Countershock, Cardioversion, and Defibrillation

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of delivering an electrical current to the heart during countershock?

  • To increase the heart's pumping efficiency.
  • To reset the heart rhythm. (correct)
  • To induce ventricular fibrillation.
  • To enhance the heart's natural rhythm.

During elective cardioversion, the electric current is synchronized with what part of the patient's heart rhythm?

  • The R wave. (correct)
  • The T wave.
  • The P wave.
  • The PR interval.

What range of energy is typically used initially for elective cardioversion?

  • 50-70 J
  • 300-360 J
  • 250-300 J
  • 100-120 J (correct)

Which of the following rhythms would most likely require unsynchronized defibrillation?

<p>Ventricular fibrillation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it critical to push the 'sync' button on a cardioverter/defibrillator before performing elective cardioversion?

<p>To synchronize the discharge with the R wave. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in the delivery of electrical shock between cardioversion and defibrillation?

<p>Cardioversion is synchronized with the patient's R wave, while defibrillation is not. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done immediately after delivering an electrical shock during a resuscitation attempt?

<p>Check pulse and rhythm, and continue CPR if indicated. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to confirm intravenous (IV) access and address electrolyte imbalances prior to performing cardioversion?

<p>To have a route for administering medications and to correct conditions that may affect heart rhythm. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to remove oxygen and metallic objects from the patient before performing cardioversion or defibrillation?

<p>To prevent interference with the delivery of the electrical shock and reduce the risk of burns. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What safety precaution is emphasized before delivering a countershock?

<p>Shout 'All clear!' and ensure no one is touching the bed or patient. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of a cardiac pacemaker?

<p>To deliver an electrical stimulus to the heart when the heart's natural conduction system fails. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pacemaker lead placement involves wires being inserted through the subclavian or jugular veins?

<p>Permanent pacemakers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with complete heart block, which type of pacing is most likely to be used?

<p>Ventricular pacing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'triggered' mean in the context of pacemaker modes?

<p>The pacemaker fires an impulse in response to sensing a natural beat. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a nurse ensure regarding a temporary pacemaker's settings?

<p>The pacemaker settings are maintained via sterile technique. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'failure to capture' refer to in the context of pacemaker malfunction?

<p>The pacemaker initiates an impulse, but it does not result in myocardial depolarization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is unique to ICDs that can prevent the need for a defibrillation shock?

<p>Anti-tachycardia pacing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of inducing hypothermia after cardiac arrest?

<p>To protect the brain by slowing body metabolism. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What electrolyte imbalance is a major concern during the rewarming phase of hypothermia therapy?

<p>Hyperkalemia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information provided, which coronary artery supplies blood to the anterior wall of the heart?

<p>Left Anterior Descending (LAD) Artery. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In elective cardioversion, what is the significance of synchronizing the electrical current with the patient's heart rhythm?

<p>It minimizes the risk of inducing ventricular fibrillation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is an unsynchronized shock used during defibrillation?

<p>Because there is no discernible R wave to synchronize with in the patient's rhythm. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before elective cardioversion, a patient is often assessed using a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE). What is the primary reason for this?

<p>To assess for the presence of clots in the atria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for removing metallic objects from a patient before performing cardioversion or defibrillation?

<p>To avoid the risk of burns to the patient. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for the nurse to report electrolyte imbalances, particularly potassium, calcium, and magnesium, to the physician before cardioversion?

<p>Electrolyte imbalances can alter the effectiveness and increase the risks associated with cardioversion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cardiac pacing, what does 'inhibition' refer to?

<p>The pacemaker withholding an electrical impulse when the patient's intrinsic rhythm is adequate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of ensuring that the temporary pacemaker is kept insulated with a sterile glove and close to the patient's chest when it is not in use?

<p>To prevent accidental dislodgement or contamination of the pacing wires. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the implication of a pacemaker 'competing' with the patient's own impulse generation?

<p>The pacemaker may discharge during the heart’s relative refractory period, potentially causing ventricular fibrillation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes how an ICD’s anti-tachycardia pacing (ATP) works to prevent ventricular tachycardia from escalating to ventricular fibrillation?

<p>Overriding the rapid rhythm with a series of rapid pacing impulses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale behind using cooling techniques, such as cold saline infusion or cooling blankets, in post-cardiac arrest care?

<p>To lower the body’s metabolic rate and protect the brain from ischemic damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the rewarming phase of hypothermia therapy, what electrolyte imbalance is of greatest concern and requires careful monitoring?

<p>Hyperkalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) with ST segment elevation (STEMI) in leads II, III, and aVF, which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

<p>Right coronary artery (RCA) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ECG change is indicative of myocardial ischemia?

<p>Inverted T wave (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On an ECG, what abnormality suggests there is myocardial injury?

<p>ST segment elevation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ECG change is characteristic of an established myocardial infarction (MI) with necrosis?

<p>Significant Q waves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with an anteroseptal MI, which ECG leads would most likely show indicative changes?

<p>V1 plus any anterior leads (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern when a patient with a temporary pacemaker develops symptomatic bradycardia postoperatively, and the pacemaker is set to a fixed rate?

<p>Potential for the pacemaker to initiate a rhythm during the heart's vulnerable repolarization phase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. The 12-lead ECG shows ST depression in multiple leads. What does this finding suggest?

<p>Myocardial ischemia, potentially indicating an area of the heart not receiving enough oxygen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoes cardioversion for atrial fibrillation and converts to sinus rhythm. Post-procedure, the ECG shows new T wave inversions in several leads. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?

<p>The T wave inversions are a sign of myocardial stunning from the electrical shock requiring further investigation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When setting up transcutaneous pacing, placing the pads in which configuration will likely provide the most effective pacing?

<p>One pad on the upper right chest below the clavicle and the other on the left midaxillary line. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to deliver an electrical current that is 'synchronized' in elective cardioversion?

<p>To prevent inducing ventricular fibrillation by avoiding the relative refractory period. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following rhythms is elective cardioversion the MOST appropriate intervention?

<p>Supraventricular tachycardia resistant to medication in a stable patient. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the 'sync' button on a cardioverter/defibrillator?

<p>It tells the device to deliver the electrical shock in synchronization with the patient’s R wave. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is scheduled for elective cardioversion. Which of the following pre-procedure interventions is critical for preventing potential complications?

<p>Transesophageal echocardiogram to assess for atrial thrombi. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical action to take immediately before delivering an electrical shock during cardioversion?

<p>Ensuring that all personnel are clear of the bed and patient. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of temporary cardiac pacing, what does the term 'triggered' signify?

<p>The pacemaker delivers an impulse in response to sensing the patient's own intrinsic beat. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate action if a patient with a temporary pacemaker exhibits a 'failure to capture'?

<p>Increase the milliamperes (mA) on the pacemaker to deliver a stronger stimulus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of anti-tachycardia pacing (ATP) in an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)?

<p>ATP delivers a series of rapid electrical impulses to interrupt and terminate ventricular tachycardia, potentially averting the need for a shock. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to closely monitor for electrolyte imbalances, particularly potassium levels, during the rewarming phase of hypothermia therapy after cardiac arrest?

<p>Hyperkalemia can occur as potassium shifts out of cells, potentially leading to arrhythmias. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient post-cardiac arrest is undergoing targeted temperature management (TTM). What is the primary rationale for maintaining the patient's temperature between 90-93°F (32-34°C)?

<p>To slow the body’s metabolism, reducing brain damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following ECG changes is MOST indicative of myocardial ischemia?

<p>Inverted T wave. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On an ECG, which finding is MOST suggestive of myocardial injury?

<p>ST segment elevation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ECG characteristic is MOST indicative of an established myocardial infarction (MI) with necrosis?

<p>Significant Q wave. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI). If the infarct is located in the inferior wall of the left ventricle, which coronary artery is MOST likely occluded?

<p>Right coronary artery (RCA). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After open-heart surgery, a patient's temporary epicardial pacemaker is set to a fixed rate. Postoperatively, the patient develops symptomatic bradycardia, and the ECG shows pacing spikes that are not consistently followed by a QRS complex. What is the primary concern?

<p>The pacemaker output (mA) setting is too low to achieve consistent capture and is leading to 'failure to capture'. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known coronary artery disease is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain. The 12-lead ECG reveals ST-segment depression in multiple leads. Which of the following is the MOST likely interpretation of this finding?

<p>Myocardial ischemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient undergoes cardioversion for atrial fibrillation. Post-procedure, the ECG shows new T wave inversions in several leads. What is the MOST likely explanation for this finding?

<p>Myocardial stunning from the electrical shock. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving transcutaneous pacing. Which pad placement is MOST likely to provide effective cardiac pacing?

<p>One pad on the anterior chest and one on the posterior chest. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a dual-chamber pacemaker is being evaluated. What does it mean if the pacemaker is classified as DDD?

<p>It is a dual-chamber pacemaker that can sense and pace in both the atria and ventricles, and can be triggered or inhibited. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with a newly inserted transvenous pacemaker. Which nursing intervention is MOST important to prevent infection at the insertion site?

<p>Ensuring the insertion site is kept dry and covered with a sterile dressing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Countershock

The use of electric current to reset a heart rhythm.

Elective Cardioversion

A synchronized countershock to convert dysrhythmias.

Defibrillation

An unsynchronized, high-energy shock to convert dysrhythmias.

AED

Automatic External Defibrillator; used by medical and lay persons.

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Pacemaker

A device that delivers an electrical stimulus to the heart.

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Permanent Pacemaker

Pulse generator implanted in subcutaneous tissue.

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External Pacemakers

Temporary pacing via pads on the chest.

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Output

Where the energy amount per beat is set.

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Sensitivity

Heart sensitive to electrical activity, when the fire.

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Triggered

Pacemaker fires impulse in response to sensing.

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electrical activity

If arrhythmia is ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation.

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Inhibited

Pacemaker compensates for lack of intrinsic beats.

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Capture

When the stimulus is enough to produce depolarization.

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Sensing

Pacemaker 'senses' patient's own impulse generation

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Failure to sense

A pacemaker competes with pt's own impulse.

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Failure to capture

If stimulus is not strong enough to produce depolarization.

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Hypothermia Therapy

A way to reverse cardiac arrest by slowing metabolism.

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Ischemia

Correlates to heart starving for blood and oxygen.

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Injury

Correlates to tissue injured by lack of profusion.

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Infarction

tissue necrosis

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Elective Cardioversion Energy

Initially delivered at 100-120 J, up to 200 J. Synchronized with the patient's heart rhythm.

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Defibrillation Energy

Delivers a larger number of joules (up to 360 J). Unsynchronized, as there is no discernible R wave to sync with.

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Cardioversion Indications

SVT resistant to meds, A-fib/flutter, unstable V-tach.

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Defibrillation Indications

Pulseless V-tach and V-fib.

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Cardioversion Synchronization

Press the sync button to coordinate with the R wave

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Pacemaker: Primary Function

Conduction fails or does not produce sufficient cardiac output.

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Standard Pad Placement

Conductive pads are placed on the right chest and midaxillary line.

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Epicardial pacemakers

Placed 2 wires at the atrial level, 2 wires stitched at ventricular level.

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Transvenous Pacemakers

Delivers electrical stimulation through the R ventricle or R atrial endocardium via electrode-tipped catheter.

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Pacing Rate

Top dial controls rate (Beats per minute).

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Ischemia EKG Change

Heart starves for blood and oxygen; inverted T wave.

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Injury EKG Change

Tissue injured by lack of perfusion; ST segment elevation.

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Infarction: EKG Change

Tissue necrosis; significant Q wave.

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Anterior MI Artery

Blocked blood flow in Left Anterior Descending.

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Anteroseptal MI Changes

Indicative changes in V1 plus any anterior leads.

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Inferior MI Artery

Right Coronary Artery.

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Synchronized Cardioversion

Delivery of an electric current synchronized with a patient's heart rhythm.

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Post-shock actions

Resume CPR and ACLS immediately after the shock; follow ACLS guidelines.

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Epicardial Pacing

A temporary pacing method used post-open heart surgery; wires are placed in the atria and ventricles.

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Failure to fire

Pulse generator fails to discharge electricity at the appointed time.

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Therapeutic Hypothermia

Slows metabolism to protect brain during cardiac arrest; target 90-93°F.

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Cooling Concerns

Atrial or ventricular dysrhythmias are common; manage PR, QRS, or QT prolongations carefully.

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Anterior Wall Artery

Anterior wall fed by Left anterior descending artery.

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ST depression

Implies ischemia; ST segment below baseline..

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Concave ST elevation

Indicates myocardial injury, but also seen with pericarditis.

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Convex ST elevation

Indicates myocardial injury or STEMI in progress.

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Study Notes

  • Study notes on circulatory assist devices, pacemakers, myocardial infarction (MI), and electrocardiogram (EKG) changes

Countershock

  • Electric current to reset the heart rhythm
  • Includes cardioversion and defibrillation

Elective Cardioversion vs. Defibrillation

  • Elective Cardioversion: Delivers synchronized electric current to convert dysrhythmias, initially at 100-120 J, up to 200 J
  • Defibrillation: Delivers unsynchronized electric shock, administering a larger number of joules up to 360 J
    • In defibrillation there is no discernible R wave to sync with

Indications for Countershocks

  • Elective Cardioversion: Used when SVT is resistant to medication, in atrial fibrillation or flutter and for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia,
  • Symptoms for unstable ventricular tachycardia in patients can include hypotension, dyspnea, or chest pain
  • May also be used if the person has symptoms suggestive of heart failure, myocardial infarction, or myocardial ischemia
  • Defibrillation: Used for pulseless patients with ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation

Interventions for Countershocks

  • Once patient is attached, push "sync" button before each cardioversion attempt
  • Syncs with the R wave and the patient MUST HAVE an R or QS wave to sync with
  • The machine discharges after the R wave and before the downstroke of the T wave
  • During the absolute refractory period
  • If performed during relative refractory period, ventricular fibrillation may result
  • Apply conductive paste or gel pads on the chest wall at the apex and base of the heart
  • Obtain continuous ECGs during the procedure
  • Automatic External Defibrillator (AED) can be used by medical/lay persons
  • AED uses IECG to detect patterns through large patches on the patient's chest
  • If lethal dysrhythmia is detected, AED defibrillates
  • AED will instruct the user on how to operate

Nursing Role in Preparation for Countershocks

  • Start at low frequency, then increase
  • Obtain informed consent and educate on the procedure
  • Ensure an MD, RN, RT and RPh are present
  • Obtain an ECG strip
  • Check for atrium clots with a transesophageal echocardiogram
  • Confirm IV access and meds are given
  • If hemodynamically unstable then sedative meds are given
    • Light sedative
    • Conscious
    • Moderate sedation
    • Hypnotic sedative and narcotic analgesic: Etomidate, fentanyl
  • Report any electrolyte imbalance (Ca, Mg, K)
  • Remove oxygen and metallic objects
  • Apply conductive pads to the right chest and midaxillary line
    • Can also be placed on anterior and posterior chest walls, which is better for people with atrial fibrillation
  • Ensure that "All clear!" is called before the shock, and no one touches the bed or patient

Nursing Role after Countershocks

  • Resume CPR and ACLS immediately after the shock
  • Administer pharmacological interventions intravenously
  • Every Q2 minutes (~5 cycles of CPR), check pulse and rhythm, continue if indicated
  • Assess for Emboli(especially cerebral), respiratory depression, skin burns and dysrhythmias after the procedure

Pacemakers - Primary Function

  • Pulse generator to provide electrical stimulus to the heart when the heart's conduction fails or doesn’t produce sufficient cardiac output
  • Connected to wires that carry an electrical stimulus to the myocardial cells
  • Used in addition to drug therapy when the conduction system fails or cannot initiate an impulse spontaneously, or is unable to maintain primary pacing control
  • Can be programmed to pace when an intrinsic beat is not sensed as a backup trigger

Permanent Pacemakers

  • Internally implants pulse generator in subcutaneous tissue of the chest wall
  • Leads are passed transvenously to the heart and rest on the endocardium
  • Pacer wires are inserted through subclavian or jugular veins into the atria and/or ventricles

Ventricle Pacing

  • Most common type of pacemakers
  • Appear as a spike before wide and bizarre QRS
  • Impulses from the atria are blocked, such as in a complete heart block

Atrial Pacing

  • Appears as a spike before the P wave
  • Common with Sinus node disease leading to bradycardia
  • The SA node fires improperly as a result of ischemic damage to SA node which leads to bradycardia

Single Chamber Pacemakers

  • Can be in the atrium or the ventricle

Dual Chamber/Atrioventricular Pacemakers

  • Requires 2 wires for atrioventricular pacing
  • Used to synchronize heart depolarizations in order to maintain cardiac output

Temporary Pacemaker Types

  • External Pacemakers
    • Pads are placed on anterior and posterior walls of the chest
    • Delivers direct electrical impulses through the skin and body tissues via transcutaneous pacemakers
    • Can be painful and requires medication with sedatives and analgesics
    • Analyze ECG strip before and after

Epicardial Pacemakers

  • Temporary pacing used during open heart surgery
  • 2 wires stitched in at the atrial level and 2 wires stitched in at the ventricular level
  • Wires must be brought under the skin just under the sternum for access
  • Lightly sutured to easily remove when unneeded
  • Implanted to treat symptomatic bradycardia that arises post-surgery
  • When not in use must be kept insulated by a sterile glove near the chest
  • Nurse must keep sterile technique during the insertion site

Transvenous Pacemakers

  • Electrical stimulation of the right ventricular or R atrial endocardium via electrode-tipped catheter
  • Uses direct insertion of the pacing wire of a pulmonary artery catheter with embedded pacing port
  • Temporary, sterile, bedside procedure, requires x-ray to confirm placement

Pacemaker Box/Generator

  • Essential to ensure the pacemaker is set correctly
  • Pacing rate: Top dial in beats per minute (BPM)
  • Output: Middle dial, Energy amount in milliamperes
  • Sensitivity: Bottom dial, amount of electrical activity pacer senses to fire
  • Blue caps underneath connect wires

Pacemaker Terms

  • Know how to identify on an ECG
  • Triggered: Fires an impulse in response to sensing
  • Inhibited: Only initiates pacing, will not activate if the pacemaker senses an intrinsic beat
  • Double: Pacemaker reacts to both inhibition and triggering
  • Firing: Sends out an electrical impulse
  • Capture: A stimulus strong enough to produce depolarization
  • Sensing: Pacemaker "senses" the patient's own impulse generation

Three Letter Codes for Pacemakers

  • Chamber Paced: represents the chamber that will be paced - Atrium (A), Ventricle (V), or Dual (D)
  • Chamber Sensed: represents the chamber that the pacemaker will react to - Atrium (A), Ventricle (V), or Dual (D)
  • Pacemaker Response: represents what the pacemaker will do upon reaction - Triggered, Inhibited, or Double
  • Example for VVI: Ventricle, Ventricle, Inhibited - the ventricles will be paced only if necessary, if no intrinsic beat

Pacemaker Malfunctions

  • Failure to sense: Pacemaker competes with the patient's own impulses, it may discharge an impulse during the refractory period
  • Failure to capture: Initiates an impulse, but not strong enough for depolarization
  • Failure to fire: Unable to send an impulse, indicated by absence of a pacemaker spike

ICDs

  • Function in "Countershock" area
  • Used to prevent sudden cardiac arrest as well as sustained ventricular tachycardia
  • Prophylactically used in high risk groups; cardiomyopathy.
  • Pacemaker capabilities: To defibrillate or cardiovert and anti-tachycardia pacing to avoid conversion, treats bradycardia

Hypothermia Therapy and Cardiac Arrest

  • Cooling technique for those who have already experienced cardiac arrest to 90-93 degrees F
  • Slows body metabolism to protect the brain and reduce mortality
  • 80% of patients who received hypothermia resulted in a more favorable neurological outcome than normothermia,
  • Externally cools via cooling blanket device, cool pads, or blankets
  • Internally cools via cold intravenous saline infusion which circulates fluid percutaneously through jugular catheters
  • Measures skin for cold burns
  • Hypothermia leads to Atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias with PR, QRS, QT elongations
    • Also leads to common hypokalemia

Nursing Care when Rewarming from Hypothermia

  • Occurs after 12-24 hours of therapy
  • Can lead to hyperkalemia and vasodilation, electrolyte shifts
  • Closely follow CVP, ScVO2, and urine output
  • Fluid shifts are an indicator, if CVP and UO declines, may need fluid therapy

MI Patterns on a 12 Lead ECG

  • Anterior MI: Front wall, supplied by the left anterior descending artery
  • Inferior MI: Bottom and right side wall, supplied by the right coronary artery
  • Lateral MI: Left side wall, supplied by the circumflex artery
  • Posterior MI: Back wall, supplied by the right coronary artery
  • Anterior leads have ST elevation in V2-V4 and reciprocal changes in II, III, aVF
  • Inferior leads have ST elevations in II, III, aVF and reciprocal changes in 1, aVL, and V1-V6

ECG Changes with Ischemia, Injury and Infarction

  • Ischemia: Heart starves for blood and oxygen, appears as an inverted T wave and pale or whitish tissue
  • Injury: Tissue injured by lack of perfusion, appears as ST segment elevation and blueish tissue
  • Infarction: Tissue necrosis, appears as significant Q wave and black tissue

ST Segment Abnormalities

  • Normal ST: At the same baseline as PR
  • ST Depression: ST below baseline indicates ischemia or reciprocal changes of an infarct
  • Concave ST elevation: ST above the baseline with rounded edges, may indicate pericarditis or myocardial infarction (STEMIs)
  • Convex ST elevation: ST above the baseline with coved edges, typically associated with myocardial injury

MI Locations + CA distribution

  • Anterior MI
    • ST elevation in V2-V4
    • Reciprocal changes II, III, aVF
    • CA: left anterior descending (LAD)
  • Inferior ΜΙ
    • ST elevations in II, III, avF
    • Reciprocal changes in I, aVL, and V1-V6
    • CA: right coronary artery (RCA)
  • Lateral MI
    • ST changes in I, aVL, V5, V6
    • Reciprocal changes II, III, aVF
    • CA: circumflex
  • Posterior MI
    • ST depression with tall R wave and upright T waves
    • Reciprocal changes in V1 & V2
    • CA: RCA or circumflex
  • Extensive Anterior MI
    • Indicative changes in I, aVL, V1 to V6
    • Reciprocal changes in II, III, aVF
    • CA: LAD or left main
  • Anteroseptal MI
    • Indicative changes in V1 plus any anterior leads
    • Usually no reciprocal changes
    • CA: LAD
  • MIs can extend across into other walls, besides the left ventricle

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