security interests like chattel mortgages and floating charges.

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What are the stages of a PPSA?

There are three stages: creation, where parties agree to a security interest; attachment, where the property becomes subject to the interest; and perfection, where the creditor's interest is protected.

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How to Perfect a Security Interest?

Two ways: by taking possession of the asset (bailment or pledge) or by registering under the PPSA.

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Priority Under PPSA

First to register or perfect their security interest gains priority. A Purchase Money Security Interest (PMSI) has special priority for financing specific assets.

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Effect of Security Interest on Third-Parties

A registered security interest protects the creditor's claim even against buyers, as they're deemed to have notice.

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Exceptions for Good Faith Purchasers

In some provinces, good faith purchases of low-value goods are exempt from registration requirements, making them safer.

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Fraudulent Misrepresentation by Agent

When an agent intentionally deceives a third party during a transaction, resulting in a void contract. Both the agent and principal can be sued for the tort.

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Negligent Misrepresentation by Agent

An agent makes a statement without proper care, leading a third party to believe something untrue. This can void the contract and the agent is liable.

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Breach of Warranty of Authority

Occurs when an agent falsely claims to have authority to act on behalf of the principal, leading to no contract formation.

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Ratification in Breach of Warranty

Even if an agent lacked authority, the principal can still ratify the agreement by accepting its benefits, creating a valid contract retroactively.

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Consequences of Breach of Authority

The third party has legal remedies against the agent for breach of warranty of authority, deceit (fraudulent misrepresentation), or negligent misrepresentation.

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Innocent Excess of Authority

When an agent acts beyond their authorized scope without malicious intent, no contract is formed.

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Automatic Termination of Agency

An agency relationship ends automatically due to events like contract expiration, project completion, notice, death, insanity, bankruptcy, or impossibility.

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Franchise Law

Legal framework governing the relationship between franchisors (like McDonald's) and franchisees (owners of franchises).

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Franchise Agreement Essentials

Includes essential clauses covering consideration, business conduct, termination, restrictive covenants, and intellectual property rights.

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Arthur Wishart Act

Canadian legislation that governs franchise relationships, ensuring disclosure, fair dealing, and franchisees' right to associate.

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Vicarious Liability of Employer

Employers are jointly liable for their employees' actions, especially when those actions are within the scope of employment.

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Negligent Hiring

Employers can be sued for harm caused by an employee if they failed to take reasonable care in hiring.

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Wrongful Referral

Providing a misleading referral that leads to harm, making the referrer liable.

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Vicarious Performance in Contracts

When a third party fulfills the obligations of a contract, the original promisor is still liable for performance.

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Employee Duties

Employees have basic duties to their employer including obedience, skill & care, and good faith.

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Study Notes

Discharge of Contracts

  • Discharge is the termination of contractual obligations, ending a party's responsibility.
  • Contracts can be discharged by: performance, agreement, frustration, or operation of law. Breach of contract is a specific discharge where damages are awarded.

Discharge by Performance

  • Both parties fulfill their obligations satisfactorily.
  • Unsatisfactory performance does not discharge the contract.
  • Even after primary obligations are fulfilled, the contract might survive (remain effective and enforceable) if conditions in the agreement remain critical after completion.

Survival of Performance

  • Indemnification Provisions: A clause requiring one party (indemnifier) to compensate the other (indemnitee) for losses occurring after the contract's completion.
  • Limitation of Liability Clauses: Clauses capping liability, often specifying a monetary limit or excluding certain damages.
  • Survival Clauses: Contract terms remaining enforceable after completion, often protecting ongoing interests (e.g., protecting trade secrets or liabilities).

Discharge by Agreement

  • Both parties agree not to proceed with the contract.

Types of Agreement Discharge

  • Waiver: An agreement to not proceed with a contract, only when neither party has fully performed.
  • Substituted Agreement: Parties replace the original contract with a new one (e.g., settlement/accord and satisfaction, novation, material changes in terms).

Discharge by Frustration

  • Excuses parties from performance due to unforeseen external events that make performance radically different from what was intended.
  • Frustration discharges the contract at the moment the event occurs.
  • Applies to cases where neither or one party(ies) were/was partially performing.

Requirements for Frustration

  • Unforeseen event.
  • Event outside both parties' control.
  • Event occurred after the agreement.
  • Event renders performance impossible, purposeless, or fundamentally different.

Frustrated Contracts Act

  • Governs consequences of frustrated contracts, ensuring fairness.
  • Determines whether funds paid or due can be retained/recovered.

Discharge by Operation of Law

  • Bankruptcy and Insolvency Act: Applies to individuals or businesses unable to repay debts, stopping most collection actions.
  • Limitations Act: Sets time limits for enforcing contractual rights. Exceeding the limits bars legal action, effectively discharging the obligation.

Breach of Contract

  • Occurs when one party fails to comply with contract terms.
  • All breach of contracts allow the non-breaching party to sue for damages.

Exemption Clauses

  • Clauses exempting parties from liability for non-performance.
  • Not always enforceable (factors like inadequate notice, contra proferentem principle, misrepresentation, and non est factum)

Condition vs. Warranty

  • Condition: Essential term; breach allows discharge and damages.
  • Warranty: Non-essential term; breach allows damages but not discharge.

Time is of the Essence Clauses

  • Emphasizes deadlines. Any delay in completion is considered a breach.

Remedies for Breach of Contract

  • Damages: Monetary compensation for losses caused by the breach.

  • Liquidated damages: Agreed-upon amounts paid in case of breach.

  • Nominal damages: Nominal damages awarded where losses are negligible.

  • Equitable Remedies: Include specific performance (compelling a party to perform a specific act) and injunctions (preventing a party from acting).

  • Quantum Meruit: Reasonable compensation for services rendered.

Types of Damages

  • Expectation: Profits lost due to breach + opportunity cost
  • Consequential: Foreseeable damages flowing from breach
  • General: Non-quantifiable damages (e.g., lost reputation)
  • Reliance: Damages for wasted efforts in preparation.

Mitigation & Causation

  • Mitigation: Aggrieved party's actions to minimize losses after a breach.
  • Causation: Direct link between breach and damages claimed.

Enforcing a Judgment

  • Judgement: Court order requiring one party to pay the other damages or complete a required action.
  • Execution/Garnishment/Examination: Processes for enforcing judgments (seizing assets, deducting wages, and examining the debtor's finances).

Agency & Franchising

  • Agency Agreement: Principal and agent contract, defining the agent's authority.

  • Agency Relationship Creation: Implied relationship, ratification, and apparent/ostensible authority.

  • Duties of Agent to Principal: Compliance, care, good faith.

  • Duties of Principal to Agent: Remuneration and expenses.

  • Liability of Principal(s) and Agent(s) to Third Parties: Determines liability based on agency authority (reals or apparent authority), whether the agent disclosed their status.

  • Undisclosed Principal: Principal seeking to enforce contract where the agent did not disclose the principal.

  • Liability for Torts: Principal & agent liability for torts within authority.

  • Breach of Warranty of Authority: Liability for falsely claiming authority.

  • Terminating Agency Relationship: End of contract, accomplishment of purpose, notice, death, or bankruptcy.

  • Franchising: Contractual relationship between franchisor (e.g., company) and franchisee (e.g., business owner).

  • Arthur Wishart Act: Governs franchise relationships, including disclosure, fair dealing, and associating rights.

Employment Law

  • Employee vs. Independent Contractor: Primarily based on the risk of profit/loss in the work.
  • Torts of Employer: Vicarious liability (employer liable for employee's torts within the scope of employment), negligent hiring, wrongful referral.
  • Contract Liability: Vicarious performance (employer liable for employee action on their behalf).
  • Employee Duties: Obedience, skill, good faith.
  • Employer Duties: Payment of wages, benefits, and compliance with labor laws.
  • Termination: Notice, payment in lieu of notice, and dismissal for cause.
  • Constructive Dismissal: Employer significantly alters terms making the position unsuitable.
  • Wrongful Dismissal: Lack of proper cause or notice, failure to follow rules.
  • Damages: Mitigation, reinstatement.

Secured Transactions

  • Bailment: Transferring personal property without transferring ownership.
  • Secured Transaction: Loan with security interest in collateral (e.g., mortgage).
  • Personal Property vs. Real Property: Secured transaction differs by the type of property.
  • Creating Security Interests: Agreement establishing creditor’s security rights in collateral.
  • Types of Security Contracts: Conditional sales, chattel mortgages, pledges, assignment of book debts, floating charges.
  • PPSA: Provincial law regulating security interests.
  • Priority of Competing Interests: Determining priority among different secured creditors.
  • Effect on Third Parties: Impact on purchasers of collateral.

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