Non-GI Helminths of Dogs and Cats
220 Questions
2 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the common name for Dirofilaria immitis?

  • Tapeworm
  • Roundworm
  • Hookworm
  • Heartworm (correct)

    • Which of the following hosts are classified as definitive hosts for Dirofilaria immitis?

  • Cats (correct)
  • Mosquitoes
  • Rabbits
  • Birds

    • What is the primary pathology caused by adult Dirofilaria immitis worms?

  • Pulmonary hypertension (correct)
  • Nephritis
  • Dermatitis
  • Intestinal obstruction

    • What is a key step in the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis after the mosquito ingests microfilariae?

    <p>Development into infective L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is used to identify microfilariae in blood?

    <p>Direct smear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the morphology of adult Dirofilaria immitis females?

    <p>Up to 30 cm long</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Radiation therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Dirofilaria immitis from Dipetalonema microfilaria in a modified Knott's test?

    <p>Size and shape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern when Dirofilaria immitis infects humans?

    <p>It typically causes pulmonary dirofilariasis, which may show lung nodules.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts is considered a definitive host for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Dog</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do mosquitoes play in the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>They act as intermediate hosts where larvae develop.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the size of adult females of Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>6-7 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the intermediate hosts for Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Fleas and lice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definitive host for Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Dogs and cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes the pathology in Dracunculus insignis infections?

    <p>Migration of the female worm to the skin and blister formation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do L3 larvae of Dracunculus insignis enter the definitive host?

    <p>By ingesting copepods in contaminated water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common method for diagnosing Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Modified Knott's test.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Dipetalonema reconditum if needed?

    <p>Ivermectin administration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key factor in preventing Dirofilaria immitis infections in pets?

    <p>Preventing mosquito bites.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>It is generally non-pathogenic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of bacteria is Wolbachia pipientis?

    <p>Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for diagnosing Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Identification of characteristic blisters and visible worm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Careful extraction of the worm is necessary to prevent inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs are associated with Filaroides osleri infection?

    <p>Chronic coughing, dyspnea, and stridor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a definitive host for Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the life cycle of Filaroides osleri progress after the larvae are ingested?

    <p>They migrate to the lungs to mature into adults.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the pathology associated with Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Tracheitis and bronchitis leading to respiratory distress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What preventive measure is recommended to control Filaroides osleri transmission?

    <p>Isolation of infected animals in kennel settings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic features identify Capillaria aerophila eggs?

    <p>Single-celled with bipolar plugs and textured surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anthelmintic is commonly used for the treatment of Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Albendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long is the prepatent period for Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>40 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following groups is at risk for Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Dogs and wild mammals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What confers a public health concern regarding Dracunculus species?

    <p>Related species that cause Guinea worm disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Chronic cough and nasal discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical adult morphology of Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Slender and small, with males around 6 mm and females up to 13 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common name for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Feline lungworm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Anthelmintics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hosts are involved in the life cycle of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Snails and slugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential pathology associated with Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Granuloma formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is used to recover larvae from feces for diagnosing Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Baermann technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended prevention measure for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus in cats?

    <p>Preventing access to snails and slugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary definitive host for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is commonly associated with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Chronic cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common name for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>North American lung fluke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred diagnostic technique for identifying characteristic eggs of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Sputum sedimentation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible clinical outcome of heavy infections of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Respiratory failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the intermediate hosts for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Snails and crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the life cycle form of Capillaria aerophila that is typically passed in feces?

    <p>Eggs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long is the prepatent period for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Surgical removal of the affected kidney</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended prevention measure for Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Consuming only cooked fish and avoiding raw fish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the life cycle of Thelazia californiensis initiated by?

    <p>Larvae being ingested by infected flies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of inflammation is typically caused by Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Conjunctivitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the adult morphology of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Small and thin, up to 15 mm long</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hosts are considered definitive hosts for Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Various animals including dogs, cats, and humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical clinical sign of Thelazia californiensis infection?

    <p>Excessive tearing and squinting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is a Thelazia californiensis infection diagnosed?

    <p>Direct observation of worms in the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which preventative measure is effective against Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Controlling fly populations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential public health concern associated with Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>It can lead to ocular symptoms in humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary drug used for the treatment of Paragonimus kellicotti infections?

    <p>Fenbendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common mode of transmission for Paragonimus kellicotti to humans?

    <p>Ingesting undercooked or raw crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of animal serves as the definitive host for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Cats and dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign of Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Cycstitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic method for identifying Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Urine sediment analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the adult morphology of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Large, red-colored, up to 1 meter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts are intermediate hosts for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant pathology can result from a Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Destruction of kidney parenchyma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of paratenic hosts in the life cycle of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>They help in the transmission to the definitive hosts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is NOT typically used to diagnose Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Blood culture tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following interventions can help prevent Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Controlling pets' exposure to earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential symptom of Dioctophyme renale infection if both kidneys are affected?

    <p>Renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prepatent period for Pearsonema plica, from infection to egg shedding?

    <p>60 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common name for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Lung fluke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is most often associated with severe Dirofilaria immitis infection?

    <p>Chronic progressive cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism contributes to the pathology of Dirofilaria immitis infection?

    <p>Obstruction of pulmonary arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which species of mosquito is NOT considered an intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Mansonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the modified Knott's test, what distinguishes Dirofilaria immitis from other microfilariae?

    <p>Dirofilaria has a straight and tapered shape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of preventive drugs like ivermectin in relation to Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>To prevent the initial infection by killing L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is most closely associated with the risk of developing vena cava syndrome in Dirofilaria immitis infections?

    <p>The number of adult worms present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary outcome of chronic pulmonary hypertension due to Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Right heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant physiological alteration caused by Dirofilaria immitis in infected hosts?

    <p>Fibrosis of lung tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of breaking the worm during the extraction process of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Serious inflammation and exacerbation of symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is primarily used for Filaroides osleri infections?

    <p>Direct fecal smears</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of larvae is passed out of the host by Filaroides osleri after they hatch from eggs?

    <p>First-stage larvae (L1)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Capillaria aerophila infections?

    <p>Anthelmintics such as albendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor significantly contributes to the life cycle transmission of Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Environmental exposure to earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is least likely to be associated with Filaroides osleri infections?

    <p>Bloating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic morphology can be observed in adult Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Slender, whip-like appearance about 2-3 cm long</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main risk factor for Dracunculus insignis infection in animals?

    <p>Contact with contaminated water sources</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a public health concern related to Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Direct infection of humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the life cycle of Filaroides osleri initiate after the larvae are ingested?

    <p>They enter the bloodstream and travel to the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment approach if severe pathology is experienced in a Filaroides osleri infection?

    <p>Surgical excision of obstructive nodules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic indicates a significant inflammation in Dracunculus insignis infections?

    <p>Presence of visible blisters on the skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key component of the prevention strategy against Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Routine deworming and controlling water sources</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What morphology differences can be observed between male and female Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Females reach up to 13 mm while males are about 6 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment strategy for Capillaria aerophila infections in animals?

    <p>Broad-spectrum anthelmintics such as fenbendazole or ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which host is NOT classified as a paratenic host for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Snails</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of severe infections with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Respiratory failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the adult morphology of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Flat and oval, around 1 cm in length</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the life cycle of Paragonimus kellicotti commence following the release of its eggs?

    <p>Miracidia hatch and infect snails as the first intermediate host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary public health concern regarding Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Minimal zoonotic risk with rare human infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is effective for eliminating adult flukes of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Fenbendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic technique is MOST likely to yield positive results for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infections?

    <p>Baermann technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of transmission for human infections of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Consumption of raw or undercooked crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What environmental preventive measure is recommended to control Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infections in cats?

    <p>Limiting access to areas where snails and slugs are present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathology is primarily caused by the presence of Pearsonema plica in the urinary bladder?

    <p>Chronic cystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of Capillaria aerophila, what does environmental contamination with eggs necessitate?

    <p>Enhanced sanitation practices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts acts as an intermediate host for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Earthworm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is least likely to be associated with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of snails in the life cycle of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Intermediate hosts that harbor L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic feature distinguishes the eggs of Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Bipolar and lemon-shaped with a rough shell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anthelmintic is commonly used to treat infections caused by Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect is critical for understanding the pathogenesis of Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Formation of cystic structures surrounded by eosinophilic inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The life cycle of Dioctophyme renale involves which definitive host?

    <p>Dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical symptom is most characteristic of Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Coughing and fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is the correct order of hosts in the complex life cycle of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Snail - Crayfish - Dog/Cat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign associated with severe Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Uremia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of earthworms in the life cycle of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Intermediate hosts developing third-stage larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant pathology associated with Dioctophyme renale infections?

    <p>Destruction of renal parenchyma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of Pearsonema plica is highlighted concerning its opportunistic nature?

    <p>Often it is asymptomatic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recommended prevention measure for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Cooking earthworms thoroughly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic technique is useful in identifying Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Identifying eggs in urine sediment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic that makes Dioctophyme renale a zoonotic parasite?

    <p>It can infect humans through the consumption of undercooked fish.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical site is primarily affected by Thelazia californiensis in definitive hosts?

    <p>Conjunctival sac</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do flies play in the life cycle of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>They serve as vectors for the larvae of the worm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an effective prevention strategy against the zoonotic transmission of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Cooking fish thoroughly before consumption.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected prepatent period for Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>3-6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical signs is NOT associated with a Thelazia californiensis infection?

    <p>Abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common effect of the presence of adult Thelazia californiensis in the eye?

    <p>Mechanical damage to the cornea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical length of the adult Thelazia californiensis worm?

    <p>15 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major public health concern regarding Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>It can produce ocular symptoms in infected humans.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the manual removal of Thelazia californiensis worms typically done with?

    <p>Fine forceps</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of Wolbachia pipientis in relation to Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>It causes an inflammatory response in the mammalian host upon the parasite's death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of zoonotic transmission prevention for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Controlling mosquito populations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical step in the life cycle of Dipetalonema reconditum after larvae are transmitted through a vector's bite?

    <p>The larvae mature into adult worms in the subcutaneous tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do humans typically present symptoms when infected with Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>It is usually asymptomatic but may appear as lung nodules on radiographs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the modified Knott's test in diagnosing Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>It differentiates between microfilariae of different filarial species.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of morphology characterizes adult Dracunculus insignis worms?

    <p>Thread-like, with males being significantly smaller than females.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the life cycle of Dracunculus insignis after ingestion of copepods by a definitive host?

    <p>The larvae penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to subcutaneous tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the public health concerns associated with Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>It is considered non-pathogenic with no significant public health concerns.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do L3 larvae of Dipetalonema reconditum enter their definitive host?

    <p>Through the bite of an infected flea or louse.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis is critical for its pathogenicity in mammals?

    <p>The antigenic stimulation of the host by bacterial antigens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor helps minimize the risk of transmission of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Controlling water sources to prevent copepod habitation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical manifestation associated with Dracunculus insignis infections?

    <p>Formation of blisters and skin lesions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common preventive measure can significantly lower the likelihood of Dirofilaria immitis affecting pets?

    <p>Regular administration of heartworm preventative medications.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best illustrates the difference in pathogenicity between Dirofilaria immitis and Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Dirofilaria immitis can infect humans, while Dipetalonema reconditum cannot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of chronic pulmonary hypertension caused by adult Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Right heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of L3 larvae in the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>They migrate to the heart and lungs of the host.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is not commonly associated with heartworm infection in pets?

    <p>Increased activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does microfilariae circulate in the host's body after Dirofilaria immitis matures into adults?

    <p>They enter the blood circulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main method used to treat adult Dirofilaria immitis in dogs?

    <p>Melarsomine administration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic technique is least likely to identify Dirofilaria immitis infection?

    <p>Urinalysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of chemoprophylaxis in preventing Dirofilaria immitis infections?

    <p>To prevent the development of L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a distinguishing feature of adult female Dirofilaria immitis compared to males?

    <p>They can grow up to 30 cm in length.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an effective preventive measure for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Preventing cats from eating snails and slugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which animal is considered a definitive host for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of pathology is associated with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Cystic structures in the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Paragonimus kellicotti primarily diagnosed?

    <p>Identification of eggs in sputum or feces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common name for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Feline lungworm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of larvae is typically passed in feces for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>L1 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What environmental measure is recommended to reduce Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Environmental sanitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Aelurostrongylus abstrusus's life cycle characterized?

    <p>Indirect life cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of clinical signs may be observed in Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Coughing and malaise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential severe outcome of heavy Paragonimus kellicotti infections?

    <p>Pulmonary hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the length approximate of adult Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>0.7-1.0 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method may aid in diagnosing Aelurostrongylus abstrusus despite low sensitivity?

    <p>Direct fecal smear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical time frame for the L3 larvae of Dirofilaria immitis to develop in a mosquito?

    <p>10-14 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hosts serve as intermediate hosts for Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Fleas and lice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature of pulmonary dirofilariasis in humans?

    <p>It typically presents as lung nodules on radiographs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Ingestion of infected copepods in water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the length of adult males of Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>4-5 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true about the pathology of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>The primary pathology arises from blister formation on the skin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key clinical sign of Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Dermal ulceration caused by blisters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs are typically associated with infections of Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>There are usually no clinical signs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is primarily used to diagnose Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Observation of blisters and the worm's emergence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Wolbachia pipientis in Dirofilaria immitis infections?

    <p>It contributes to the pathology and inflammation in the host.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>L3 larvae are injected through the saliva of mosquitoes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment approach for Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Slow extraction of the worm using a stick</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is Dracunculus insignis considered to have public health implications?

    <p>It primarily affects domestic pets posing risks to owners.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definitive host for Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long does it take for the L4 larvae of Dirofilaria immitis to mature into L5 after entering the definitive host?

    <p>2-3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is most commonly observed in Filaroides osleri infections?

    <p>Stridor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method differentiates between Dipetalonema reconditum and Dirofilaria immitis microfilariae?

    <p>Modified Knott's test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is associated with the pathology of Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Nodules obstructing airways</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Capillaria aerophila diagnosed?

    <p>Identifying eggs in feces via a floatation test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of controlling flea and louse infestations in pets?

    <p>To prevent the transmission of zoonotic parasites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical route of transmission for L3 larvae of Dracunculus insignis to reach the skin of the definitive host?

    <p>Through ingestion of water containing copepods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical feature of adult Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Whip-like appearance and small size</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathology associated with Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Tracheitis and bronchitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the life cycle of Filaroides osleri is correct?

    <p>The larvae are immediately infective upon ingestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common symptom may indicate a Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Chronic cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical life cycle of Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Direct, with larvae migrating to the intestines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment option is often recommended for Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Anthelmintics like albendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is public health concerned with Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Related species cause Guinea worm disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can Filaroides osleri transmission be prevented?

    <p>Isolating infected animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment option for Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Praziquantel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical symptoms may indicate infection with Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Chronic cough and chest pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common life cycle intermediate host for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathology is commonly associated with Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Chronic cystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts can act as a paratenic host for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Frogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of Dioctophyme renale adult morphology?

    <p>Large size with red color</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical prepatent period for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>5-6 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is used for Pearsonema plica infections?

    <p>Ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common method for diagnosing an infection with Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Urine sediment examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What preventative measure can help control Petersonema plica infections?

    <p>Controlling earthworm exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk factor for contracting Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Consuming raw or undercooked crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary clinical sign of Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Uremia and fatigue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way humans can acquire an infection from Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Consuming infected crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic feature helps identify Pearsonema plica eggs?

    <p>Bipolar, rough-shelled, lemon-shaped</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for an infection caused by Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Surgical removal of the kidney</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a recommended method for preventing Dioctophyme renale infections?

    <p>Consuming only fully cooked fish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the size of adult Thelazia californiensis nematodes?

    <p>Up to 15 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of flies in the life cycle of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Transmit larvae back to new hosts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is most commonly associated with an infection of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Excessive tearing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Thelazia californiensis typically diagnosed?

    <p>Direct observation of worms in the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of parasites does Thelazia californiensis represent?

    <p>Nematode</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following methods can help prevent Thelazia californiensis infections in animals?

    <p>Controlling fly populations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What public health concern is associated with Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Zoonotic transmission to humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathology is associated with Thelazia californiensis infection?

    <p>Irritation and inflammation of the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Dirofilaria immitis (Heartworm)

    • Commonly known as heartworm, primarily affects dogs, cats, ferrets, and occasionally humans.
    • Adult morphology: females can reach 30 cm, males approximately 15 cm; found in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries.
    • Life cycle involves mosquitoes as intermediate hosts (Aedes, Culex, Anopheles); larvae develop in mosquitoes and migrate to host through a blood meal.
    • Pathology: causes obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic pulmonary hypertension, right heart failure, and vena cava syndrome.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough, exercise intolerance, fatigue, ascites, and potentially death.
    • Diagnosis methods: microfilariae identification in blood, antigen and antibody tests, radiography, echocardiography, and necropsy.
    • Treatment includes adulticidal drugs (melarsomine), microfilaricidal treatments (ivermectin), and supportive care; preventive medication is emphasized.
    • Wolbachia pipientis aids in pathology through inflammation and immune response upon parasite death; susceptible to doxycycline.
    • Rare human infections can result in pulmonary dirofilariasis, highlighting the need for preventative measures in pets.

    Dipetalonema reconditum

    • Often referred to as a non-pathogenic filarial worm of dogs; lacks a specific common name.
    • Adult morphology: small, thread-like worms; males 4-5 cm long, females 6-7 cm long, residing in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive host is the dog; intermediate hosts include fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) and lice (Heterodoxus spiniger).
    • Life cycle initiates when fleas/louse ingest microfilariae, develop to infective L3 within 7-10 days, and then transmit to another dog through bites.
    • Generally considered non-pathogenic; presence does not cause significant disease or clinical symptoms.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying microfilariae in blood using a modified Knott's test.

    Dracunculus insignis (North American Guinea Worm)

    • Adult worms can grow up to 28 cm; males smaller, residing within subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive hosts: dogs, cats, raccoons, mink, foxes, skunks; copepods serve as intermediate hosts.
    • The life cycle involves ingestion of infected copepods, leading to larval penetration through the intestinal wall and maturation beneath the skin.
    • Pathology arises from skin blister formation, causing inflammation and pain when the female worm emerges.
    • Clinical signs include dermal ulceration due to blister formation.
    • Diagnosis based on blister appearance and microscopic examination of blister fluid.
    • Treatment consists of careful worm extraction over several days; prevention includes avoiding contaminated water.

    Filaroides osleri (Canine Lungworm)

    • Adult worms are slender; males about 6 mm, females up to 13 mm; found in nodules of trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive host is the dog with a direct life cycle; eggs develop into larvae within the host, transmitted through feces, vomit, or secretions.
    • Pathology includes bronchitis and nodule formation obstructing airways, leading to respiratory issues.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough, dyspnea, and signs of emaciation.
    • Diagnosis through larvae detection in feces, sputum, and bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment options involve anthelmintics like albendazole and potentially surgical excision of nodules.

    Capillaria aerophila (Bronchial Capillarid)

    • Adults are 2-3 cm long, found in the trachea and bronchi; slender, whip-like appearance.
    • Definitive hosts: dogs, cats, and wild mammals like foxes.
    • Direct life cycle with eggs released in lungs, coughed up, passed in feces; eggs mature into infective larvae outside the host.
    • Pathology leads to local irritation, chronic inflammation, and respiratory distress from tracheitis and bronchitis.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough, wheezing, and nasal discharge; many infections are asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis through fecal flotation tests for characteristic eggs.
    • Treatment includes broad-spectrum anthelmintics; preventative measures focus on sanitation.

    Aelurostrongylus abstrusus (Feline Lungworm)

    • Adults are 0.7-1.0 cm long, typically found in lung parenchyma of cats.
    • Definitive host is the cat, with snails and slugs as intermediate hosts; paratenic hosts include birds and rodents.
    • Indirect life cycle: eggs hatch into larvae in the lungs, which are then excreted and infect snails/slugs to complete the cycle.
    • Pathology involves subpleural nodules leading to bronchitis, interstitial pneumonia, and potential respiratory failure.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough and dyspnea, with many cases being asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis may require the Baermann technique or bronchoscopy for larvae visualization.
    • Treatment uses anthelmintics; prevention includes avoiding hunting of susceptible hosts.

    Paragonimus kellicotti (North American Lung Fluke)

    • Adults measure around 1 cm, residing in lung cysts; larger than typical flukes.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and humans; intermediate hosts are snails and crayfish.
    • Complex life cycle with egg release leading to larval stages in intermediate hosts; definitive host infection occurs through raw or undercooked crayfish.
    • Pathology includes inflammation and granuloma formation, leading to lung cysts and severe bleeding in heavy infections.
    • Clinical signs remain unspecified but can relate to respiratory complications.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying eggs in feces; control of animal infections is vital due to potential public health implications.### Paragonimus kellicotti
    • Clinical signs include coughing, malaise, fever, and potential pulmonary hemorrhage in severe cases.
    • Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying characteristic eggs in sputum or feces through sedimentation; radiographic imaging may reveal lung cysts.
    • Treatment involves praziquantel or fenbendazole; prevention focuses on avoiding raw or undercooked crayfish and controlling exposure to pets.
    • Paragonimus kellicotti is zoonotic, infecting humans primarily through undercooked crayfish consumption, leading to symptoms like chronic cough and chest pain.

    Pearsonema plica (Bladder Worm)

    • Adults are thin, thread-like worms ranging from 1 to 6 cm, typically found in the urinary bladder's mucosa.
    • Definitive hosts are dogs, cats, and wild mammals; intermediate hosts include earthworms.
    • Life cycle begins with eggs passed in the urine, ingested by earthworms where larvae develop into infectious form; definitive hosts become infected upon consuming the worms.
    • Pathology includes irritation and inflammation of the bladder, possibly leading to chronic cystitis.
    • Clinical signs may be mild but can include cystitis, stranguria, pollakiuria, hematuria, and incontinence.
    • Diagnosis is made by identifying bipolar, lemon-shaped eggs in urine sediment; treatment with ivermectin or fenbendazole is effective.

    Dioctophyme renale (Giant Kidney Worm)

    • Adults can reach up to 1 meter in females and 20-40 cm in males, typically residing in the right kidney.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs and carnivores, while earthworms serve as the intermediate host; fish and amphibians can act as paratenic hosts.
    • The life cycle starts with eggs in urine; larvae develop in earthworms, which are consumed by definitive hosts.
    • Significant pathology results from destruction of renal parenchyma, potentially causing uremia, renal failure, and peritonitis from renal capsule rupture.
    • Clinical signs may be absent if only one kidney is affected; severe infections can lead to uremia, fatigue, and nausea.
    • Diagnosis through urine sediment examination, imaging techniques, and sometimes exploratory surgery; prevention involves avoiding raw fish consumption.

    Thelazia californiensis (Eye Worm)

    • Adults measure up to 15 mm and reside in the conjunctival sac and lacrimal ducts.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, deer, sheep, and humans; flies (Diptera) act as intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle begins with adult females producing larvae in tears; flies ingest the larvae and become vectors for transmission.
    • Pathology includes conjunctivitis and keratitis, leading to excessive tearing, squinting, and possibly corneal ulcers.
    • Clinical signs involve epiphora, conjunctivitis, squinting, and visible worm movement in the eye; secondary infections may occur.
    • Diagnosis by direct observation of worms or larvae; treatment may involve manual removal of worms and anthelmintics.
    • Prevention focuses on controlling fly populations to mitigate exposure risk; zoonotic transmission can occur in humans under similar conditions.

    Dirofilaria immitis (Heartworm)

    • Adult female heartworms can grow up to 30 cm, while males reach about 15 cm.
    • Reside mainly in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries of host animals.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and ferrets; humans are rare hosts.
    • Intermediate hosts are mosquitoes, particularly Aedes, Culex, and Anopheles species.
    • Life cycle starts when a mosquito bites an infected host, ingesting microfilariae (L1).
    • Microfilariae develop into infective L3 larvae within mosquitoes and are transmitted during subsequent bites.
    • Adult worms cause obstruction of pulmonary arteries, leading to chronic pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.
    • Clinical signs of infection consist of chronic cough, exercise intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and ascites.
    • Diagnosis methods include microfilariae identification, antigen detection, radiography, and echocardiography.
    • Modified Knott's test differentiates microfilariae types based on size and movement.
    • Treatment options include adulticidal medication like melarsomine and preventative chemoprophylaxis with ivermectin.
    • Wolbachia pipientis is a bacterium associated with heartworm that contributes to inflammation upon the parasite's death.
    • Dirofilaria immitis can cause pulmonary dirofilariasis in rare human cases.

    Dipetalonema reconditum

    • No common name; considered a non-pathogenic filarial worm.
    • Adult males measure 4-5 cm, females 6-7 cm, residing in the subcutaneous tissues of dogs.
    • Definitive host is the dog; intermediate hosts include fleas and lice.
    • Lifecycle begins when a flea ingests microfilariae, which develop into L3 larvae and infect another dog.
    • Generally non-pathogenic; does not cause significant disease in hosts.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying microfilariae using the modified Knott's test.
    • Treatment is rarely necessary; preventative measures focus on controlling flea and louse populations.

    Dracunculus insignis (North American Guinea Worm)

    • Adults can reach up to 28 cm, usually found in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive hosts are dogs, cats, and raccoons; copepods are the intermediate hosts.
    • Lifecycle includes ingestion of copepods, larvae penetrate the intestinal wall, and mature in subcutaneous tissues.
    • The female worm migrates to the skin, causes blister formation, and releases L1 larvae into water.
    • Pathology includes localized inflammation and pain from blisters.
    • Clinical signs feature dermal ulceration from blisters.
    • Diagnosis relies on blister appearance and larval presence through fluid examination.
    • Treatment involves careful extraction of the worm; prevention focuses on clean water access.

    Filaroides osleri (Canine Lungworm)

    • Adults are small, slender roundworms; males are 6 mm, while females are 13 mm.
    • Definitive host is the dog; they form nodules in the trachea and bronchi.
    • Lifecycle is direct; larvae are coughed up and can infect another dog through litter or contaminated food.
    • Causes bronchitis and obstruction in airways, leading to respiratory issues.
    • Clinical signs include chronic coughing, dyspnea, stridor, and emaciation.
    • Diagnosis involves detecting larvae in feces or directly visualizing nodules via bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment includes anthelmintics; proactive measures include isolating infected animals.

    Capillaria aerophila (Bronchial Capillarid)

    • Small worms, about 2-3 cm long, found in trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and various wild mammals.
    • Lifecycle is direct, involving egg hatching in the intestines and migration to lungs.
    • Pathology features local irritation leading to bronchitis and respiratory distress.
    • Clinical signs can include cough, wheezing, and nasal discharge, with many infections being asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis typically involves examining characteristic eggs in fecal tests.
    • Treatment entails broad-spectrum anthelmintics; prevention involves sanitation.

    Aelurostrongylus abstrusus (Feline Lungworm)

    • Small worms, about 0.7-1.0 cm long, residing in cat lung parenchyma.
    • Definitive host is the cat; intermediate hosts are snails and slugs; paratenic hosts can include birds and rodents.
    • Lifecycle is indirect; larvae develop in intermediate hosts and infect cats when consumed.
    • Pathology includes formation of nodules in lungs and respiratory issues.
    • Many infections show no symptoms but chronic cough and dyspnea can occur.
    • Diagnosis is challenging; methods include the Baermann technique and imaging.
    • Treatment involves anthelmintics; prevention includes avoiding hunting behaviors.

    Paragonimus kellicotti (North American Lung Fluke)

    • Adults are around 1 cm long and reside in the lungs, forming cystic structures.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and occasionally humans; snails and crayfish serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Lifecycle is complex, transitioning from eggs to first intermediate host (snails) and second (crayfish).
    • Inflammation and granuloma formation occur in lungs, potentially causing severe complications.
    • Clinical signs include respiratory distress that may not be evident until advanced stages.
    • Diagnosis involves identification of cysts and eggs through pathology tests.
    • Treatment consists of broad-spectrum anthelmintics; prevention focuses on avoiding infected food sources.### Paragonimus kellicotti
    • Clinical signs include coughing, malaise, fever, and severe cases may result in pulmonary hemorrhage.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in sputum or feces using a sedimentation technique.
    • Radiographic imaging may reveal lung cysts; thoracic ultrasound visualizes cysts or fluid in the pleural cavity.
    • Treatment options include praziquantel or fenbendazole to eliminate adult flukes.
    • Prevention focuses on avoiding raw or undercooked crayfish and controlling pets' exposure to these foods.
    • Zoonotic risks exist as it can infect humans, typically through ingestion of contaminated crayfish; can lead to paragonimiasis with respiratory symptoms.

    Pearsonema (Capillaria) plica

    • Commonly known as the bladder worm.
    • Adult morphology features thin, thread-like worms measuring 1 to 6 cm in length.
    • They inhabit the urinary bladder or other parts of the urinary tract.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and wild mammals; intermediate hosts are earthworms carrying infective larvae.
    • Life cycle starts with eggs passed in urine; earthworms ingest them, developing infective L3 larvae.
    • When definitive hosts consume infected earthworms, larvae penetrate the intestinal wall, migrate to kidneys, and mature in the bladder.
    • Prepatent period is approximately 60 days.
    • Pathology involves irritation and inflammation of the bladder, potentially causing chronic cystitis.
    • Clinical signs may include mild symptoms or significant issues like pollakiuria, hematuria, and incontinence.
    • Diagnosis relies on identifying bipolar, lemon-shaped eggs in urine sediment.
    • Treatment includes ivermectin or fenbendazole; prevention emphasizes avoiding earthworm ingestion and maintaining sanitation.

    Dioctophyme renale

    • Commonly known as the giant kidney worm.
    • Adult worms can grow up to 1 meter for females and 20-40 cm for males; red in color and primarily inhabit the right kidney.
    • Definitive hosts are dogs and carnivores; earthworms serve as intermediate hosts, with fish and amphibians as paratenic hosts.
    • Life cycle begins with unembryonated eggs in urine, which develop into L1 in aquatic environments, then into L3 after ingestion by earthworms.
    • Larvae move to the definitive host's kidneys after passing through the liver.
    • Significant pathology includes destruction of kidney parenchyma, potential for uremia and renal failure if both kidneys are affected.
    • Clinical signs may be absent if one kidney is involved, but may include fatigue and nausea when severe.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying eggs in urine and may include imaging studies or exploratory surgery for advanced cases.
    • Treatment typically necessitates nephrectomy, as no effective anthelmintic treatments exist.
    • Prevention involves avoiding raw or undercooked fish and untreated water.
    • Zoonotic risks exist as humans can become infected through consumption of contaminated hosts, leading to aberrant migration of larvae.

    Thelazia californiensis

    • Commonly known as the eye worm.
    • Adult worms are small, thin nematodes up to 15 mm found in the conjunctival sac and lacrimal ducts.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, deer, and humans, while flies are intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle involves adult females releasing larvae into tears, which are ingested by flies; larvae develop in flies and reinfect new hosts.
    • Pathology includes irritation and inflammation of the eye, leading to conjunctivitis and keratitis.
    • Clinical signs consist of excessive tearing, conjunctivitis, squinting, and potential corneal ulcers.
    • Diagnosis is made through direct observation of worms or larvae in tear fluid via slit-lamp examination.
    • Treatment includes manual removal of worms, with anthelmintics like ivermectin or antibiotics for secondary infections.
    • Preventative measures focus on controlling fly populations and safeguarding animals from fly exposure.
    • Zoonotic potential exists as humans can contract the infection, leading to similar eye symptoms.

    Heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis)

    • Adult female Dirofilaria immitis can reach up to 30 cm; males grow to about 15 cm.
    • Primarily found in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and ferrets; humans are rare hosts.
    • Intermediate hosts are mosquitoes, mainly from Aedes, Culex, and Anopheles species.
    • Life cycle starts when a mosquito ingests microfilariae; the larvae develop into infective L3 forms and are transmitted during blood meals.
    • Mature worms cause chronic pulmonary hypertension, right heart failure, and may lead to vena cava syndrome.
    • Clinical signs include cough, exercise intolerance, weight loss, ascites, and potentially death.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying microfilariae in blood or utilizing tests like antigen detection, radiography, and echocardiography.
    • Modified Knott's test differentiates Dirofilaria immitis microfilariae from Dipetalonema microfilaria by size and movement.
    • Treatment includes adulticidal and microfilaricidal drugs, surgical removal, and supportive care; prevention is through chemoprophylaxis with ivermectin or similar drugs.
    • Wolbachia pipientis influences the pathology by triggering inflammation upon parasite death; it's susceptible to doxycycline.
    • Rarely infects humans causing pulmonary dirofilariasis, often asymptomatic.

    Dipetalonema reconditum

    • No specific common name; often referred to as a non-pathogenic filarial worm in dogs.
    • Adults are small; males are 4-5 cm, females 6-7 cm, found in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive host is the dog; fleas and lice serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle initiated when fleas or lice ingest microfilariae from an infected dog; microfilariae develop into infective larvae.
    • Considered non-pathogenic; typically, no clinical signs noted.
    • Diagnosis via identification of microfilariae using the modified Knott's test.
    • Treatment unnecessary unless indicated, with possible use of ivermectin; preventative measures focus on controlling ectoparasites.

    North American Guinea Worm (Dracunculus insignis)

    • Adults can reach 28 cm; males are smaller, residing in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and raccoons; copepods are the intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle involves ingestion of copepods containing L3 larvae, which then penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to the skin, forming blisters.
    • Causes localized inflammation and irritation from the blister formation.
    • Diagnosis typically involves recognizing blisters and detecting larvae microscopically.
    • Treatment entails careful extraction of the worm and broad-spectrum anthelmintics.
    • Not zoonotic; control of species is critical for public health.

    Canine Lungworm (Filaroides osleri)

    • Small, slender adults measure 6 mm for males and 13 mm for females; found in nodules in the trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive host is the dog; life cycle is direct with adult worms laying eggs that hatch into infective L1 larvae.
    • Causes bronchitis and can lead to airway obstruction due to nodules.
    • Clinical signs include chronic coughing, respiratory distress, and anorexia.
    • Diagnosis involves fecal examination for larvae and potential bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment includes anthelmintics and may require surgical excision of nodules.

    Bronchial Capillarid (Capillaria aerophila)

    • Adults are small (2-3 cm), whip-like worms found in the trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and wild mammals; life cycle is direct.
    • Causes local irritation leading to tracheitis and bronchitis.
    • Clinical signs can include cough and difficulty breathing; infections can often be asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis through egg identification in feces or respiratory secretions.
    • Treatment with broad-spectrum anthelmintics; sanitation is key for prevention.

    Feline Lungworm (Aelurostrongylus abstrusus)

    • Small adults (0.7-1.0 cm) found in lung parenchyma of cats.
    • Definitive host is the cat; intermediate hosts are snails and slugs.
    • Life cycle is indirect, involving the ingestion of L3 larvae from intermediate hosts.
    • Infection leads to subpleural nodules and can cause chronic bronchitis and respiratory failure.
    • Diagnosis may involve lower sensitivity techniques like the Baermann method or visualization through bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment utilizes anthelmintics, with prevention focused on avoiding hunting behaviors.

    North American Lung Fluke (Paragonimus kellicotti)

    • Adults are larger flukes (1 cm), residing in lungs within cystic structures.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and humans; snails and crayfish serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Complex life cycle involves two intermediate hosts and leads to inflammation and granuloma formation in lungs.
    • Clinical signs can include cough, pulmonary hemorrhage, and abscess formation.
    • Diagnosis through identification of eggs in feces or lung examination post-surgery.
    • Treatment focuses on removal of flukes with anthelmintics; prevention involves proper food and water handling to avoid contaminated sources.### Paragonimus kellicotti Infection
    • Clinical signs include coughing, malaise, fever, and potential pulmonary hemorrhage in severe cases.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in sputum or feces using sedimentation.
    • Radiographic imaging may reveal lung cysts, while thoracic ultrasound visualizes cysts or pleural fluid.
    • Treatment options are praziquantel or fenbendazole, effective against adult flukes.
    • Prevention involves avoiding raw or undercooked crayfish and controlling crayfish exposure to pets.
    • Zoonotic concerns exist as humans can get infected, leading to paragonimiasis with symptoms like chronic cough and chest pain.

    Pearsonema plica (Bladder Worm)

    • Adult morphology consists of thin, thread-like worms ranging from 1 to 6 cm in length, found in the urinary bladder mucosa.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and wild mammals; earthworms serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle starts with eggs containing first-stage larvae passed in urine, which earthworms ingest and develop into infective larvae before entering definitive hosts via ingestion.
    • Prepatent period is approximately 60 days.
    • Pathology includes irritation and inflammation of the bladder, leading to chronic cystitis and potential secondary infections.
    • Clinical signs can be mild; significant infections may show cystitis, painful urination, and hematuria.
    • Diagnosis is made by identifying bipolar, lemon-shaped eggs in urine sediment.
    • Treatment includes ivermectin or fenbendazole; prevention focuses on controlling earthworm access and regular deworming.
    • No significant public health concerns; it does not infect humans.

    Dioctophyme renale (Giant Kidney Worm)

    • Adult morphology features large, red nematodes with females up to 1 meter and males 20-40 cm in length, residing primarily in the right kidney.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs and carnivores like mink; earthworms are the intermediate hosts, with fish and frogs as paratenic hosts.
    • Life cycle begins with unembryonated eggs in urine, which then embryonate in aquatic environments and are consumed by earthworms, leading to infective larvae.
    • Prepatent period is about 5-6 months.
    • Pathology results from destruction of renal parenchyma, potentially causing uremia and renal failure; peritonitis may occur if the renal capsule ruptures.
    • Clinical signs can be absent in single kidney infections; severe cases show symptoms of uremia and nausea.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying eggs in urine, imaging damaged kidneys, or exploratory surgery in advanced cases.
    • Treatment primarily requires surgical nephrectomy; prevention focuses on avoiding raw fish or untreated water.
    • Zoonotic potential exists as humans can become infected through undercooked fish or paratenic hosts; larvae may migrate aberrantly in humans.

    Thelazia californiensis (Eye Worm)

    • Adult morphology consists of small, thin nematodes up to 15 mm long, residing in the conjunctival sac and lacrimal ducts.
    • Definitive hosts are various animals including dogs, cats, and humans; flies serve as the intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle initiates with female worms producing first-stage larvae in tears, ingested by flies and developing into infective larvae before reinfecting hosts.
    • Prepatent period lasts about 3-6 weeks.
    • Pathology includes irritation leading to conjunctivitis and keratitis, causing symptoms like excessive tearing and photophobia.
    • Clinical signs can manifest as abnormal tearing, squinting, and visible movement of worms in the eye; severe infections may lead to corneal ulcers.
    • Diagnosis is typically made through direct observation in the conjunctival sac; slit-lamp examination can assist.
    • Treatment involves manual removal of worms and possible anthelmintic administration; antibiotics may be necessary for secondary infections.
    • Prevention focuses on controlling fly populations and limiting animal exposure to flies.
    • Zoonotic risks exist as humans can be infected, presenting similar ocular symptoms linked to contact with infected animals or flies.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    More Like This

    Dirofilaria immitis - Heartworm Disease Quiz
    12 questions

    Dirofilaria immitis - Heartworm Disease Quiz

    SnappyChaparral avatar
    SnappyChaparral
    Canine Infectious Diseases: Leishmania and Dirofilaria
    38 questions

    Canine Infectious Diseases: Leishmania and Dirofilaria

    VividTerbium avatar
    VividTerbium
    Non-GI Helminths of Small Animals
    100 questions

    Non-GI Helminths of Small Animals

    LuxuryBinomial avatar
    LuxuryBinomial
    Dirofilaria immitis in Dogs
    43 questions

    Dirofilaria immitis in Dogs

    ElegantLeaningTowerOfPisa6783 avatar
    ElegantLeaningTowerOfPisa6783
    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Open
    Browser
    Browser