Discharge of Contracts Overview
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Questions and Answers

What is one way a contract can be discharged?

  • Incapacity of one party
  • Revocation by third party
  • Frustration (correct)
  • Change in market value
  • What happens if the performance of a contract is not satisfactory?

  • The contract is automatically discharged
  • The contract remains enforceable (correct)
  • The contract can be renegotiated
  • Damages are awarded without further action
  • What does a limitation of liability clause generally do?

  • Allows for indefinite liability period
  • Caps liability to a certain amount (correct)
  • Holds both parties liable for all damages
  • Excludes all forms of liability
  • Which clause ensures that one party compensates the other for post-contract losses?

    <p>Indemnification Provision (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a survival clause in a contract?

    <p>It specifies which terms remain enforceable after the contract ends (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a survival clause in a contract?

    <p>It specifies confidentiality and liability provisions continue for a period. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for a waiver of contract to occur?

    <p>Neither party has fully performed and both must agree. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a substituted agreement?

    <p>A new contract that replaces an old one and discharges it. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the Doctrine of Substantial Performance?

    <p>It requires the non-breaching party to perform their obligations despite minor non-compliance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a condition precedent in a contract?

    <p>An event that must happen before performance can begin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of damages compensates for lost profits and opportunity costs due to a breach of contract?

    <p>Expectation Damages (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which scenario is a contract discharged due to frustration?

    <p>An unforeseen event drastically changes the terms of performance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition can equitable remedies be awarded?

    <p>When money damages cannot adequately resolve the loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Frustrated Contracts Act address?

    <p>Consequences when a contract is rendered frustrated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of damages in breach of contract cases?

    <p>To compensate the injured party to restore them to their pre-breach position. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a feature of an exemption clause?

    <p>It exempts a party from liability for non-performance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of liquidated damages?

    <p>They are an agreed-upon amount specified in the contract in case of a breach. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which concept requires an injured party to minimize their losses after a breach of contract?

    <p>Mitigation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What differentiates a condition from a warranty in a contract?

    <p>Conditions relate to essential terms, warranties are non-essential. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation can an express repudiation occur?

    <p>One party refuses to perform before performance is due. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary distinction between economic loss and cost of performance?

    <p>Economic loss measures the difference under the contract and the position after the breach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a type of equitable remedy?

    <p>Expectation Damages (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What typically happens after a major breach of contract?

    <p>The non-breaching party may opt for discharge from the contract. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'self-induced frustration' imply in contract law?

    <p>A party's own actions cause a refusal to perform. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of breach of contract, what are consequential losses?

    <p>Other reasonably foreseeable damages that arise from the breach. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary feature of reliance damages?

    <p>They cover the expenses incurred due to reliance on the contract. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Limitations Act in contract law?

    <p>It sets time limits within which parties can enforce their contractual rights. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What outcome results from a breach of warranty in a contract?

    <p>The non-breaching party can sue for damages but the contract remains in force. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a chattel mortgage primarily concerned with?

    <p>Securing debts against personal property (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in the PPSA process?

    <p>Creation of a security interest (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does a creditor's security interest become protected under PPSA?

    <p>Upon registration completion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant feature of the Purchase Money Security Interest (PMSI)?

    <p>It provides special priority for assets financed through a loan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does a floating charge differ from a traditional mortgage?

    <p>It is a charge on all assets of a corporation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What often happens with after-acquired property in the context of a chattel mortgage?

    <p>The creditor holds a suspended priority over other creditors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the attachment of a security interest signify in the PPSA process?

    <p>The debtor's property is now subject to the security interest (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of registering a security interest?

    <p>It protects the interest against innocent third parties (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'perfection' in the context of security interests refer to?

    <p>The process of making a security interest enforceable (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one key reason why good faith purchasers of small value goods might be exempt in certain provinces?

    <p>The goods are considered not significant enough (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of a judgment creditor?

    <p>To enforce the judgment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must occur before a sheriff can levy execution on a debtor's assets?

    <p>An execution order must be made to the sheriff (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a garnishee order?

    <p>An order to retain part of a debtor's wages (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes an agent's duty of care to the principal?

    <p>To fulfill contractual obligations personally (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for an agency relationship to be created through implied authority?

    <p>The principal must allow the agent to act without a formal agreement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding ratification in agency law?

    <p>The principal can ratify an unauthorized act if lawful (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a principal do to be held liable for an agent's actions?

    <p>Ensure the agent is operating under real or apparent authority (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What generally happens if an agent does not disclose their agency status?

    <p>The agent may be held personally liable (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can both the agent and the principal be held liable?

    <p>When the agent fails to disclose their agent status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a requirement for an agency agreement to be enforceable under the statute of frauds?

    <p>It must be written if it lasts more than one year (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What typically characterizes the duty of good faith in an agency relationship?

    <p>To prioritize the principal's best interests over their own (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what condition can an undisclosed principal enforce a contract against a third party?

    <p>When the contract was made with real authority (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who is liable for torts committed within the agent's real authority?

    <p>Both the principal and agent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an employer required to provide when terminating an employee without cause?

    <p>Reasonable notice period (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under what circumstances is dismissal for cause permissible?

    <p>Significant breaches affecting contract or conduct (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT considered when determining a reasonable notice period?

    <p>Employee's age at the time of dismissal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential consequence for an employer if they fail to follow proper dismissal procedures?

    <p>The employer could face wrongful dismissal claims (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is 'constructive dismissal'?

    <p>It occurs when an employee resigns after contract changes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is required when dismissing an employee for cause?

    <p>Providing opportunities for improvement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of damages can be claimed in a wrongful dismissal case?

    <p>Comparison of notice period and actual income (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a plaintiff need to do in terms of mitigation following a wrongful dismissal?

    <p>Act reasonably to reduce their losses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the duty of care for a bailee in a bailment situation?

    <p>Bailee must take care of the bailor’s goods (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a secured transaction example?

    <p>Borrowing money secured by a personal asset (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes a secured creditor from a general creditor?

    <p>Secured creditors have a claim on specific collateral (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action can a third party take against an agent who commits fraudulent misrepresentation?

    <p>Sue the agent and principal for tort of fraudulent misrepresentation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important factor in determining a reasonable notice period for an employee?

    <p>Duration of employment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs if an agent exceeds their authority innocently?

    <p>No contract is formed with the third party (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can punitive damages be awarded in a wrongful dismissal case?

    <p>If the employer acted in bad faith or malice (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation terminates an agency relationship?

    <p>Death of the principal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following constitutes a breach of warranty of authority?

    <p>An agent represents they have authority when they do not (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of the relationship between a franchisor and franchisee?

    <p>It has a duty of good faith (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is vicarious liability in the context of employment law?

    <p>Employer's liability for employees' actions within the scope of employment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition must be met for negligent hiring claims against an employer?

    <p>Employer failed to perform adequate background checks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does breach of the duty of good faith and fidelity involve?

    <p>An employee competing with their employer during employment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must an employer do regarding wage payment during employment?

    <p>Pay all outstanding wages upon termination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of employment, what is the duty to obey?

    <p>Employees must follow legal and lawful instructions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result when a third party sues an agent for breach of warranty of authority?

    <p>The third party may recover damages as if a contract was formed (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action must a franchisor take according to the Arthur Wishart Act?

    <p>Provide full disclosure to franchisees (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What constitutes wrongful referral?

    <p>Making misleading claims about a professional's qualifications (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Discharge of Contract

    The termination of a contract's obligations, releasing parties from responsibilities.

    Discharge by Performance

    Both parties fulfill their contractual obligations satisfactorily.

    Indemnification Provision

    A clause ensuring one party compensates another for losses after contract completion.

    Limitation of Liability Clause

    A clause setting a limit on the liability of contracting parties.

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    Survival Clause

    Specifies which contract terms remain valid after completion; essential for ongoing interests.

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    Failure to Perform

    Occurs when a party doesn't fulfill contractual obligations when they're due. Can be total, partial, or grossly inadequate.

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    Doctrine of Substantial Performance

    When a party's performance is slightly defective but still fulfills the contract's essence. The non-breaching party can't avoid their obligations, but can sue for damages.

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    Damages (Breach of Contract)

    Monetary compensation for the injured party due to the other party's breach. Aims to put the injured party back in the position they would have been in if the contract was fulfilled.

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    Expectation Damages

    Compensation for lost profits expected from the contract + the cost of finding a new agreement due to the breach.

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    Consequential Losses

    Foreseeable damages that occur as a direct result of the breach, like having to close down operations.

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    General Damages

    Damages that are difficult to quantify, like loss of reputation or emotional distress.

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    Reliance Damages

    Compensation for wasted effort and expenses incurred in reliance on the contract.

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    Liquidated Damages

    An amount agreed upon in advance by both parties that will be paid as damages in case of breach.

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    Nominal Damages

    A small token award when a breach occurred, but no actual financial loss was suffered. It's a symbolic recognition of wrongdoing.

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    Equitable Remedies

    Solutions granted when monetary compensation isn't enough to fix the problem. They're used when money can't adequately address the situation.

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    Discharge by Agreement

    Both parties mutually agree to not proceed with the contract.

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    Waiver of Contract

    An agreement not to proceed with a contract that already exists; only possible when neither party has fully performed.

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    Substitute Agreement

    Replacing an old contract with a new one, typically with better terms for one party.

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    Condition Precedent

    A future event that must occur before a party's obligations start.

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    Condition Subsequent

    An uncertain future event that ends a party's obligations if it happens.

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    Discharge by Frustration

    A party is excused from performing due to an unforeseen external event that makes the contract radically different.

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    Requirements of Frustration

    The unforeseen event must be outside the parties' control, arising after the agreement, and making performance impossible or impractical.

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    Frustrated Contracts Act

    Provides a framework for fairness when a contract becomes frustrated.

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    Discharge by Operation of Law

    Legal processes that end contractual obligations.

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    Bankruptcy/Insolvency

    Legal status where a person or business cannot repay debts.

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    Limitations Act

    Legal time limits for enforcing contractual rights.

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    Breach of Contract

    One party fails to comply with the terms of the agreement.

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    Condition

    Essential terms of a contract, breach allows termination.

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    Warranty

    Non-essential terms, breach allows damages but contract continues.

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    Time is of the essence

    Meeting deadlines is a major term of the agreement.

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    Judgment Creditor

    The party awarded money or a remedy by a court order.

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    Judgment Debtor

    The party obligated to pay damages or fulfill the court order.

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    Register Judgment

    Filing a court order with the court to make it official and enforceable.

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    Writ

    A legal document instructing someone to perform or stop an action.

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    Levy Execution

    The sheriff seizing and selling assets to satisfy a judgment.

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    Garnishment Order

    An order requiring an employer to withhold a portion of an employee's wages to pay a debt.

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    Examination

    A court proceeding where a debtor discloses financial details.

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    Agency Agreement

    A contract between a principal and an agent outlining the agent's duties.

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    Ratification

    A principal's approval of an agent's unauthorized act.

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    Apparent Authority

    When a third party believes an agent has authority due to the principal's actions.

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    Duty to Comply with Agency Agreement

    The agent's obligation to follow the terms of the agreement with the principal.

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    Duty of Care

    The agent's obligation to act with the care of a reasonable agent.

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    Duty of Good Faith

    The agent's obligation to act in the best interests of the principal.

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    Undisclosed Principal

    A principal whose identity is not revealed to a third party.

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    Joint and Several Liability

    Both principal and agent can be held responsible for an agent's tort.

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    Chattel Mortgage

    A mortgage on personal property, like equipment or inventory, where the creditor has a security interest in the asset but not ownership.

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    Floating Charge

    A form of mortgage that covers all of a company's assets, not just specific ones, allowing the assets to change over time.

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    PPSA

    A provincial law that regulates the creation, perfection, and registration of security interests in personal property.

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    Creation of Security Interest

    The agreement between a creditor and debtor that establishes a security interest in an asset.

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    Attachment of Security Interest

    The point when a debtor's property becomes subject to a security interest.

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    Perfection of Security Interest

    The process of making a creditor's security interest protected against other creditors.

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    Purchase Money Security Interest (PMSI)

    A type of security interest that has special priority over other security interests when the loan is specifically used to buy the asset.

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    Separation of Possession and Ownership

    When the debtor has possession of the asset but the creditor has the ownership interest.

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    Good Faith Purchasers

    Buyers who purchase goods without knowing about existing security interests, often protected in certain cases.

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    Registration under PPSA

    The process of recording a security interest with the provincial government to protect the creditor's rights.

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    Fraudulent Misrepresentation

    When an agent intentionally deceives a third party, causing them to enter into a contract. This makes the contract voidable and allows the third party to sue both the agent and the principal.

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    Negligent Misrepresentation

    When an agent makes a false statement about their authority without intending to deceive, but they should have known the truth. This can make the agent liable to the third party.

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    Breach of Warranty of Authority

    When an agent falsely claims to have the authority to act on behalf of the principal, resulting in no contract being formed.

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    Terminating an Agency Relationship

    Ending the legal connection between an agent and principal.

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    Franchise Agreement

    A contract between a franchisor (brand owner) and a franchisee (business operator) that outlines the franchise relationship and operating rules.

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    Franchisor

    The company that owns the brand and provides the franchise system (e.g., McDonald's).

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    Franchisee

    The individual or company who operates the franchise under the franchisor's guidelines (e.g., the McDonald's restaurant owner).

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    Arthur Wishart Act

    Canadian law that governs franchise relationships, focusing on disclosure, fair dealing, and the right to associate for franchisees.

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    Vicarious Liability

    An employer is held legally responsible for the actions of their employee if those actions were done within the scope of employment.

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    Negligent Hiring

    When an employer fails to adequately screen employees, causing harm to someone due to the employee's actions.

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    Wrongful Referral

    When a person provides misleading information about someone's qualifications, leading another party to hire them and suffer negative consequences.

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    Vicarious Performance

    When a third party fulfills the obligations of a contract on behalf of the original promisor, but the promisor still remains liable for the performance.

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    Duty to Obey (employee)

    Employees are required to follow reasonable and lawful instructions from their employer.

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    Duty of Good Faith and Fidelity (employee)

    Employees must act in the best interests of their employer, being honest and loyal during their employment.

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    Reasonable Notice Period

    The amount of time an employer must give an employee before terminating their employment without cause. It is based on factors like the employee's length of service, position, and industry standards.

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    Payment in Lieu of Notice

    When an employer terminates an employee without providing the required notice period, they can pay the employee a lump sum instead, covering the wages they would have earned during the notice period.

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    Dismissal for Cause

    Terminating an employee without notice due to serious misconduct, incompetence, or insubordination, effectively ending the employment contract.

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    Misconduct

    Behavior that violates an employee's employment contract or company policies, such as stealing, harassment, or intoxication at work.

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    Insubordination

    Refusal to obey reasonable and lawful instructions from a supervisor, even if the employee disagrees with the instruction.

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    Incompetence

    An employee's inability to perform their job duties due to lack of skills or knowledge, even after training and support.

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    Wrongful Dismissal

    When an employer terminates an employee without proper cause or fails to provide adequate notice (or payment in lieu of notice).

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    Constructive Dismissal

    When an employer makes significant changes to an employee's employment contract, creating an intolerable work environment and forcing the employee to resign. Essentially, wrongful dismissal by manipulation.

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    Mitigation

    An obligation on the employee who claims wrongful dismissal to take reasonable steps to find similar employment to minimize their damages.

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    Punitive Damages

    Additional financial compensation awarded to punish the employer for their bad faith or malicious actions in wrongfully dismissing an employee.

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    Reinstatement

    A remedy in wrongful dismissal cases where the court orders the employer to reinstate the employee back to their job.

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    Workers Compensation (WSIB)

    A government-funded system that provides financial benefits to employees who suffer work-related injuries or illnesses.

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    Bailment

    Temporary possession of personal property belonging to someone else, with the obligation to return the property in good condition. Think of it as a temporary loan or entrustment.

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    Secured Transaction

    A loan or credit arrangement where the lender obtains a security interest in the borrower's property (collateral) to protect themselves in case of default. This gives them the right to seize the collateral.

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    Secured Creditor

    A lender who holds a security interest in the borrower's property. If the borrower defaults, the secured creditor has priority over other creditors in claiming the collateral.

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    Conditional Sales Contract

    A contract for the sale of goods where the buyer takes possession but ownership remains with the seller until full payment. The seller retains the right to repossess the goods if the buyer defaults.

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    Study Notes

    Discharge of Contracts

    • Discharge of contracts refers to the termination of contractual obligations, ending parties' responsibilities.
    • Contracts can be discharged by: performance, agreement, frustration, and operation of law.
    • Breach of contract leads to damages, not discharge at the court's discretion.

    Discharge by Performance

    • Satisfactory completion of all obligations by both parties discharges the contract.
    • Unsatisfactory performance does not discharge the contract.
    • Contracts can "survive completion," meaning they remain enforceable after the main obligations are fulfilled.
    • Indemnification provisions protect parties against losses after the contract's conclusion (e.g., defective work discovered later).
    • Limitation of liability clauses limit potential damages (e.g., capping liability for software bugs).
    • Survival clauses ensure that specific contract terms (e.g., confidentiality, liability) remain enforceable after the contract ends.

    Discharge by Agreement

    • Both parties mutually agree to end the contract.
    • Waiver of the contract occurs when parties agree not to proceed with performance of an existing contract, but only when neither has fully performed.
    • Substituted agreement replaces the original contract with a new one (e.g., out-of-court settlement).
      • Features include mutual consent, updated terms, and legal effect.
      • Types include material change in terms, novation (party replacement), and settlement (accord and satisfaction).
    • Contract provision for dissolution:
      • Condition precedent: Neither party performs unless a future event occurs.
      • Condition subsequent: An event that ends a promisor's obligations.
      • Option to terminate: Allows termination with notice.

    Discharge by Frustration

    • Frustration excuses performance if an unforeseen external event makes performance radically different from initial expectations.
    • Frustration discharges the contract at the time of the event.
    • Frustrated Contracts Act governs consequences (e.g., recovering or retaining amounts paid).

    Discharge by Operation of Law

    • Bankruptcy and Insolvency Act stops collection actions and ensures fair creditor distribution when a party cannot repay debts.
    • Limitations Act sets time limits for enforcing contractual rights; exceeding the period bars legal remedies.

    Breach of Contract

    • Breach occurs when one party fails to comply with contractual terms.
    • Exemption clauses may limit liability but are not always enforceable.
    • Defences to breach include inadequate notice, contra proferentem, misrepresentation, and non est factum.
    • Conditions vs. warranties: Conditions are essential terms; breaches allow termination and damages; Warranties are non-essential, breach leads to damages but not contract termination.
    • Use of time is of the essence clauses makes timely performance a crucial term, allowing termination for delays.

    Effect of Breach

    • Minor breach: Non-essential term breach; contract still exists.
    • Major breach: Essential term breach; non-breaching party may terminate contract.
    • Methods of breach include express repudiation, rendering performance impossible, and failure to perform.
    • Doctrine of Substantial Performance allows for partial performance (without material breach) where a contract is still considered legally binding.

    Remedies

    • Damages: Monetary compensation; aim to put the injured party in the position they would have been in if the contract was performed. Includes:
      • Expectation damages: Expected profits.
      • Consequential losses: Foreseeable damages.
      • Liquidated damages: Pre-agreed damages.
      • Nominal damages: Negligible loss.
      • Reliance damages: Damages for wasted effort.
    • Equitable remedies are awarded when monetary compensation is insufficient:
      • Specific performance: Court order to perform specific act (rare).
      • Injunction: Court order to stop an action (rare).
    • Quantum meruit: Compensation for services in the absence of contract.
    • Mitigation: Injured party must reasonably minimize losses after a breach.
    • Causation: Damages must be directly caused by the breach.

    Enforcing a Judgment

    • Judgement creditors can legally take action to enforce payment owed via court orders.

    Agency & Franchising

    • Agent: Acts on behalf of a principal to create contracts with a third party.
    • Agency Agreement: Defines agent's authority to act for the principal.
    • Creating an agency relationship: Implied (principal allows), ratification (agent acts, principal confirms), apparent authority (principal creates a belief in third party).
    • Duties of Principal to Agent: Remuneration (payment), expenses
    • Duties of Agent to Principal: Compliance, care, good faith.
    • Liability of Principal/Agent to Third Parties.
    • Undisclosed principal: Agent acts without revealing principal.
    • Liability in torts – jointly & severally.
    • Breach of warranty of authority occurs when an agent falsely claims authority.
    • Terminating an agency relationship: Expiration of agreement, completion of task, notice, death, bankruptcy, impossibility of performance.

    Franchise Law

    • Franchise agreements are contractual relationships with duties of good faith.
    • Franchisor/franchisee: Franchisor grants rights to a franchisee.
    • Arthur Wishart Act: Governs franchise agreements; includes disclosure, fair dealing, and association rights.

    Employment Law

    • Employee vs. independent contractor: The level of control and risk are key factors.
    • Employer torts: Vicarious liability (actions by employee within scope), negligent hiring, wrongful referral.
      • Vicarious liability occurs when an employee commits a tort, and the employer is held liable.
      • Negligent hiring is when an employer fails to adequately screen.
      • Wrongful referral occurs when an employer unjustly refers.
    • Employee Duties: Obedience, skill, good faith.
    • Employer Duties: Wages, payment methods, deductions.
    • Employee termination: Length of notice required varies, dismissal for cause possible, for specific reasons (misconduct, incompetence).
    • Wrongful dismissal occurs when employers fail to uphold fair dismissal procedures or give proper notice.
    • Constructive dismissal is when employer alters conditions to force resignation.
    • Mitigation: Employee must try to minimize loss after dismissal; must seek comparable employment.

    Secured Transactions

    • Bailment: Possession of goods without ownership transfer.
    • Secured transaction: A loan where the lender has priority over the borrower's asset in case of default.
    • Personal property vs. real property.
    • Creating a security interest: Agreement between parties, attachment (property subject to interest), and perfection (interests protected).
    • Ways to perfect a security interest: Physical possession, registration under PPSA.
    • Priority of competing interests: First to perfect a security interest usually has priority; including the priority granted by PMSI.
    • Effect on third parties: Registration under PPSA gives notice to potential purchasers.

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    Description

    This quiz explores the discharge of contracts, focusing on how contractual obligations can be terminated. Learn about performance, agreement, frustration, and the legal implications of breaches. The quiz also delves into specific clauses that affect contract enforcement post-termination.

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