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Questions and Answers

What role does Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF) play in the process of angiogenesis?

  • It stimulates the growth of new blood vessels. (correct)
  • It inhibits blood vessel growth.
  • It breaks down collagen in scar tissue.
  • It promotes fibroblast activation.

    • What characterizes the tissue formation during second intention healing?

  • Large scars develop due to inability to approximate edges. (correct)
  • Edges of the wound can be directly approximated.
  • Scar tissue forms without inflammation.
  • Epithelial regeneration is the primary mechanism.

    • What is the primary function of myofibroblasts in scar maturation?

  • They have contractile proteins that pull wound edges together. (correct)
  • They inhibit collagen production.
  • They produce fibrin to promote clotting.
  • They secrete inflammatory cytokines.

    • Which type of scar is beyond the borders of the original wound and contains disorganized collagen?

    <p>Keloid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines exudate compared to transudate in terms of fluid accumulation?

    <p>Exudate is a protein-rich fluid resulting from inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key factor in the development of hydrothorax?

    <p>Fluid accumulation in the thoracic cavity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the predominant mechanism leading to edema during hyperemia?

    <p>Active vasodilation delivering more blood to tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about hypertrophic scars is true?

    <p>They have type III collagen arranged in parallel.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the urea cycle?

    <p>Conversion of ammonia to urea for excretion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by elevated ammonia due to enzyme defects in the urea cycle?

    <p>Primary hyperammonemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of glutamine in the context of ammonia transport?

    <p>To carry NH4+ to the liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects?

    <p>Folate (Vitamin B9)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with severe cases of hyperammonemia?

    <p>Glossitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can be a consequence of a deficiency in cobalamin (Vitamin B12)?

    <p>Secondary folate deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance is a competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)?

    <p>Methotrexate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a diagnostic marker for folate deficiency after histidine ingestion?

    <p>FIGLU in urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does hyperammonemia affect glutamate levels in the body?

    <p>It lowers glutamate levels due to conversion to glutamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does tetrahydrofolate (THF) play in one-carbon metabolism?

    <p>It facilitates the transfer of one-carbon groups</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of S-Adenosylmethionine (SAM) in metabolism?

    <p>Methyl-group donation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme deficiency leads to classic homocystinuria?

    <p>Cystathionine beta-synthase (CBS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which glucose transporter is insulin dependent and primarily found in muscle and adipose tissue?

    <p>GLUT4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does ATP influence insulin release from beta islet cells?

    <p>It leads to depolarization of the cell membrane.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do incretins like GIP and GLP-1 play in glucose metabolism?

    <p>They enhance insulin secretion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is primarily characterized by polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia?

    <p>Type 1 Diabetes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major consequence of excessive glucocorticoids in diabetes pathophysiology?

    <p>Increased gluconeogenesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What damage is associated with advanced glycation end products (AGE) in diabetes?

    <p>Enhanced oxidative stress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of the hexosamine pathway activation in hyperglycemia?

    <p>Exacerbated end organ damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of arteriosclerosis is associated with diabetes and increases the risk of neuropathy?

    <p>Hyaline arteriosclerosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of sorbitol in diabetic neuropathy?

    <p>It accumulates and leads to neuronal damage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the pathway through which glucose converts to fructose and acts as a primary energy source for spermatozoa?

    <p>Polyol Pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?

    <p>Hemolytic anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common enzyme deficiency found globally and is linked to increased resistance to falciparum malaria?

    <p>G6PD deficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by caloric deficiency that leads to muscle wasting and fat emaciation?

    <p>Marasmus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a precipitating factor for hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency?

    <p>Iron overload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following characterizes the metabolic state during fatty acid synthesis?

    <p>Utilizes acetyl-CoA and ATP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cellular adaptation refers to the increase in cell number due to growth factors?

    <p>Hyperplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of purulent inflammation?

    <p>High protein content with many neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'dysplasia' refer to in cellular adaptation?

    <p>Pre-neoplastic change of disordered growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nutrient deficiency is primarily linked with the edema seen in Kwashiorkor?

    <p>Protein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition describes the life-threatening inflammation secondary to a severe infection?

    <p>Sepsis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism leads to reperfusion injury?

    <p>Restoration of blood flow causing oxidative stress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a hallmark of chronic inflammation?

    <p>Presence of neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the complement system in immune response?

    <p>Pathogen destruction through a cascade of reactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes the terms 'serous' and 'fibrinous' in relation to inflammation exudates?

    <p>Serous is protein-poor while fibrinous is protein-rich</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes an Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (AHTR)?

    <p>Fever, chills, and DIC due to immune-mediated lysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood product is most likely to cause Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)?

    <p>Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for the development of hereditary cancer in tumor suppressor genes?

    <p>One germline mutation and one somatic event</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Skipper’s Log-Kill Hypothesis state regarding anticancer drugs?

    <p>Each dose reduces the tumor mass by a fixed percentage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic defines a malignant tumor such as sarcoma?

    <p>Arises from solid mesenchymal tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of anemia resulting from blasts in acute leukemia?

    <p>Pancytopenia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the mechanism of an Anaphylactic Transfusion Reaction?

    <p>IgE mediated response to donor plasma proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary defect in Myelodysplastic Syndrome?

    <p>Ineffective hematopoiesis due to abnormal progenitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which genetic event leads to the activation of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes?

    <p>One activation event</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of blood disorder is characterized by elevated WBC counts without the presence of blast cells?

    <p>Chronic Leukemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical finding in tumors that produce a mass effect?

    <p>Space-occupying lesions that destroy normal tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic of tumors is related to the Warburg effect?

    <p>Utilization of aerobic glycolysis for cell replication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are biomarkers of cancer useful for?

    <p>Suggesting potential neoplasms before biopsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    UICOM Block Two Study Guide

    • This study guide covers pathogenesis and microbiology for medical school preclinical curriculum.
    • It includes open access study guides for various medical topics.

    Open Access Pre-Clinical Study Guides

    • Body Systems & Homeostasis (65 pages)
    • Pathogenesis & Microbiology (90 pages)
    • Musculoskeletal, Skin, Connective Tissue Study Guide (90 pages)
    • Cardiology Study Guide (69 pages)
    • Respiratory Study Guide (50 pages)
    • Renal Study Guide (39 pages)
    • Gastrointestinal Study Guide (60 pages)
    • Neurology / Psychiatry Study Guide (125 pages)
    • Endocrine Study Guide (39 pages)
    • Reproduction Study Guide (44 pages)
    • Biostatistics / Epidemiology Study Guide (10 pages)
    • Physical Exam Maneuvers Study Guide (13 pages)

    Block 2 - Week 1: Fate of Amino Acids - Urea Cycle

    • Fed state: protein synthesis
    • Fasting state: protein degradation
    • Amino acids are transported to the liver to build blood proteins and convert excess nitrogen into urea.
    • Alanine/glutamate are major nitrogen carriers in the blood from muscle and kidney.
    • Aminotransferases are the first step in amino acid breakdown.
    • NH₄⁺ is toxic, so amino acids travel until converted to urea for excretion.
    • Blood ALT/AST levels measure liver injury.

    Block 2 - Week 1: Glutamate/Glutamine

    • Glutamine is used to transport nitrogen to the liver to make urea.
    • Glutamine/glutamate interconversion carries NH₄⁺.

    Block 2 - Week 1: Urea Cycle

    • The urea cycle converts ammonia to urea for excretion.
    • It occurs exclusively in the liver, using several enzymes (CPS I, OTC, ASS, ASL)
    • Defects in urea cycle enzymes or transporters can lead to hyperammonemia.

    Block 2 - Week 1: Secondary Hyperammonemia

    • Secondary hyperammonemia: inhibited by substrate deficiencies / enzyme inhibition (e.g., fatty acid oxidation deficiency, carnitine cycle defects, etc.)

    Block 2 - Week 1: One Carbon Metabolism - Folate

    • Folate is found in nuts, lentils, chickpeas, leafy greens, and fortified food.
    • Deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
    • Folate aids in one-carbon transfer reactions for synthesis of purines, etc.
    • Folates are transported into epithelial cells and stored for 3-4 months in the liver.

    Block 2 - Week 1: One Carbon Metabolism - Cobalamin

    • Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) is produced by bacteria and found in meat.
    • Deficiency leads to secondary folate deficiency and irreversible neurological symptoms.
    • Cobalamin is vital for methyl-group transfer to various reactions.

    Block 2 - Week 1: Mono/Disaccharides and Pentose Phosphate Pathway

    • Galactose metabolism involves enzymes in many tissues (compared to liver-specific fructose metabolism)
    • Defects in fructose and galactose metabolism causes various disorders, including fructose intolerance and classic galactosemia.

    Block 2 - Week 1: Pentose Phosphate Pathway

    • Pentose Phosphate Pathway (PPP) generates NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate for various cellular processes.
    • NADPH plays a role in glutathione reduction, detoxification of H₂O₂, and phagocytosis.

    Block 2 - Week 1: Diabetes Pathophysiology

    • Pancreatic islets contain alpha cells (produce glucagon), beta cells (produce insulin), delta cells (produce somatostatin), and PP cells.
    • Beta cells help regulate glucose by releasing insulin.
    • Glucagon, epinephrine, increase blood glucose.

    Block 2 - Week 1: Type 1 vs Type 2 Diabetes

    • Key differences between Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes.
    • Pathophysiology of hyperglycemia, with a strong emphasis on advanced glycation end products (AGEs) interactions, protein kinase C activation, oxidative stress.
    • Key differences concerning glucose regulation.

    Block 2 - Week 1-2: Gram-Positive Bacteria

    • Covers Gram positive bacteria, including Staphylococcus (aureus, epidermidis, saprophyticus), Streptococci (pyogenes), and various anaerobic, aerobic bacilli
    • Specific features are summarized, including cell wall structure, hemolysis and antibiotic resistance etc.
    • A key focus is on infections and toxins.

    Additional: Block 2 - Week 2, 3, and 4

    • Other chapters and topics are not summarized.

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