Non-GI Helminths of Dogs and Cats
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Questions and Answers

What is the common name for Dirofilaria immitis?

  • Tapeworm
  • Roundworm
  • Hookworm
  • Heartworm (correct)

    • Which of the following hosts are classified as definitive hosts for Dirofilaria immitis?

  • Cats (correct)
  • Mosquitoes
  • Rabbits
  • Birds

    • What is the primary pathology caused by adult Dirofilaria immitis worms?

  • Pulmonary hypertension (correct)
  • Nephritis
  • Dermatitis
  • Intestinal obstruction

    • What is a key step in the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis after the mosquito ingests microfilariae?

    <p>Development into infective L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is used to identify microfilariae in blood?

    <p>Direct smear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the morphology of adult Dirofilaria immitis females?

    <p>Up to 30 cm long</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Radiation therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Dirofilaria immitis from Dipetalonema microfilaria in a modified Knott's test?

    <p>Size and shape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary concern when Dirofilaria immitis infects humans?

    <p>It typically causes pulmonary dirofilariasis, which may show lung nodules.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts is considered a definitive host for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Dog</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do mosquitoes play in the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>They act as intermediate hosts where larvae develop.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the size of adult females of Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>6-7 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the intermediate hosts for Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Fleas and lice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definitive host for Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Dogs and cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes the pathology in Dracunculus insignis infections?

    <p>Migration of the female worm to the skin and blister formation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do L3 larvae of Dracunculus insignis enter the definitive host?

    <p>By ingesting copepods in contaminated water.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common method for diagnosing Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Modified Knott's test.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Dipetalonema reconditum if needed?

    <p>Ivermectin administration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key factor in preventing Dirofilaria immitis infections in pets?

    <p>Preventing mosquito bites.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>It is generally non-pathogenic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of bacteria is Wolbachia pipientis?

    <p>Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method for diagnosing Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Identification of characteristic blisters and visible worm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Careful extraction of the worm is necessary to prevent inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs are associated with Filaroides osleri infection?

    <p>Chronic coughing, dyspnea, and stridor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a definitive host for Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the life cycle of Filaroides osleri progress after the larvae are ingested?

    <p>They migrate to the lungs to mature into adults.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the pathology associated with Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Tracheitis and bronchitis leading to respiratory distress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What preventive measure is recommended to control Filaroides osleri transmission?

    <p>Isolation of infected animals in kennel settings</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic features identify Capillaria aerophila eggs?

    <p>Single-celled with bipolar plugs and textured surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anthelmintic is commonly used for the treatment of Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Albendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long is the prepatent period for Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>40 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following groups is at risk for Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Dogs and wild mammals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What confers a public health concern regarding Dracunculus species?

    <p>Related species that cause Guinea worm disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Chronic cough and nasal discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical adult morphology of Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Slender and small, with males around 6 mm and females up to 13 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common name for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Feline lungworm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Anthelmintics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hosts are involved in the life cycle of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Snails and slugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential pathology associated with Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Granuloma formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is used to recover larvae from feces for diagnosing Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Baermann technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended prevention measure for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus in cats?

    <p>Preventing access to snails and slugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary definitive host for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is commonly associated with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Chronic cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common name for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>North American lung fluke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred diagnostic technique for identifying characteristic eggs of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Sputum sedimentation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible clinical outcome of heavy infections of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Respiratory failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the intermediate hosts for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Snails and crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the life cycle form of Capillaria aerophila that is typically passed in feces?

    <p>Eggs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long is the prepatent period for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Surgical removal of the affected kidney</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended prevention measure for Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Consuming only cooked fish and avoiding raw fish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the life cycle of Thelazia californiensis initiated by?

    <p>Larvae being ingested by infected flies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of inflammation is typically caused by Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Conjunctivitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the adult morphology of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Small and thin, up to 15 mm long</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hosts are considered definitive hosts for Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Various animals including dogs, cats, and humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical clinical sign of Thelazia californiensis infection?

    <p>Excessive tearing and squinting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is a Thelazia californiensis infection diagnosed?

    <p>Direct observation of worms in the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which preventative measure is effective against Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Controlling fly populations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential public health concern associated with Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>It can lead to ocular symptoms in humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary drug used for the treatment of Paragonimus kellicotti infections?

    <p>Fenbendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common mode of transmission for Paragonimus kellicotti to humans?

    <p>Ingesting undercooked or raw crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of animal serves as the definitive host for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Cats and dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign of Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Cycstitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic method for identifying Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Urine sediment analysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the adult morphology of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Large, red-colored, up to 1 meter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts are intermediate hosts for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What significant pathology can result from a Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Destruction of kidney parenchyma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of paratenic hosts in the life cycle of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>They help in the transmission to the definitive hosts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is NOT typically used to diagnose Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Blood culture tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following interventions can help prevent Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Controlling pets' exposure to earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential symptom of Dioctophyme renale infection if both kidneys are affected?

    <p>Renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the prepatent period for Pearsonema plica, from infection to egg shedding?

    <p>60 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common name for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Lung fluke</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is most often associated with severe Dirofilaria immitis infection?

    <p>Chronic progressive cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism contributes to the pathology of Dirofilaria immitis infection?

    <p>Obstruction of pulmonary arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which species of mosquito is NOT considered an intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Mansonia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the modified Knott's test, what distinguishes Dirofilaria immitis from other microfilariae?

    <p>Dirofilaria has a straight and tapered shape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of preventive drugs like ivermectin in relation to Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>To prevent the initial infection by killing L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is most closely associated with the risk of developing vena cava syndrome in Dirofilaria immitis infections?

    <p>The number of adult worms present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary outcome of chronic pulmonary hypertension due to Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Right heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant physiological alteration caused by Dirofilaria immitis in infected hosts?

    <p>Fibrosis of lung tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of breaking the worm during the extraction process of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Serious inflammation and exacerbation of symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is primarily used for Filaroides osleri infections?

    <p>Direct fecal smears</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of larvae is passed out of the host by Filaroides osleri after they hatch from eggs?

    <p>First-stage larvae (L1)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Capillaria aerophila infections?

    <p>Anthelmintics such as albendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor significantly contributes to the life cycle transmission of Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Environmental exposure to earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is least likely to be associated with Filaroides osleri infections?

    <p>Bloating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic morphology can be observed in adult Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Slender, whip-like appearance about 2-3 cm long</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main risk factor for Dracunculus insignis infection in animals?

    <p>Contact with contaminated water sources</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a public health concern related to Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Direct infection of humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the life cycle of Filaroides osleri initiate after the larvae are ingested?

    <p>They enter the bloodstream and travel to the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment approach if severe pathology is experienced in a Filaroides osleri infection?

    <p>Surgical excision of obstructive nodules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic indicates a significant inflammation in Dracunculus insignis infections?

    <p>Presence of visible blisters on the skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key component of the prevention strategy against Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Routine deworming and controlling water sources</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What morphology differences can be observed between male and female Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Females reach up to 13 mm while males are about 6 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment strategy for Capillaria aerophila infections in animals?

    <p>Broad-spectrum anthelmintics such as fenbendazole or ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which host is NOT classified as a paratenic host for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Snails</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of severe infections with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Respiratory failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the adult morphology of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Flat and oval, around 1 cm in length</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the life cycle of Paragonimus kellicotti commence following the release of its eggs?

    <p>Miracidia hatch and infect snails as the first intermediate host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary public health concern regarding Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Minimal zoonotic risk with rare human infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is effective for eliminating adult flukes of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Fenbendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic technique is MOST likely to yield positive results for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infections?

    <p>Baermann technique</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of transmission for human infections of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Consumption of raw or undercooked crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What environmental preventive measure is recommended to control Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infections in cats?

    <p>Limiting access to areas where snails and slugs are present</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathology is primarily caused by the presence of Pearsonema plica in the urinary bladder?

    <p>Chronic cystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of Capillaria aerophila, what does environmental contamination with eggs necessitate?

    <p>Enhanced sanitation practices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts acts as an intermediate host for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Earthworm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is least likely to be associated with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of snails in the life cycle of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Intermediate hosts that harbor L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic feature distinguishes the eggs of Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Bipolar and lemon-shaped with a rough shell</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anthelmintic is commonly used to treat infections caused by Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect is critical for understanding the pathogenesis of Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Formation of cystic structures surrounded by eosinophilic inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The life cycle of Dioctophyme renale involves which definitive host?

    <p>Dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical symptom is most characteristic of Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Coughing and fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is the correct order of hosts in the complex life cycle of Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Snail - Crayfish - Dog/Cat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign associated with severe Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Uremia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of earthworms in the life cycle of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Intermediate hosts developing third-stage larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant pathology associated with Dioctophyme renale infections?

    <p>Destruction of renal parenchyma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of Pearsonema plica is highlighted concerning its opportunistic nature?

    <p>Often it is asymptomatic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recommended prevention measure for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Cooking earthworms thoroughly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic technique is useful in identifying Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Identifying eggs in urine sediment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic that makes Dioctophyme renale a zoonotic parasite?

    <p>It can infect humans through the consumption of undercooked fish.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical site is primarily affected by Thelazia californiensis in definitive hosts?

    <p>Conjunctival sac</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do flies play in the life cycle of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>They serve as vectors for the larvae of the worm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an effective prevention strategy against the zoonotic transmission of Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Cooking fish thoroughly before consumption.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected prepatent period for Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>3-6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical signs is NOT associated with a Thelazia californiensis infection?

    <p>Abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common effect of the presence of adult Thelazia californiensis in the eye?

    <p>Mechanical damage to the cornea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical length of the adult Thelazia californiensis worm?

    <p>15 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major public health concern regarding Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>It can produce ocular symptoms in infected humans.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the manual removal of Thelazia californiensis worms typically done with?

    <p>Fine forceps</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the role of Wolbachia pipientis in relation to Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>It causes an inflammatory response in the mammalian host upon the parasite's death.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of zoonotic transmission prevention for Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Controlling mosquito populations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical step in the life cycle of Dipetalonema reconditum after larvae are transmitted through a vector's bite?

    <p>The larvae mature into adult worms in the subcutaneous tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do humans typically present symptoms when infected with Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>It is usually asymptomatic but may appear as lung nodules on radiographs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the modified Knott's test in diagnosing Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>It differentiates between microfilariae of different filarial species.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of morphology characterizes adult Dracunculus insignis worms?

    <p>Thread-like, with males being significantly smaller than females.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the life cycle of Dracunculus insignis after ingestion of copepods by a definitive host?

    <p>The larvae penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to subcutaneous tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the public health concerns associated with Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>It is considered non-pathogenic with no significant public health concerns.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do L3 larvae of Dipetalonema reconditum enter their definitive host?

    <p>Through the bite of an infected flea or louse.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis is critical for its pathogenicity in mammals?

    <p>The antigenic stimulation of the host by bacterial antigens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor helps minimize the risk of transmission of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Controlling water sources to prevent copepod habitation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary clinical manifestation associated with Dracunculus insignis infections?

    <p>Formation of blisters and skin lesions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common preventive measure can significantly lower the likelihood of Dirofilaria immitis affecting pets?

    <p>Regular administration of heartworm preventative medications.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best illustrates the difference in pathogenicity between Dirofilaria immitis and Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Dirofilaria immitis can infect humans, while Dipetalonema reconditum cannot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of chronic pulmonary hypertension caused by adult Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>Right heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of L3 larvae in the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>They migrate to the heart and lungs of the host.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is not commonly associated with heartworm infection in pets?

    <p>Increased activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does microfilariae circulate in the host's body after Dirofilaria immitis matures into adults?

    <p>They enter the blood circulation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main method used to treat adult Dirofilaria immitis in dogs?

    <p>Melarsomine administration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic technique is least likely to identify Dirofilaria immitis infection?

    <p>Urinalysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of chemoprophylaxis in preventing Dirofilaria immitis infections?

    <p>To prevent the development of L3 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a distinguishing feature of adult female Dirofilaria immitis compared to males?

    <p>They can grow up to 30 cm in length.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment option for Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an effective preventive measure for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Preventing cats from eating snails and slugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which animal is considered a definitive host for Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of pathology is associated with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

    <p>Cystic structures in the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Paragonimus kellicotti primarily diagnosed?

    <p>Identification of eggs in sputum or feces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common name for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>Feline lungworm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of larvae is typically passed in feces for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>L1 larvae</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What environmental measure is recommended to reduce Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Environmental sanitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Aelurostrongylus abstrusus's life cycle characterized?

    <p>Indirect life cycle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of clinical signs may be observed in Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Coughing and malaise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential severe outcome of heavy Paragonimus kellicotti infections?

    <p>Pulmonary hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the length approximate of adult Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?

    <p>0.7-1.0 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method may aid in diagnosing Aelurostrongylus abstrusus despite low sensitivity?

    <p>Direct fecal smear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical time frame for the L3 larvae of Dirofilaria immitis to develop in a mosquito?

    <p>10-14 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hosts serve as intermediate hosts for Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>Fleas and lice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature of pulmonary dirofilariasis in humans?

    <p>It typically presents as lung nodules on radiographs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mode of transmission for Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Ingestion of infected copepods in water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the length of adult males of Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>4-5 cm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true about the pathology of Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>The primary pathology arises from blister formation on the skin.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key clinical sign of Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Dermal ulceration caused by blisters</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical signs are typically associated with infections of Dipetalonema reconditum?

    <p>There are usually no clinical signs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is primarily used to diagnose Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Observation of blisters and the worm's emergence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Wolbachia pipientis in Dirofilaria immitis infections?

    <p>It contributes to the pathology and inflammation in the host.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>L3 larvae are injected through the saliva of mosquitoes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment approach for Dracunculus insignis infection?

    <p>Slow extraction of the worm using a stick</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is Dracunculus insignis considered to have public health implications?

    <p>It primarily affects domestic pets posing risks to owners.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definitive host for Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long does it take for the L4 larvae of Dirofilaria immitis to mature into L5 after entering the definitive host?

    <p>2-3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is most commonly observed in Filaroides osleri infections?

    <p>Stridor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method differentiates between Dipetalonema reconditum and Dirofilaria immitis microfilariae?

    <p>Modified Knott's test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is associated with the pathology of Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Nodules obstructing airways</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Capillaria aerophila diagnosed?

    <p>Identifying eggs in feces via a floatation test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of controlling flea and louse infestations in pets?

    <p>To prevent the transmission of zoonotic parasites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical route of transmission for L3 larvae of Dracunculus insignis to reach the skin of the definitive host?

    <p>Through ingestion of water containing copepods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical feature of adult Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Whip-like appearance and small size</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary pathology associated with Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Tracheitis and bronchitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the life cycle of Filaroides osleri is correct?

    <p>The larvae are immediately infective upon ingestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common symptom may indicate a Capillaria aerophila infection?

    <p>Chronic cough</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical life cycle of Capillaria aerophila?

    <p>Direct, with larvae migrating to the intestines</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment option is often recommended for Filaroides osleri?

    <p>Anthelmintics like albendazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is public health concerned with Dracunculus insignis?

    <p>Related species cause Guinea worm disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can Filaroides osleri transmission be prevented?

    <p>Isolating infected animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment option for Paragonimus kellicotti infection?

    <p>Praziquantel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical symptoms may indicate infection with Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Chronic cough and chest pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common life cycle intermediate host for Pearsonema plica?

    <p>Earthworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathology is commonly associated with Pearsonema plica infection?

    <p>Chronic cystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following hosts can act as a paratenic host for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Frogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of Dioctophyme renale adult morphology?

    <p>Large size with red color</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical prepatent period for Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>5-6 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is used for Pearsonema plica infections?

    <p>Ivermectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common method for diagnosing an infection with Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Urine sediment examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What preventative measure can help control Petersonema plica infections?

    <p>Controlling earthworm exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk factor for contracting Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Consuming raw or undercooked crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary clinical sign of Dioctophyme renale infection?

    <p>Uremia and fatigue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way humans can acquire an infection from Paragonimus kellicotti?

    <p>Consuming infected crayfish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic feature helps identify Pearsonema plica eggs?

    <p>Bipolar, rough-shelled, lemon-shaped</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for an infection caused by Dioctophyme renale?

    <p>Surgical removal of the kidney</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a recommended method for preventing Dioctophyme renale infections?

    <p>Consuming only fully cooked fish</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the size of adult Thelazia californiensis nematodes?

    <p>Up to 15 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of flies in the life cycle of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Transmit larvae back to new hosts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is most commonly associated with an infection of Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Excessive tearing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Thelazia californiensis typically diagnosed?

    <p>Direct observation of worms in the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of parasites does Thelazia californiensis represent?

    <p>Nematode</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following methods can help prevent Thelazia californiensis infections in animals?

    <p>Controlling fly populations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What public health concern is associated with Thelazia californiensis?

    <p>Zoonotic transmission to humans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What pathology is associated with Thelazia californiensis infection?

    <p>Irritation and inflammation of the eye</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Dirofilaria immitis (Heartworm)

    • Commonly known as heartworm, primarily affects dogs, cats, ferrets, and occasionally humans.
    • Adult morphology: females can reach 30 cm, males approximately 15 cm; found in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries.
    • Life cycle involves mosquitoes as intermediate hosts (Aedes, Culex, Anopheles); larvae develop in mosquitoes and migrate to host through a blood meal.
    • Pathology: causes obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic pulmonary hypertension, right heart failure, and vena cava syndrome.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough, exercise intolerance, fatigue, ascites, and potentially death.
    • Diagnosis methods: microfilariae identification in blood, antigen and antibody tests, radiography, echocardiography, and necropsy.
    • Treatment includes adulticidal drugs (melarsomine), microfilaricidal treatments (ivermectin), and supportive care; preventive medication is emphasized.
    • Wolbachia pipientis aids in pathology through inflammation and immune response upon parasite death; susceptible to doxycycline.
    • Rare human infections can result in pulmonary dirofilariasis, highlighting the need for preventative measures in pets.

    Dipetalonema reconditum

    • Often referred to as a non-pathogenic filarial worm of dogs; lacks a specific common name.
    • Adult morphology: small, thread-like worms; males 4-5 cm long, females 6-7 cm long, residing in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive host is the dog; intermediate hosts include fleas (Ctenocephalides felis) and lice (Heterodoxus spiniger).
    • Life cycle initiates when fleas/louse ingest microfilariae, develop to infective L3 within 7-10 days, and then transmit to another dog through bites.
    • Generally considered non-pathogenic; presence does not cause significant disease or clinical symptoms.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying microfilariae in blood using a modified Knott's test.

    Dracunculus insignis (North American Guinea Worm)

    • Adult worms can grow up to 28 cm; males smaller, residing within subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive hosts: dogs, cats, raccoons, mink, foxes, skunks; copepods serve as intermediate hosts.
    • The life cycle involves ingestion of infected copepods, leading to larval penetration through the intestinal wall and maturation beneath the skin.
    • Pathology arises from skin blister formation, causing inflammation and pain when the female worm emerges.
    • Clinical signs include dermal ulceration due to blister formation.
    • Diagnosis based on blister appearance and microscopic examination of blister fluid.
    • Treatment consists of careful worm extraction over several days; prevention includes avoiding contaminated water.

    Filaroides osleri (Canine Lungworm)

    • Adult worms are slender; males about 6 mm, females up to 13 mm; found in nodules of trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive host is the dog with a direct life cycle; eggs develop into larvae within the host, transmitted through feces, vomit, or secretions.
    • Pathology includes bronchitis and nodule formation obstructing airways, leading to respiratory issues.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough, dyspnea, and signs of emaciation.
    • Diagnosis through larvae detection in feces, sputum, and bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment options involve anthelmintics like albendazole and potentially surgical excision of nodules.

    Capillaria aerophila (Bronchial Capillarid)

    • Adults are 2-3 cm long, found in the trachea and bronchi; slender, whip-like appearance.
    • Definitive hosts: dogs, cats, and wild mammals like foxes.
    • Direct life cycle with eggs released in lungs, coughed up, passed in feces; eggs mature into infective larvae outside the host.
    • Pathology leads to local irritation, chronic inflammation, and respiratory distress from tracheitis and bronchitis.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough, wheezing, and nasal discharge; many infections are asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis through fecal flotation tests for characteristic eggs.
    • Treatment includes broad-spectrum anthelmintics; preventative measures focus on sanitation.

    Aelurostrongylus abstrusus (Feline Lungworm)

    • Adults are 0.7-1.0 cm long, typically found in lung parenchyma of cats.
    • Definitive host is the cat, with snails and slugs as intermediate hosts; paratenic hosts include birds and rodents.
    • Indirect life cycle: eggs hatch into larvae in the lungs, which are then excreted and infect snails/slugs to complete the cycle.
    • Pathology involves subpleural nodules leading to bronchitis, interstitial pneumonia, and potential respiratory failure.
    • Clinical signs include chronic cough and dyspnea, with many cases being asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis may require the Baermann technique or bronchoscopy for larvae visualization.
    • Treatment uses anthelmintics; prevention includes avoiding hunting of susceptible hosts.

    Paragonimus kellicotti (North American Lung Fluke)

    • Adults measure around 1 cm, residing in lung cysts; larger than typical flukes.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and humans; intermediate hosts are snails and crayfish.
    • Complex life cycle with egg release leading to larval stages in intermediate hosts; definitive host infection occurs through raw or undercooked crayfish.
    • Pathology includes inflammation and granuloma formation, leading to lung cysts and severe bleeding in heavy infections.
    • Clinical signs remain unspecified but can relate to respiratory complications.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying eggs in feces; control of animal infections is vital due to potential public health implications.### Paragonimus kellicotti
    • Clinical signs include coughing, malaise, fever, and potential pulmonary hemorrhage in severe cases.
    • Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying characteristic eggs in sputum or feces through sedimentation; radiographic imaging may reveal lung cysts.
    • Treatment involves praziquantel or fenbendazole; prevention focuses on avoiding raw or undercooked crayfish and controlling exposure to pets.
    • Paragonimus kellicotti is zoonotic, infecting humans primarily through undercooked crayfish consumption, leading to symptoms like chronic cough and chest pain.

    Pearsonema plica (Bladder Worm)

    • Adults are thin, thread-like worms ranging from 1 to 6 cm, typically found in the urinary bladder's mucosa.
    • Definitive hosts are dogs, cats, and wild mammals; intermediate hosts include earthworms.
    • Life cycle begins with eggs passed in the urine, ingested by earthworms where larvae develop into infectious form; definitive hosts become infected upon consuming the worms.
    • Pathology includes irritation and inflammation of the bladder, possibly leading to chronic cystitis.
    • Clinical signs may be mild but can include cystitis, stranguria, pollakiuria, hematuria, and incontinence.
    • Diagnosis is made by identifying bipolar, lemon-shaped eggs in urine sediment; treatment with ivermectin or fenbendazole is effective.

    Dioctophyme renale (Giant Kidney Worm)

    • Adults can reach up to 1 meter in females and 20-40 cm in males, typically residing in the right kidney.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs and carnivores, while earthworms serve as the intermediate host; fish and amphibians can act as paratenic hosts.
    • The life cycle starts with eggs in urine; larvae develop in earthworms, which are consumed by definitive hosts.
    • Significant pathology results from destruction of renal parenchyma, potentially causing uremia, renal failure, and peritonitis from renal capsule rupture.
    • Clinical signs may be absent if only one kidney is affected; severe infections can lead to uremia, fatigue, and nausea.
    • Diagnosis through urine sediment examination, imaging techniques, and sometimes exploratory surgery; prevention involves avoiding raw fish consumption.

    Thelazia californiensis (Eye Worm)

    • Adults measure up to 15 mm and reside in the conjunctival sac and lacrimal ducts.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, deer, sheep, and humans; flies (Diptera) act as intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle begins with adult females producing larvae in tears; flies ingest the larvae and become vectors for transmission.
    • Pathology includes conjunctivitis and keratitis, leading to excessive tearing, squinting, and possibly corneal ulcers.
    • Clinical signs involve epiphora, conjunctivitis, squinting, and visible worm movement in the eye; secondary infections may occur.
    • Diagnosis by direct observation of worms or larvae; treatment may involve manual removal of worms and anthelmintics.
    • Prevention focuses on controlling fly populations to mitigate exposure risk; zoonotic transmission can occur in humans under similar conditions.

    Dirofilaria immitis (Heartworm)

    • Adult female heartworms can grow up to 30 cm, while males reach about 15 cm.
    • Reside mainly in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries of host animals.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and ferrets; humans are rare hosts.
    • Intermediate hosts are mosquitoes, particularly Aedes, Culex, and Anopheles species.
    • Life cycle starts when a mosquito bites an infected host, ingesting microfilariae (L1).
    • Microfilariae develop into infective L3 larvae within mosquitoes and are transmitted during subsequent bites.
    • Adult worms cause obstruction of pulmonary arteries, leading to chronic pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.
    • Clinical signs of infection consist of chronic cough, exercise intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and ascites.
    • Diagnosis methods include microfilariae identification, antigen detection, radiography, and echocardiography.
    • Modified Knott's test differentiates microfilariae types based on size and movement.
    • Treatment options include adulticidal medication like melarsomine and preventative chemoprophylaxis with ivermectin.
    • Wolbachia pipientis is a bacterium associated with heartworm that contributes to inflammation upon the parasite's death.
    • Dirofilaria immitis can cause pulmonary dirofilariasis in rare human cases.

    Dipetalonema reconditum

    • No common name; considered a non-pathogenic filarial worm.
    • Adult males measure 4-5 cm, females 6-7 cm, residing in the subcutaneous tissues of dogs.
    • Definitive host is the dog; intermediate hosts include fleas and lice.
    • Lifecycle begins when a flea ingests microfilariae, which develop into L3 larvae and infect another dog.
    • Generally non-pathogenic; does not cause significant disease in hosts.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying microfilariae using the modified Knott's test.
    • Treatment is rarely necessary; preventative measures focus on controlling flea and louse populations.

    Dracunculus insignis (North American Guinea Worm)

    • Adults can reach up to 28 cm, usually found in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive hosts are dogs, cats, and raccoons; copepods are the intermediate hosts.
    • Lifecycle includes ingestion of copepods, larvae penetrate the intestinal wall, and mature in subcutaneous tissues.
    • The female worm migrates to the skin, causes blister formation, and releases L1 larvae into water.
    • Pathology includes localized inflammation and pain from blisters.
    • Clinical signs feature dermal ulceration from blisters.
    • Diagnosis relies on blister appearance and larval presence through fluid examination.
    • Treatment involves careful extraction of the worm; prevention focuses on clean water access.

    Filaroides osleri (Canine Lungworm)

    • Adults are small, slender roundworms; males are 6 mm, while females are 13 mm.
    • Definitive host is the dog; they form nodules in the trachea and bronchi.
    • Lifecycle is direct; larvae are coughed up and can infect another dog through litter or contaminated food.
    • Causes bronchitis and obstruction in airways, leading to respiratory issues.
    • Clinical signs include chronic coughing, dyspnea, stridor, and emaciation.
    • Diagnosis involves detecting larvae in feces or directly visualizing nodules via bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment includes anthelmintics; proactive measures include isolating infected animals.

    Capillaria aerophila (Bronchial Capillarid)

    • Small worms, about 2-3 cm long, found in trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and various wild mammals.
    • Lifecycle is direct, involving egg hatching in the intestines and migration to lungs.
    • Pathology features local irritation leading to bronchitis and respiratory distress.
    • Clinical signs can include cough, wheezing, and nasal discharge, with many infections being asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis typically involves examining characteristic eggs in fecal tests.
    • Treatment entails broad-spectrum anthelmintics; prevention involves sanitation.

    Aelurostrongylus abstrusus (Feline Lungworm)

    • Small worms, about 0.7-1.0 cm long, residing in cat lung parenchyma.
    • Definitive host is the cat; intermediate hosts are snails and slugs; paratenic hosts can include birds and rodents.
    • Lifecycle is indirect; larvae develop in intermediate hosts and infect cats when consumed.
    • Pathology includes formation of nodules in lungs and respiratory issues.
    • Many infections show no symptoms but chronic cough and dyspnea can occur.
    • Diagnosis is challenging; methods include the Baermann technique and imaging.
    • Treatment involves anthelmintics; prevention includes avoiding hunting behaviors.

    Paragonimus kellicotti (North American Lung Fluke)

    • Adults are around 1 cm long and reside in the lungs, forming cystic structures.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and occasionally humans; snails and crayfish serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Lifecycle is complex, transitioning from eggs to first intermediate host (snails) and second (crayfish).
    • Inflammation and granuloma formation occur in lungs, potentially causing severe complications.
    • Clinical signs include respiratory distress that may not be evident until advanced stages.
    • Diagnosis involves identification of cysts and eggs through pathology tests.
    • Treatment consists of broad-spectrum anthelmintics; prevention focuses on avoiding infected food sources.### Paragonimus kellicotti
    • Clinical signs include coughing, malaise, fever, and severe cases may result in pulmonary hemorrhage.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in sputum or feces using a sedimentation technique.
    • Radiographic imaging may reveal lung cysts; thoracic ultrasound visualizes cysts or fluid in the pleural cavity.
    • Treatment options include praziquantel or fenbendazole to eliminate adult flukes.
    • Prevention focuses on avoiding raw or undercooked crayfish and controlling pets' exposure to these foods.
    • Zoonotic risks exist as it can infect humans, typically through ingestion of contaminated crayfish; can lead to paragonimiasis with respiratory symptoms.

    Pearsonema (Capillaria) plica

    • Commonly known as the bladder worm.
    • Adult morphology features thin, thread-like worms measuring 1 to 6 cm in length.
    • They inhabit the urinary bladder or other parts of the urinary tract.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and wild mammals; intermediate hosts are earthworms carrying infective larvae.
    • Life cycle starts with eggs passed in urine; earthworms ingest them, developing infective L3 larvae.
    • When definitive hosts consume infected earthworms, larvae penetrate the intestinal wall, migrate to kidneys, and mature in the bladder.
    • Prepatent period is approximately 60 days.
    • Pathology involves irritation and inflammation of the bladder, potentially causing chronic cystitis.
    • Clinical signs may include mild symptoms or significant issues like pollakiuria, hematuria, and incontinence.
    • Diagnosis relies on identifying bipolar, lemon-shaped eggs in urine sediment.
    • Treatment includes ivermectin or fenbendazole; prevention emphasizes avoiding earthworm ingestion and maintaining sanitation.

    Dioctophyme renale

    • Commonly known as the giant kidney worm.
    • Adult worms can grow up to 1 meter for females and 20-40 cm for males; red in color and primarily inhabit the right kidney.
    • Definitive hosts are dogs and carnivores; earthworms serve as intermediate hosts, with fish and amphibians as paratenic hosts.
    • Life cycle begins with unembryonated eggs in urine, which develop into L1 in aquatic environments, then into L3 after ingestion by earthworms.
    • Larvae move to the definitive host's kidneys after passing through the liver.
    • Significant pathology includes destruction of kidney parenchyma, potential for uremia and renal failure if both kidneys are affected.
    • Clinical signs may be absent if one kidney is involved, but may include fatigue and nausea when severe.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying eggs in urine and may include imaging studies or exploratory surgery for advanced cases.
    • Treatment typically necessitates nephrectomy, as no effective anthelmintic treatments exist.
    • Prevention involves avoiding raw or undercooked fish and untreated water.
    • Zoonotic risks exist as humans can become infected through consumption of contaminated hosts, leading to aberrant migration of larvae.

    Thelazia californiensis

    • Commonly known as the eye worm.
    • Adult worms are small, thin nematodes up to 15 mm found in the conjunctival sac and lacrimal ducts.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, deer, and humans, while flies are intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle involves adult females releasing larvae into tears, which are ingested by flies; larvae develop in flies and reinfect new hosts.
    • Pathology includes irritation and inflammation of the eye, leading to conjunctivitis and keratitis.
    • Clinical signs consist of excessive tearing, conjunctivitis, squinting, and potential corneal ulcers.
    • Diagnosis is made through direct observation of worms or larvae in tear fluid via slit-lamp examination.
    • Treatment includes manual removal of worms, with anthelmintics like ivermectin or antibiotics for secondary infections.
    • Preventative measures focus on controlling fly populations and safeguarding animals from fly exposure.
    • Zoonotic potential exists as humans can contract the infection, leading to similar eye symptoms.

    Heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis)

    • Adult female Dirofilaria immitis can reach up to 30 cm; males grow to about 15 cm.
    • Primarily found in the right ventricle and pulmonary arteries.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and ferrets; humans are rare hosts.
    • Intermediate hosts are mosquitoes, mainly from Aedes, Culex, and Anopheles species.
    • Life cycle starts when a mosquito ingests microfilariae; the larvae develop into infective L3 forms and are transmitted during blood meals.
    • Mature worms cause chronic pulmonary hypertension, right heart failure, and may lead to vena cava syndrome.
    • Clinical signs include cough, exercise intolerance, weight loss, ascites, and potentially death.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying microfilariae in blood or utilizing tests like antigen detection, radiography, and echocardiography.
    • Modified Knott's test differentiates Dirofilaria immitis microfilariae from Dipetalonema microfilaria by size and movement.
    • Treatment includes adulticidal and microfilaricidal drugs, surgical removal, and supportive care; prevention is through chemoprophylaxis with ivermectin or similar drugs.
    • Wolbachia pipientis influences the pathology by triggering inflammation upon parasite death; it's susceptible to doxycycline.
    • Rarely infects humans causing pulmonary dirofilariasis, often asymptomatic.

    Dipetalonema reconditum

    • No specific common name; often referred to as a non-pathogenic filarial worm in dogs.
    • Adults are small; males are 4-5 cm, females 6-7 cm, found in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive host is the dog; fleas and lice serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle initiated when fleas or lice ingest microfilariae from an infected dog; microfilariae develop into infective larvae.
    • Considered non-pathogenic; typically, no clinical signs noted.
    • Diagnosis via identification of microfilariae using the modified Knott's test.
    • Treatment unnecessary unless indicated, with possible use of ivermectin; preventative measures focus on controlling ectoparasites.

    North American Guinea Worm (Dracunculus insignis)

    • Adults can reach 28 cm; males are smaller, residing in subcutaneous tissues.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and raccoons; copepods are the intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle involves ingestion of copepods containing L3 larvae, which then penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to the skin, forming blisters.
    • Causes localized inflammation and irritation from the blister formation.
    • Diagnosis typically involves recognizing blisters and detecting larvae microscopically.
    • Treatment entails careful extraction of the worm and broad-spectrum anthelmintics.
    • Not zoonotic; control of species is critical for public health.

    Canine Lungworm (Filaroides osleri)

    • Small, slender adults measure 6 mm for males and 13 mm for females; found in nodules in the trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive host is the dog; life cycle is direct with adult worms laying eggs that hatch into infective L1 larvae.
    • Causes bronchitis and can lead to airway obstruction due to nodules.
    • Clinical signs include chronic coughing, respiratory distress, and anorexia.
    • Diagnosis involves fecal examination for larvae and potential bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment includes anthelmintics and may require surgical excision of nodules.

    Bronchial Capillarid (Capillaria aerophila)

    • Adults are small (2-3 cm), whip-like worms found in the trachea and bronchi.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and wild mammals; life cycle is direct.
    • Causes local irritation leading to tracheitis and bronchitis.
    • Clinical signs can include cough and difficulty breathing; infections can often be asymptomatic.
    • Diagnosis through egg identification in feces or respiratory secretions.
    • Treatment with broad-spectrum anthelmintics; sanitation is key for prevention.

    Feline Lungworm (Aelurostrongylus abstrusus)

    • Small adults (0.7-1.0 cm) found in lung parenchyma of cats.
    • Definitive host is the cat; intermediate hosts are snails and slugs.
    • Life cycle is indirect, involving the ingestion of L3 larvae from intermediate hosts.
    • Infection leads to subpleural nodules and can cause chronic bronchitis and respiratory failure.
    • Diagnosis may involve lower sensitivity techniques like the Baermann method or visualization through bronchoscopy.
    • Treatment utilizes anthelmintics, with prevention focused on avoiding hunting behaviors.

    North American Lung Fluke (Paragonimus kellicotti)

    • Adults are larger flukes (1 cm), residing in lungs within cystic structures.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and humans; snails and crayfish serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Complex life cycle involves two intermediate hosts and leads to inflammation and granuloma formation in lungs.
    • Clinical signs can include cough, pulmonary hemorrhage, and abscess formation.
    • Diagnosis through identification of eggs in feces or lung examination post-surgery.
    • Treatment focuses on removal of flukes with anthelmintics; prevention involves proper food and water handling to avoid contaminated sources.### Paragonimus kellicotti Infection
    • Clinical signs include coughing, malaise, fever, and potential pulmonary hemorrhage in severe cases.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in sputum or feces using sedimentation.
    • Radiographic imaging may reveal lung cysts, while thoracic ultrasound visualizes cysts or pleural fluid.
    • Treatment options are praziquantel or fenbendazole, effective against adult flukes.
    • Prevention involves avoiding raw or undercooked crayfish and controlling crayfish exposure to pets.
    • Zoonotic concerns exist as humans can get infected, leading to paragonimiasis with symptoms like chronic cough and chest pain.

    Pearsonema plica (Bladder Worm)

    • Adult morphology consists of thin, thread-like worms ranging from 1 to 6 cm in length, found in the urinary bladder mucosa.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs, cats, and wild mammals; earthworms serve as intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle starts with eggs containing first-stage larvae passed in urine, which earthworms ingest and develop into infective larvae before entering definitive hosts via ingestion.
    • Prepatent period is approximately 60 days.
    • Pathology includes irritation and inflammation of the bladder, leading to chronic cystitis and potential secondary infections.
    • Clinical signs can be mild; significant infections may show cystitis, painful urination, and hematuria.
    • Diagnosis is made by identifying bipolar, lemon-shaped eggs in urine sediment.
    • Treatment includes ivermectin or fenbendazole; prevention focuses on controlling earthworm access and regular deworming.
    • No significant public health concerns; it does not infect humans.

    Dioctophyme renale (Giant Kidney Worm)

    • Adult morphology features large, red nematodes with females up to 1 meter and males 20-40 cm in length, residing primarily in the right kidney.
    • Definitive hosts include dogs and carnivores like mink; earthworms are the intermediate hosts, with fish and frogs as paratenic hosts.
    • Life cycle begins with unembryonated eggs in urine, which then embryonate in aquatic environments and are consumed by earthworms, leading to infective larvae.
    • Prepatent period is about 5-6 months.
    • Pathology results from destruction of renal parenchyma, potentially causing uremia and renal failure; peritonitis may occur if the renal capsule ruptures.
    • Clinical signs can be absent in single kidney infections; severe cases show symptoms of uremia and nausea.
    • Diagnosis involves identifying eggs in urine, imaging damaged kidneys, or exploratory surgery in advanced cases.
    • Treatment primarily requires surgical nephrectomy; prevention focuses on avoiding raw fish or untreated water.
    • Zoonotic potential exists as humans can become infected through undercooked fish or paratenic hosts; larvae may migrate aberrantly in humans.

    Thelazia californiensis (Eye Worm)

    • Adult morphology consists of small, thin nematodes up to 15 mm long, residing in the conjunctival sac and lacrimal ducts.
    • Definitive hosts are various animals including dogs, cats, and humans; flies serve as the intermediate hosts.
    • Life cycle initiates with female worms producing first-stage larvae in tears, ingested by flies and developing into infective larvae before reinfecting hosts.
    • Prepatent period lasts about 3-6 weeks.
    • Pathology includes irritation leading to conjunctivitis and keratitis, causing symptoms like excessive tearing and photophobia.
    • Clinical signs can manifest as abnormal tearing, squinting, and visible movement of worms in the eye; severe infections may lead to corneal ulcers.
    • Diagnosis is typically made through direct observation in the conjunctival sac; slit-lamp examination can assist.
    • Treatment involves manual removal of worms and possible anthelmintic administration; antibiotics may be necessary for secondary infections.
    • Prevention focuses on controlling fly populations and limiting animal exposure to flies.
    • Zoonotic risks exist as humans can be infected, presenting similar ocular symptoms linked to contact with infected animals or flies.

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