Discharge of Contracts Overview

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson
Download our mobile app to listen on the go
Get App

Questions and Answers

What is one way a contract can be discharged?

  • Incapacity of one party
  • Revocation by third party
  • Frustration (correct)
  • Change in market value

What happens if the performance of a contract is not satisfactory?

  • The contract is automatically discharged
  • The contract remains enforceable (correct)
  • The contract can be renegotiated
  • Damages are awarded without further action

What does a limitation of liability clause generally do?

  • Allows for indefinite liability period
  • Caps liability to a certain amount (correct)
  • Holds both parties liable for all damages
  • Excludes all forms of liability

Which clause ensures that one party compensates the other for post-contract losses?

<p>Indemnification Provision (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a survival clause in a contract?

<p>It specifies which terms remain enforceable after the contract ends (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a survival clause in a contract?

<p>It specifies confidentiality and liability provisions continue for a period. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a waiver of contract to occur?

<p>Neither party has fully performed and both must agree. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines a substituted agreement?

<p>A new contract that replaces an old one and discharges it. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the Doctrine of Substantial Performance?

<p>It requires the non-breaching party to perform their obligations despite minor non-compliance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a condition precedent in a contract?

<p>An event that must happen before performance can begin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of damages compensates for lost profits and opportunity costs due to a breach of contract?

<p>Expectation Damages (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under which scenario is a contract discharged due to frustration?

<p>An unforeseen event drastically changes the terms of performance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition can equitable remedies be awarded?

<p>When money damages cannot adequately resolve the loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Frustrated Contracts Act address?

<p>Consequences when a contract is rendered frustrated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of damages in breach of contract cases?

<p>To compensate the injured party to restore them to their pre-breach position. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a feature of an exemption clause?

<p>It exempts a party from liability for non-performance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of liquidated damages?

<p>They are an agreed-upon amount specified in the contract in case of a breach. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which concept requires an injured party to minimize their losses after a breach of contract?

<p>Mitigation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates a condition from a warranty in a contract?

<p>Conditions relate to essential terms, warranties are non-essential. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation can an express repudiation occur?

<p>One party refuses to perform before performance is due. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary distinction between economic loss and cost of performance?

<p>Economic loss measures the difference under the contract and the position after the breach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of equitable remedy?

<p>Expectation Damages (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What typically happens after a major breach of contract?

<p>The non-breaching party may opt for discharge from the contract. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'self-induced frustration' imply in contract law?

<p>A party's own actions cause a refusal to perform. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of breach of contract, what are consequential losses?

<p>Other reasonably foreseeable damages that arise from the breach. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary feature of reliance damages?

<p>They cover the expenses incurred due to reliance on the contract. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Limitations Act in contract law?

<p>It sets time limits within which parties can enforce their contractual rights. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What outcome results from a breach of warranty in a contract?

<p>The non-breaching party can sue for damages but the contract remains in force. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a chattel mortgage primarily concerned with?

<p>Securing debts against personal property (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in the PPSA process?

<p>Creation of a security interest (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does a creditor's security interest become protected under PPSA?

<p>Upon registration completion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant feature of the Purchase Money Security Interest (PMSI)?

<p>It provides special priority for assets financed through a loan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a floating charge differ from a traditional mortgage?

<p>It is a charge on all assets of a corporation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What often happens with after-acquired property in the context of a chattel mortgage?

<p>The creditor holds a suspended priority over other creditors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the attachment of a security interest signify in the PPSA process?

<p>The debtor's property is now subject to the security interest (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of registering a security interest?

<p>It protects the interest against innocent third parties (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'perfection' in the context of security interests refer to?

<p>The process of making a security interest enforceable (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one key reason why good faith purchasers of small value goods might be exempt in certain provinces?

<p>The goods are considered not significant enough (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary responsibility of a judgment creditor?

<p>To enforce the judgment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must occur before a sheriff can levy execution on a debtor's assets?

<p>An execution order must be made to the sheriff (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a garnishee order?

<p>An order to retain part of a debtor's wages (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes an agent's duty of care to the principal?

<p>To fulfill contractual obligations personally (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for an agency relationship to be created through implied authority?

<p>The principal must allow the agent to act without a formal agreement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding ratification in agency law?

<p>The principal can ratify an unauthorized act if lawful (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must a principal do to be held liable for an agent's actions?

<p>Ensure the agent is operating under real or apparent authority (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What generally happens if an agent does not disclose their agency status?

<p>The agent may be held personally liable (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When can both the agent and the principal be held liable?

<p>When the agent fails to disclose their agent status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a requirement for an agency agreement to be enforceable under the statute of frauds?

<p>It must be written if it lasts more than one year (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What typically characterizes the duty of good faith in an agency relationship?

<p>To prioritize the principal's best interests over their own (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition can an undisclosed principal enforce a contract against a third party?

<p>When the contract was made with real authority (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is liable for torts committed within the agent's real authority?

<p>Both the principal and agent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an employer required to provide when terminating an employee without cause?

<p>Reasonable notice period (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances is dismissal for cause permissible?

<p>Significant breaches affecting contract or conduct (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT considered when determining a reasonable notice period?

<p>Employee's age at the time of dismissal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential consequence for an employer if they fail to follow proper dismissal procedures?

<p>The employer could face wrongful dismissal claims (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is 'constructive dismissal'?

<p>It occurs when an employee resigns after contract changes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is required when dismissing an employee for cause?

<p>Providing opportunities for improvement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of damages can be claimed in a wrongful dismissal case?

<p>Comparison of notice period and actual income (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a plaintiff need to do in terms of mitigation following a wrongful dismissal?

<p>Act reasonably to reduce their losses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the duty of care for a bailee in a bailment situation?

<p>Bailee must take care of the bailor’s goods (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a secured transaction example?

<p>Borrowing money secured by a personal asset (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes a secured creditor from a general creditor?

<p>Secured creditors have a claim on specific collateral (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action can a third party take against an agent who commits fraudulent misrepresentation?

<p>Sue the agent and principal for tort of fraudulent misrepresentation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important factor in determining a reasonable notice period for an employee?

<p>Duration of employment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs if an agent exceeds their authority innocently?

<p>No contract is formed with the third party (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When can punitive damages be awarded in a wrongful dismissal case?

<p>If the employer acted in bad faith or malice (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which situation terminates an agency relationship?

<p>Death of the principal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following constitutes a breach of warranty of authority?

<p>An agent represents they have authority when they do not (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of the relationship between a franchisor and franchisee?

<p>It has a duty of good faith (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is vicarious liability in the context of employment law?

<p>Employer's liability for employees' actions within the scope of employment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition must be met for negligent hiring claims against an employer?

<p>Employer failed to perform adequate background checks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does breach of the duty of good faith and fidelity involve?

<p>An employee competing with their employer during employment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must an employer do regarding wage payment during employment?

<p>Pay all outstanding wages upon termination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of employment, what is the duty to obey?

<p>Employees must follow legal and lawful instructions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result when a third party sues an agent for breach of warranty of authority?

<p>The third party may recover damages as if a contract was formed (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action must a franchisor take according to the Arthur Wishart Act?

<p>Provide full disclosure to franchisees (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes wrongful referral?

<p>Making misleading claims about a professional's qualifications (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Discharge of Contract

The termination of a contract's obligations, releasing parties from responsibilities.

Discharge by Performance

Both parties fulfill their contractual obligations satisfactorily.

Indemnification Provision

A clause ensuring one party compensates another for losses after contract completion.

Limitation of Liability Clause

A clause setting a limit on the liability of contracting parties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Survival Clause

Specifies which contract terms remain valid after completion; essential for ongoing interests.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Failure to Perform

Occurs when a party doesn't fulfill contractual obligations when they're due. Can be total, partial, or grossly inadequate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Doctrine of Substantial Performance

When a party's performance is slightly defective but still fulfills the contract's essence. The non-breaching party can't avoid their obligations, but can sue for damages.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Damages (Breach of Contract)

Monetary compensation for the injured party due to the other party's breach. Aims to put the injured party back in the position they would have been in if the contract was fulfilled.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Expectation Damages

Compensation for lost profits expected from the contract + the cost of finding a new agreement due to the breach.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Consequential Losses

Foreseeable damages that occur as a direct result of the breach, like having to close down operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

General Damages

Damages that are difficult to quantify, like loss of reputation or emotional distress.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reliance Damages

Compensation for wasted effort and expenses incurred in reliance on the contract.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Liquidated Damages

An amount agreed upon in advance by both parties that will be paid as damages in case of breach.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nominal Damages

A small token award when a breach occurred, but no actual financial loss was suffered. It's a symbolic recognition of wrongdoing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Equitable Remedies

Solutions granted when monetary compensation isn't enough to fix the problem. They're used when money can't adequately address the situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Discharge by Agreement

Both parties mutually agree to not proceed with the contract.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Waiver of Contract

An agreement not to proceed with a contract that already exists; only possible when neither party has fully performed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Substitute Agreement

Replacing an old contract with a new one, typically with better terms for one party.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Condition Precedent

A future event that must occur before a party's obligations start.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Condition Subsequent

An uncertain future event that ends a party's obligations if it happens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Discharge by Frustration

A party is excused from performing due to an unforeseen external event that makes the contract radically different.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Requirements of Frustration

The unforeseen event must be outside the parties' control, arising after the agreement, and making performance impossible or impractical.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Frustrated Contracts Act

Provides a framework for fairness when a contract becomes frustrated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Discharge by Operation of Law

Legal processes that end contractual obligations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bankruptcy/Insolvency

Legal status where a person or business cannot repay debts.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Limitations Act

Legal time limits for enforcing contractual rights.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Breach of Contract

One party fails to comply with the terms of the agreement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Condition

Essential terms of a contract, breach allows termination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Warranty

Non-essential terms, breach allows damages but contract continues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Time is of the essence

Meeting deadlines is a major term of the agreement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Judgment Creditor

The party awarded money or a remedy by a court order.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Judgment Debtor

The party obligated to pay damages or fulfill the court order.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Register Judgment

Filing a court order with the court to make it official and enforceable.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Writ

A legal document instructing someone to perform or stop an action.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Levy Execution

The sheriff seizing and selling assets to satisfy a judgment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Garnishment Order

An order requiring an employer to withhold a portion of an employee's wages to pay a debt.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Examination

A court proceeding where a debtor discloses financial details.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Agency Agreement

A contract between a principal and an agent outlining the agent's duties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ratification

A principal's approval of an agent's unauthorized act.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Apparent Authority

When a third party believes an agent has authority due to the principal's actions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Duty to Comply with Agency Agreement

The agent's obligation to follow the terms of the agreement with the principal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Duty of Care

The agent's obligation to act with the care of a reasonable agent.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Duty of Good Faith

The agent's obligation to act in the best interests of the principal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Undisclosed Principal

A principal whose identity is not revealed to a third party.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Joint and Several Liability

Both principal and agent can be held responsible for an agent's tort.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chattel Mortgage

A mortgage on personal property, like equipment or inventory, where the creditor has a security interest in the asset but not ownership.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Floating Charge

A form of mortgage that covers all of a company's assets, not just specific ones, allowing the assets to change over time.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPSA

A provincial law that regulates the creation, perfection, and registration of security interests in personal property.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Creation of Security Interest

The agreement between a creditor and debtor that establishes a security interest in an asset.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Attachment of Security Interest

The point when a debtor's property becomes subject to a security interest.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Perfection of Security Interest

The process of making a creditor's security interest protected against other creditors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Purchase Money Security Interest (PMSI)

A type of security interest that has special priority over other security interests when the loan is specifically used to buy the asset.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Separation of Possession and Ownership

When the debtor has possession of the asset but the creditor has the ownership interest.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Good Faith Purchasers

Buyers who purchase goods without knowing about existing security interests, often protected in certain cases.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Registration under PPSA

The process of recording a security interest with the provincial government to protect the creditor's rights.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fraudulent Misrepresentation

When an agent intentionally deceives a third party, causing them to enter into a contract. This makes the contract voidable and allows the third party to sue both the agent and the principal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Negligent Misrepresentation

When an agent makes a false statement about their authority without intending to deceive, but they should have known the truth. This can make the agent liable to the third party.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Breach of Warranty of Authority

When an agent falsely claims to have the authority to act on behalf of the principal, resulting in no contract being formed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Terminating an Agency Relationship

Ending the legal connection between an agent and principal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Franchise Agreement

A contract between a franchisor (brand owner) and a franchisee (business operator) that outlines the franchise relationship and operating rules.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Franchisor

The company that owns the brand and provides the franchise system (e.g., McDonald's).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Franchisee

The individual or company who operates the franchise under the franchisor's guidelines (e.g., the McDonald's restaurant owner).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arthur Wishart Act

Canadian law that governs franchise relationships, focusing on disclosure, fair dealing, and the right to associate for franchisees.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vicarious Liability

An employer is held legally responsible for the actions of their employee if those actions were done within the scope of employment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Negligent Hiring

When an employer fails to adequately screen employees, causing harm to someone due to the employee's actions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wrongful Referral

When a person provides misleading information about someone's qualifications, leading another party to hire them and suffer negative consequences.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vicarious Performance

When a third party fulfills the obligations of a contract on behalf of the original promisor, but the promisor still remains liable for the performance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Duty to Obey (employee)

Employees are required to follow reasonable and lawful instructions from their employer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Duty of Good Faith and Fidelity (employee)

Employees must act in the best interests of their employer, being honest and loyal during their employment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reasonable Notice Period

The amount of time an employer must give an employee before terminating their employment without cause. It is based on factors like the employee's length of service, position, and industry standards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Payment in Lieu of Notice

When an employer terminates an employee without providing the required notice period, they can pay the employee a lump sum instead, covering the wages they would have earned during the notice period.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dismissal for Cause

Terminating an employee without notice due to serious misconduct, incompetence, or insubordination, effectively ending the employment contract.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Misconduct

Behavior that violates an employee's employment contract or company policies, such as stealing, harassment, or intoxication at work.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Insubordination

Refusal to obey reasonable and lawful instructions from a supervisor, even if the employee disagrees with the instruction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incompetence

An employee's inability to perform their job duties due to lack of skills or knowledge, even after training and support.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wrongful Dismissal

When an employer terminates an employee without proper cause or fails to provide adequate notice (or payment in lieu of notice).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Constructive Dismissal

When an employer makes significant changes to an employee's employment contract, creating an intolerable work environment and forcing the employee to resign. Essentially, wrongful dismissal by manipulation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mitigation

An obligation on the employee who claims wrongful dismissal to take reasonable steps to find similar employment to minimize their damages.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Punitive Damages

Additional financial compensation awarded to punish the employer for their bad faith or malicious actions in wrongfully dismissing an employee.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reinstatement

A remedy in wrongful dismissal cases where the court orders the employer to reinstate the employee back to their job.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Workers Compensation (WSIB)

A government-funded system that provides financial benefits to employees who suffer work-related injuries or illnesses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bailment

Temporary possession of personal property belonging to someone else, with the obligation to return the property in good condition. Think of it as a temporary loan or entrustment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secured Transaction

A loan or credit arrangement where the lender obtains a security interest in the borrower's property (collateral) to protect themselves in case of default. This gives them the right to seize the collateral.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secured Creditor

A lender who holds a security interest in the borrower's property. If the borrower defaults, the secured creditor has priority over other creditors in claiming the collateral.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Conditional Sales Contract

A contract for the sale of goods where the buyer takes possession but ownership remains with the seller until full payment. The seller retains the right to repossess the goods if the buyer defaults.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Discharge of Contracts

  • Discharge of contracts refers to the termination of contractual obligations, ending parties' responsibilities.
  • Contracts can be discharged by: performance, agreement, frustration, and operation of law.
  • Breach of contract leads to damages, not discharge at the court's discretion.

Discharge by Performance

  • Satisfactory completion of all obligations by both parties discharges the contract.
  • Unsatisfactory performance does not discharge the contract.
  • Contracts can "survive completion," meaning they remain enforceable after the main obligations are fulfilled.
  • Indemnification provisions protect parties against losses after the contract's conclusion (e.g., defective work discovered later).
  • Limitation of liability clauses limit potential damages (e.g., capping liability for software bugs).
  • Survival clauses ensure that specific contract terms (e.g., confidentiality, liability) remain enforceable after the contract ends.

Discharge by Agreement

  • Both parties mutually agree to end the contract.
  • Waiver of the contract occurs when parties agree not to proceed with performance of an existing contract, but only when neither has fully performed.
  • Substituted agreement replaces the original contract with a new one (e.g., out-of-court settlement).
    • Features include mutual consent, updated terms, and legal effect.
    • Types include material change in terms, novation (party replacement), and settlement (accord and satisfaction).
  • Contract provision for dissolution:
    • Condition precedent: Neither party performs unless a future event occurs.
    • Condition subsequent: An event that ends a promisor's obligations.
    • Option to terminate: Allows termination with notice.

Discharge by Frustration

  • Frustration excuses performance if an unforeseen external event makes performance radically different from initial expectations.
  • Frustration discharges the contract at the time of the event.
  • Frustrated Contracts Act governs consequences (e.g., recovering or retaining amounts paid).

Discharge by Operation of Law

  • Bankruptcy and Insolvency Act stops collection actions and ensures fair creditor distribution when a party cannot repay debts.
  • Limitations Act sets time limits for enforcing contractual rights; exceeding the period bars legal remedies.

Breach of Contract

  • Breach occurs when one party fails to comply with contractual terms.
  • Exemption clauses may limit liability but are not always enforceable.
  • Defences to breach include inadequate notice, contra proferentem, misrepresentation, and non est factum.
  • Conditions vs. warranties: Conditions are essential terms; breaches allow termination and damages; Warranties are non-essential, breach leads to damages but not contract termination.
  • Use of time is of the essence clauses makes timely performance a crucial term, allowing termination for delays.

Effect of Breach

  • Minor breach: Non-essential term breach; contract still exists.
  • Major breach: Essential term breach; non-breaching party may terminate contract.
  • Methods of breach include express repudiation, rendering performance impossible, and failure to perform.
  • Doctrine of Substantial Performance allows for partial performance (without material breach) where a contract is still considered legally binding.

Remedies

  • Damages: Monetary compensation; aim to put the injured party in the position they would have been in if the contract was performed. Includes:
    • Expectation damages: Expected profits.
    • Consequential losses: Foreseeable damages.
    • Liquidated damages: Pre-agreed damages.
    • Nominal damages: Negligible loss.
    • Reliance damages: Damages for wasted effort.
  • Equitable remedies are awarded when monetary compensation is insufficient:
    • Specific performance: Court order to perform specific act (rare).
    • Injunction: Court order to stop an action (rare).
  • Quantum meruit: Compensation for services in the absence of contract.
  • Mitigation: Injured party must reasonably minimize losses after a breach.
  • Causation: Damages must be directly caused by the breach.

Enforcing a Judgment

  • Judgement creditors can legally take action to enforce payment owed via court orders.

Agency & Franchising

  • Agent: Acts on behalf of a principal to create contracts with a third party.
  • Agency Agreement: Defines agent's authority to act for the principal.
  • Creating an agency relationship: Implied (principal allows), ratification (agent acts, principal confirms), apparent authority (principal creates a belief in third party).
  • Duties of Principal to Agent: Remuneration (payment), expenses
  • Duties of Agent to Principal: Compliance, care, good faith.
  • Liability of Principal/Agent to Third Parties.
  • Undisclosed principal: Agent acts without revealing principal.
  • Liability in torts – jointly & severally.
  • Breach of warranty of authority occurs when an agent falsely claims authority.
  • Terminating an agency relationship: Expiration of agreement, completion of task, notice, death, bankruptcy, impossibility of performance.

Franchise Law

  • Franchise agreements are contractual relationships with duties of good faith.
  • Franchisor/franchisee: Franchisor grants rights to a franchisee.
  • Arthur Wishart Act: Governs franchise agreements; includes disclosure, fair dealing, and association rights.

Employment Law

  • Employee vs. independent contractor: The level of control and risk are key factors.
  • Employer torts: Vicarious liability (actions by employee within scope), negligent hiring, wrongful referral.
    • Vicarious liability occurs when an employee commits a tort, and the employer is held liable.
    • Negligent hiring is when an employer fails to adequately screen.
    • Wrongful referral occurs when an employer unjustly refers.
  • Employee Duties: Obedience, skill, good faith.
  • Employer Duties: Wages, payment methods, deductions.
  • Employee termination: Length of notice required varies, dismissal for cause possible, for specific reasons (misconduct, incompetence).
  • Wrongful dismissal occurs when employers fail to uphold fair dismissal procedures or give proper notice.
  • Constructive dismissal is when employer alters conditions to force resignation.
  • Mitigation: Employee must try to minimize loss after dismissal; must seek comparable employment.

Secured Transactions

  • Bailment: Possession of goods without ownership transfer.
  • Secured transaction: A loan where the lender has priority over the borrower's asset in case of default.
  • Personal property vs. real property.
  • Creating a security interest: Agreement between parties, attachment (property subject to interest), and perfection (interests protected).
  • Ways to perfect a security interest: Physical possession, registration under PPSA.
  • Priority of competing interests: First to perfect a security interest usually has priority; including the priority granted by PMSI.
  • Effect on third parties: Registration under PPSA gives notice to potential purchasers.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

More Like This

Discharge of British Contracts Quiz
12 questions
Contract Law: Discharge via Breach
20 questions
Contract Law: Discharge of Contract
10 questions
Business Law Chapter 18 Flashcards
20 questions
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser