Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following is the primary function of erythrocytes?
Which of the following is the primary function of erythrocytes?
- Synthesizing clotting factors
- Filtering waste products from the blood
- Producing antibodies to fight infections
- Transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues (correct)
A patient with chronic kidney disease has a decreased production of erythropoietin. Which of the following conditions is most likely to result from this deficiency?
A patient with chronic kidney disease has a decreased production of erythropoietin. Which of the following conditions is most likely to result from this deficiency?
- Aplastic anemia
- Megaloblastic anemia
- Anemia (correct)
- Polycythemia vera
Which stage in the differentiation of red blood cells is characterized by the first appearance of hemoglobin?
Which stage in the differentiation of red blood cells is characterized by the first appearance of hemoglobin?
- Basophil erythroblast
- Proerythroblast
- Reticulocyte
- Polychromatophil erythroblast (correct)
What is the role of Interleukin-3 in the production of blood cells?
What is the role of Interleukin-3 in the production of blood cells?
Which nutrient deficiency most commonly leads to maturation failure anemia, characterized by abnormally large red blood cells?
Which nutrient deficiency most commonly leads to maturation failure anemia, characterized by abnormally large red blood cells?
Following a surgical procedure, a patient experiences significant blood loss. Which of the following compensatory mechanisms is least likely to occur?
Following a surgical procedure, a patient experiences significant blood loss. Which of the following compensatory mechanisms is least likely to occur?
A patient is diagnosed with polycythemia vera. Which of the following findings is most consistent with this condition?
A patient is diagnosed with polycythemia vera. Which of the following findings is most consistent with this condition?
What is the average lifespan of red blood cells in circulation before they are removed from the body?
What is the average lifespan of red blood cells in circulation before they are removed from the body?
During which trimester of gestation does the liver become a primary site for red blood cell production?
During which trimester of gestation does the liver become a primary site for red blood cell production?
In the context of red blood cell production, what triggers the increase in erythropoietin secretion?
In the context of red blood cell production, what triggers the increase in erythropoietin secretion?
How does the biconcave shape of red blood cells contribute to their function?
How does the biconcave shape of red blood cells contribute to their function?
What is the role of carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells?
What is the role of carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells?
In which location does erythropoiesis exclusively occur in the last month of gestation and after birth?
In which location does erythropoiesis exclusively occur in the last month of gestation and after birth?
What is the primary mechanism by which hypoxia stimulates red blood cell production?
What is the primary mechanism by which hypoxia stimulates red blood cell production?
What term describes the passage of reticulocytes from the bone marrow into the blood capillaries?
What term describes the passage of reticulocytes from the bone marrow into the blood capillaries?
What is a possible consequence of increased blood viscosity due to polycythemia?
What is a possible consequence of increased blood viscosity due to polycythemia?
Which of the following is most likely to increase an individual's red blood cell concentration?
Which of the following is most likely to increase an individual's red blood cell concentration?
What characterizes the genetic makeup of hemoglobin A (HbA)?
What characterizes the genetic makeup of hemoglobin A (HbA)?
In an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus, what condition may occur?
In an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus, what condition may occur?
What is the primary function of the committed stem cell CFU-E?
What is the primary function of the committed stem cell CFU-E?
A researcher is studying erythropoiesis in vitro. Which growth factor would be most effective in promoting the proliferation of committed erythroid progenitor cells?
A researcher is studying erythropoiesis in vitro. Which growth factor would be most effective in promoting the proliferation of committed erythroid progenitor cells?
A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. Lab results show small, pale red blood cells. Which type of anemia is most likely?
A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. Lab results show small, pale red blood cells. Which type of anemia is most likely?
A patient with a chronic inflammatory condition develops anemia. What is the primary mechanism behind this type of anemia?
A patient with a chronic inflammatory condition develops anemia. What is the primary mechanism behind this type of anemia?
Which condition is characterized by a genetic defect leading to the production of abnormal hemoglobin, which can cause red blood cells to become sickle-shaped?
Which condition is characterized by a genetic defect leading to the production of abnormal hemoglobin, which can cause red blood cells to become sickle-shaped?
A patient involved in a car accident experiences significant blood loss. Initially, which type of anemia is most likely to develop?
A patient involved in a car accident experiences significant blood loss. Initially, which type of anemia is most likely to develop?
Which of the following conditions is characterized by an autoimmune destruction of platelet, often leading to thrombocytopenia?
Which of the following conditions is characterized by an autoimmune destruction of platelet, often leading to thrombocytopenia?
A researcher examines a blood smear and observes the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. What condition is most likely indicated by this finding?
A researcher examines a blood smear and observes the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. What condition is most likely indicated by this finding?
A patient undergoing chemotherapy develops a significantly reduced neutrophil count, leading to increased susceptibility to infections. What condition is the patient experiencing?
A patient undergoing chemotherapy develops a significantly reduced neutrophil count, leading to increased susceptibility to infections. What condition is the patient experiencing?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is often triggered by sepsis, trauma, or malignancy. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism in DIC?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is often triggered by sepsis, trauma, or malignancy. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism in DIC?
What describes how Heparin acts as an anticoagulant?
What describes how Heparin acts as an anticoagulant?
A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis is found to have a genetic mutation that increases their risk of clotting. Which inherited condition is most likely?
A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis is found to have a genetic mutation that increases their risk of clotting. Which inherited condition is most likely?
What is the primary role of plasmin in hemostasis?
What is the primary role of plasmin in hemostasis?
A patient presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, and a prolonged prothrombin time (PT). What deficiency is most likely responsible?
A patient presents with easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, and a prolonged prothrombin time (PT). What deficiency is most likely responsible?
Which factor initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
Which factor initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
A patient has a deficiency in Factor VIII. Which bleeding disorder is most likely indicated by this deficiency?
A patient has a deficiency in Factor VIII. Which bleeding disorder is most likely indicated by this deficiency?
Which of the following is the most common cause of increased erythropoietin production leading to secondary polycythemia?
Which of the following is the most common cause of increased erythropoietin production leading to secondary polycythemia?
In the bone marrow, what cells give rise to platelets?
In the bone marrow, what cells give rise to platelets?
A patient is diagnosed with von Willebrand disease. What process is primarily affected by this condition?
A patient is diagnosed with von Willebrand disease. What process is primarily affected by this condition?
What mechanisms are involved in hemostasis?
What mechanisms are involved in hemostasis?
A newborn infant is diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis. What is the underlying cause of this condition?
A newborn infant is diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis. What is the underlying cause of this condition?
A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?
A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?
Which stage of red blood cell differentiation is characterized by the presence of basophilic material, but after the hemoglobin has first started to appear?
Which stage of red blood cell differentiation is characterized by the presence of basophilic material, but after the hemoglobin has first started to appear?
What is the mechanism by which reticulocytes enter the blood capillaries from the bone marrow?
What is the mechanism by which reticulocytes enter the blood capillaries from the bone marrow?
What is the expected effect on red blood cell production if a patient experiences chronic hypoxemia due to severe pulmonary disease?
What is the expected effect on red blood cell production if a patient experiences chronic hypoxemia due to severe pulmonary disease?
How does hypoxia-inducible factor-1 (HIF-1) contribute to red blood cell production?
How does hypoxia-inducible factor-1 (HIF-1) contribute to red blood cell production?
What is the role of Vitamin B12 and folic acid in the production of healthy red blood cells?
What is the role of Vitamin B12 and folic acid in the production of healthy red blood cells?
Where does the formation of hemoglobin primarily take place within the developing red blood cells?
Where does the formation of hemoglobin primarily take place within the developing red blood cells?
A patient is diagnosed with a condition that impairs their ability to produce adequate amounts of intrinsic factor. What is the likely consequence of this deficiency on red blood cell production?
A patient is diagnosed with a condition that impairs their ability to produce adequate amounts of intrinsic factor. What is the likely consequence of this deficiency on red blood cell production?
What is the primary form of iron storage in the body?
What is the primary form of iron storage in the body?
What characterizes the red blood cells in megaloblastic anemia resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency?
What characterizes the red blood cells in megaloblastic anemia resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency?
What is the expected effect on blood viscosity following a significant increase in red blood cell concentration, as seen in polycythemia?
What is the expected effect on blood viscosity following a significant increase in red blood cell concentration, as seen in polycythemia?
What is the clinical significance of administering RhoGAM to an Rh-negative mother?
What is the clinical significance of administering RhoGAM to an Rh-negative mother?
What is the functional consequence of a deficiency in carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells?
What is the functional consequence of a deficiency in carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells?
How does the biconcave shape of red blood cells primarily contribute to their function?
How does the biconcave shape of red blood cells primarily contribute to their function?
A patient with chronic kidney disease has significantly reduced erythropoietin production. How does this directly affect erythropoiesis?
A patient with chronic kidney disease has significantly reduced erythropoietin production. How does this directly affect erythropoiesis?
In a scenario where a patient has a decreased blood volume due to hemorrhage, what is the initial compensatory response related to red blood cell production?
In a scenario where a patient has a decreased blood volume due to hemorrhage, what is the initial compensatory response related to red blood cell production?
What effect does increased blood volume have on venous return and cardiac output, especially in the context of polycythemia?
What effect does increased blood volume have on venous return and cardiac output, especially in the context of polycythemia?
A patient has a mutation affecting the hinge region of their myosin filaments. How would this likely impact muscle contraction?
A patient has a mutation affecting the hinge region of their myosin filaments. How would this likely impact muscle contraction?
How does an action potential lead to the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?
How does an action potential lead to the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?
What intracellular change occurs when acetylcholine binds to ligand-gated sodium channels at the motor endplate?
What intracellular change occurs when acetylcholine binds to ligand-gated sodium channels at the motor endplate?
How does acetylcholinesterase affect neuromuscular transmission?
How does acetylcholinesterase affect neuromuscular transmission?
How do T-tubules facilitate muscle contraction?
How do T-tubules facilitate muscle contraction?
What is the role of ryanodine receptor channels in muscle contraction?
What is the role of ryanodine receptor channels in muscle contraction?
What is the primary difference in the mechanism of action between multi-unit and unitary smooth muscle fibers?
What is the primary difference in the mechanism of action between multi-unit and unitary smooth muscle fibers?
How does smooth muscle contraction differ from skeletal muscle contraction in terms of energy consumption?
How does smooth muscle contraction differ from skeletal muscle contraction in terms of energy consumption?
In smooth muscle, what is the role of calmodulin in the contraction process?
In smooth muscle, what is the role of calmodulin in the contraction process?
Following a muscle sprain, which event occurs first in the healing process?
Following a muscle sprain, which event occurs first in the healing process?
Why is IV hydration a key intervention in rhabdomyolysis?
Why is IV hydration a key intervention in rhabdomyolysis?
How does the use of chronic steroids potentially impact anesthesia management in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
How does the use of chronic steroids potentially impact anesthesia management in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
Where is the primary site of red blood cell production during the middle trimester of gestation?
Where is the primary site of red blood cell production during the middle trimester of gestation?
What characterizes intramembranous bone formation?
What characterizes intramembranous bone formation?
What hormone primarily stimulates the growth plate in long bones?
What hormone primarily stimulates the growth plate in long bones?
What spinal curvature is typically present in newborns?
What spinal curvature is typically present in newborns?
What is the most common congenital defect of the upper extremity?
What is the most common congenital defect of the upper extremity?
What is a common clinical sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in infants?
What is a common clinical sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in infants?
A child presents with hypotonia, muscle weakness, and an inability to walk without support. What condition is most likely?
A child presents with hypotonia, muscle weakness, and an inability to walk without support. What condition is most likely?
What is the diagnostic hallmark of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
What is the diagnostic hallmark of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
In a child with beta-thalassemia major, what is the primary cause of early death?
In a child with beta-thalassemia major, what is the primary cause of early death?
What is the significance of deoxygenation in sickle cell disease?
What is the significance of deoxygenation in sickle cell disease?
Which of the following does NOT typically result in normocytic anemia?
Which of the following does NOT typically result in normocytic anemia?
During erythropoiesis, at which stage does hemoglobin synthesis predominantly commence, marking a critical transition in red blood cell development?
During erythropoiesis, at which stage does hemoglobin synthesis predominantly commence, marking a critical transition in red blood cell development?
What role does Interleukin-3 play in hematopoiesis?
What role does Interleukin-3 play in hematopoiesis?
How does the maturation process of reticulocytes into mature erythrocytes typically occur, and what characterizes this transition?
How does the maturation process of reticulocytes into mature erythrocytes typically occur, and what characterizes this transition?
What is the immediate cellular response initiated by renal tissue hypoxia to maintain adequate red blood cell production?
What is the immediate cellular response initiated by renal tissue hypoxia to maintain adequate red blood cell production?
Which molecular configuration defines hemoglobin A (HbA), the most common form of hemoglobin in adults?
Which molecular configuration defines hemoglobin A (HbA), the most common form of hemoglobin in adults?
How does the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, present in high concentrations within red blood cells, contribute to the overall physiology of respiration?
How does the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, present in high concentrations within red blood cells, contribute to the overall physiology of respiration?
How might a significant increase in red blood cell concentration, such as in polycythemia, affect venous return and cardiac output?
How might a significant increase in red blood cell concentration, such as in polycythemia, affect venous return and cardiac output?
What is the fundamental genetic mechanism that determines an individual's ABO blood type?
What is the fundamental genetic mechanism that determines an individual's ABO blood type?
What immunological event defines agglutination in the context of blood transfusions, potentially leading to transfusion reactions?
What immunological event defines agglutination in the context of blood transfusions, potentially leading to transfusion reactions?
How does vascular constriction contribute to hemostasis following a blood vessel injury?
How does vascular constriction contribute to hemostasis following a blood vessel injury?
How do platelets initially adhere to a damaged blood vessel wall to initiate the formation of a platelet plug?
How do platelets initially adhere to a damaged blood vessel wall to initiate the formation of a platelet plug?
What is the role of tissue factor in initiating the extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation?
What is the role of tissue factor in initiating the extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation?
What is the role of plasmin in the process of hemostasis, particularly in the later stages of clot stabilization?
What is the role of plasmin in the process of hemostasis, particularly in the later stages of clot stabilization?
How do thrombin inhibitors, such as antithrombin III, prevent excessive blood clot formation?
How do thrombin inhibitors, such as antithrombin III, prevent excessive blood clot formation?
What is the underlying mechanism of heparin's anticoagulant effect in the treatment and prevention of thromboembolic disorders?
What is the underlying mechanism of heparin's anticoagulant effect in the treatment and prevention of thromboembolic disorders?
What is the primary function of the colony-forming unit–erythrocyte (CFU-E) in erythropoiesis?
What is the primary function of the colony-forming unit–erythrocyte (CFU-E) in erythropoiesis?
What is diapedesis in the context of reticulocyte maturation?
What is diapedesis in the context of reticulocyte maturation?
What is the primary effect of deficiencies in Vitamin B12 and folic acid on red blood cell production?
What is the primary effect of deficiencies in Vitamin B12 and folic acid on red blood cell production?
In the context of erythropoiesis, which of the following occurs during the basophilic erythroblast stage?
In the context of erythropoiesis, which of the following occurs during the basophilic erythroblast stage?
What is the primary function of erythropoietin?
What is the primary function of erythropoietin?
Flashcards
Interleukin-3
Interleukin-3
Promotes growth and reproduction of virtually all types of committed stem cells.
Differentiation inducers
Differentiation inducers
Drive committed stem cells to differentiate into specific adult blood cell types.
Proerythroblast
Proerythroblast
First cell that can be identified as belonging to the RBC series.
Basophil erythroblasts
Basophil erythroblasts
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Polychromatophil erythroblasts
Polychromatophil erythroblasts
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Reticulocyte
Reticulocyte
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Diapedesis
Diapedesis
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Mature erythrocyte
Mature erythrocyte
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Erythropoietin
Erythropoietin
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Renal tissue Hypoxia
Renal tissue Hypoxia
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Hemoglobin A
Hemoglobin A
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Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
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Shape and Size of RBCs
Shape and Size of RBCs
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Genesis of Blood Cells
Genesis of Blood Cells
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Growth inducers
Growth inducers
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Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid
Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid
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Blood loss anemia
Blood loss anemia
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Aplastic anemia
Aplastic anemia
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Megaloblastic anemia
Megaloblastic anemia
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Hemolytic anemia
Hemolytic anemia
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Secondary polycythemia
Secondary polycythemia
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Polycythemia vera
Polycythemia vera
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Antigenicity and Immune Reaction of Blood
Antigenicity and Immune Reaction of Blood
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Agglutination and Hemolysis
Agglutination and Hemolysis
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Rh-positive
Rh-positive
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Rh-negative
Rh-negative
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Erythroblastosis Fetalis
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
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Hemostasis
Hemostasis
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Platelet Characteristics
Platelet Characteristics
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Extrinsic Pathway
Extrinsic Pathway
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Intrinsic Pathway
Intrinsic Pathway
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Common Pathway
Common Pathway
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Antithrombin III
Antithrombin III
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Heparin
Heparin
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Protein C
Protein C
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Plasmin and Clot Lysis
Plasmin and Clot Lysis
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Vitamin K Deficiency
Vitamin K Deficiency
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Hemophilia
Hemophilia
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Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia
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Fracture Healing Phases
Fracture Healing Phases
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)
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Rickets
Rickets
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Scoliosis
Scoliosis
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Osteomyelitis
Osteomyelitis
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Osteochondrosis
Osteochondrosis
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Cerebral Palsy (CP)
Cerebral Palsy (CP)
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Contractures
Contractures
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Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis
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Study Notes
Committed Stem Cells & Growth/Differentiation Inducers
- Committed stem cells are derived from multipotential hematopoietic stem cells
- They include CFU-E (colony-forming unit–erythrocyte) for erythrocytes; CFU-GM for granulocytes and monocytes
- Growth inducers are proteins promoting committed stem cell growth and reproduction
- Interleukin-3 promotes growth and reproduction of virtually all committed stem cell types
- Differentiation inducers cause committed stem cells to differentiate toward specific adult blood cell types
RBC Differentiation Stages
- Proerythroblast: The initial, identifiable red blood cell (RBC) precursor
- Basophil erythroblast: The first-generation cells staining with basic dyes
- Polychromatophil erythroblast: The stage at which hemoglobin first appears inside the cell
- Reticulocyte: An immature RBC containing basophilic material like Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, and some cytoplasmic organelles
- Diapedesis is the process of reticulocytes passing from bone marrow into blood capillaries by squeezing through capillary pores
- Erythrocyte: A mature RBC that forms after remaining basophilic material disappears within 1–2 days
Erythropoietin & RBC Production Regulation
- Erythropoietin controls RBC production, responding to tissue oxygenation levels
- It's mainly produced in the kidneys (90%) and liver (10%)
- Erythropoietin ensures sufficient RBC numbers for adequate oxygen transport and prevents overabundance that impedes blood flow
Factors Decreasing Oxygenation
- Low blood volume
- Anemia
- Low hemoglobin
- Poor blood flow
- Pulmonary disease
RBC Production Stimulus
- The principal stimulus for RBC production is erythropoietin, a circulating glycoprotein hormone stimulated by low oxygen states
- Renal tissue hypoxia increases hypoxia-inducible factor-1 (HIF-1) levels
- HIF-1 binds to a hypoxia response element in the erythropoietin gene to increase production
Vitamin B12 & Folic Acid Importance
- Vitamin B12 and folic acid are essential for DNA synthesis and RBC maturation
- A deficiency leads to maturation failure anemia
Hemoglobin Formation
- The formation of hemoglobin begins in polychromatophil erythroblasts and continues in reticulocytes
- Hemoglobin is formed from succinyl-CoA, glycine, and iron
Hemoglobin A Composition
- Hemoglobin A is a combination of two alpha chains and two beta chains
Iron Metabolism
- Total body iron: 4-5g, mainly in hemoglobin (65%)
- Iron is stored as ferritin and hemosiderin and transported by transferrin
RBC Lifespan
- RBCs circulate for about 120 days before destruction
Blood Loss Anemia
- It is characterized by low RBC concentration following hemorrhage
Aplastic Anemia
- This is caused by failure of the bone marrow
Megaloblastic Anemia
- Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency can cause this anemia
Hemolytic Anemia
- This is caused by fragile RBCs that rupture easily
Secondary Polycythemia
- This is a response to hypoxia
Polycythemia Vera
- This is caused by the genetic overproduction of RBCs
Circulatory Effects of Polycythemia
- Increased blood viscosity leads to sluggish blood flow and reduces venous return
- Increased blood volume increases venous return
- Cardiac output remains near normal due to balanced effects
- Hypertension occurs in about one-third of individuals due to the failure of compensatory mechanisms
Blood Antigens and Immune Reactions
- Blood transfusion reactions occur due to antigen-antibody interactions
ABO & Rh Systems
- The ABO and Rh systems are the most significant for transfusion compatibility
Agglutinogens
- Agglutinogens: A and B antigens on RBC surfaces and determine blood type
Blood Type O
- No A or B antigens
Type A Blood
- Only A antigen
Type B Blood
- Only B antigen
Type AB Blood
- Has both A and B antigens
Agglutinins
- Antibodies (IgM, IgG) in plasma targeting non-self blood antigens are formed after exposure to environmental antigens
Agglutination
- Antibodies causing RBCs to clump together
Hemolysis
- Destruction of agglutinated cells, releasing hemoglobin
Rh-Positive
- Presence of D antigen makes the blood
Rh-Negative
- Absence of D antigen makes the blood
- Anti-Rh antibodies form after exposure to Rh-positive blood
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
- Occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
- Maternal anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta, attacking fetal RBCs
Hemostasis
- Prevention of blood loss involving vascular constriction, platelet plug formation, blood clot formation, and fibrous tissue growth
Platelet Characteristics
- Formed from megakaryocytes in bone marrow
- Contain contractile proteins, enzyme systems, and calcium stores
- A glycoprotein coat enables adherence to damaged vessels
Extrinsic Pathway
- It is initiated by tissue trauma and the release of tissue factor
Intrinsic Pathway
- It is triggered by blood trauma or contact with collagen
Common Pathway
- This culminates in the formation of prothrombin activator which turns into Thrombin, then Fibrin
Clot Retraction & Organization
- Platelets contract, tightening the clot
- Fibroblasts invade, forming connective tissue
Anticoagulants
- Antithrombin III: Inactivates thrombin
- Heparin: Enhances antithrombin III activity
- Protein C: Inactivates factors V and VIII
Plasmin & Clot Lysis
- Plasminogen: Converted to plasmin by tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
- Plasmin: Digests fibrin, dissolving clots
Vitamine K Deficiency
- results in impaired synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X.
Hemophilia
- Deficiency of clotting factor VIII (Hemophilia A) or IX (Hemophilia B)
Thrombocytopenia
- Low platelet count leading to poor clot formation
Musculoskeletal Development: Bone Formation
- Begins around sixth week of gestation
- Includes delivery of bone cell precursors to formation sites and aggregation of these cells at primary ossification centers
Bone Formation Types
- Intramembranous: Occurs within the mesenchyme, forming bones like the cranium and clavicles; mesenchyme vascularization leads to osteoblast aggregation and solid bone formation
- Endochondral: New bone develops from cartilage; mesenchymal tissue forms a cartilage anlage and blood vessel invasion brings osteoprogenitor cells, leading to primary calcification centers
Bone Growth
- Long bone length increases at the physeal plate through endochondral ossification
- Cartilage cells multiply on the epiphyseal side
- Growth hormone stimulates the growth plate
- Peptide factors, cell interactions, extracellular matrix, nutrition, and hormones affect epiphyseal plate growth
Skeletal Development
- Axial skeleton shape changes during growth; newborns have a kyphosed spine and cervical spine develops a lordotic curve as the infant gains head control
- The lumbar spine's lordotic curve develops with sitting
- The appendicular skeleton grows faster than the axial skeleton in childhood
Syndactyly
- Most common upper extremity congenital defect where webbing of fingers occurs and is surgically corrected between 6 months and 1 year
- Complex cases may involve bone and nail fusion
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
- Abnormal development of the proximal femur and/or acetabulum
- Risk factors: Family history, female gender, and breech presentation
- Clinical signs: Asymmetry of gluteal folds and limited hip abduction
- Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers are diagnostic tools
- Treatment includes a Pavlik harness for infants younger than 6 months
Foot Deformities
- Congenital foot deformities are found in approximately 4% of newborns
- Metatarsus Adductus: Forefoot adduction deformity; mild cases often self-correct; severe cases may require serial casting
- Clubfoot (Equinovarus Deformity): The foot turns inward and downward requiring the Ponseti casting technique
- Pes Planus (Flatfoot): Most babies are born with flat feet; asymptomatic flexible flatfoot does not require treatment
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)
- Collagen-related bone dysplasia causing increased fracture rate and bone deformation; the Sillence classification categorizes OI based on inheritance and clinical presentation
- Evaluation is based on clinical signs and can be diagnosed prenatally
Rickets
- The failure of growing bone to mineralize, leading to soft bones and skeletal deformity due to insufficient vitamin D causes symptoms like hypotonia and muscle weakness
Scoliosis
- The rotational spine curvature can be nonstructural or structural
- Structural scoliosis cases are idiopathic and diagnosed by radiographic examination
Osteomyelitis
- Bone infection often affecting children ages 3–12, where bacteria enter through the bloodstream and lodge in the medullary cavity, with the causative microorganism varying with age
Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP) Disease
- Interrupted blood supply to the femoral head
Osgood-Schlatter Disease
- Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon and osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercle
Cerebral Palsy (CP)
- Nonprogressive movement and posture disorders from injury or malformation of the developing central nervous system
Neuromuscular Disorders
- Inherited disorders causing progressive muscle fiber loss; Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) are the most prevalent
Sarcomere Structure & Function
- Muscle fibers contain myofibrils made of actin (thin, light I band) and myosin (thick, dark A band)
- The sarcomere is the fundamental myocyte contraction unit, located between Z discs
- Myosin filaments contain a tail, hinge, and head; tails bundle together for a thick appearance
- The myosin filament's arm and head form the crossbridge, which contain two hinges to facilitate head movement
Muscle Contraction Process
- ATP binds, causing the myosin molecule to extend into an open position
- An action potential prompts calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, enabling myosin filament heads to attach to active sites
- The myosin head tilts, dragging the actin filament along in a power stroke, bringing the filaments closer together
- ATP is used to extend the myosin head, storing energy like a stretched spring
- Released energy allows the myosin head to attach and contract when calcium is present
Muscle Contraction Energy Sources
- ATP is needed for the walk-along mechanism, pumping calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and the sodium-potassium pump
- Phosphocreatine, in small muscle cell amounts, has a higher energy phosphate bond than ATP and can create ATP for approximately 5–8 seconds
Creatine Supplementation
- Provides energy for only about 5 to 8 seconds
- It has the smallest effect on oxidative metabolism, glycolysis, and creatine
Types of Muscle Contractions
- Isometric contraction: Tension in the muscle without shortening it
- Isotonic contraction: Muscle shortening while tension remains constant
Muscle Fiber Types
- Slow/red fibers have myoglobin and capillaries for oxygenation, enabling sustained tension
- Fast muscle fibers are larger, providing greater contraction strength, extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum for rapid calcium release, and enzymes for glycolysis
- Every muscle contains a mixture of fast and slow fibers
Motor Units & Force Generation
- Motor neurons in the spinal cord's anterior horn innervate muscle fibers, forming motor units
- Fine motor control requires fewer muscles per motor neuron, larger muscles for strength have more motor units per neuron.
- Force can be increased through summation, involving increasing motor units or contraction frequency
Tetany
- Occurs when the frequency of contraction increases to the point where contractions fuse together
Muscle Remodeling & Hypertrophy
- Hypertrophy results from an increased number of actin and myosin filaments due to strong contractions
- New sarcomeres are added when muscles are stretched, and sarcomeres are removed when a muscle remains shortened for an extended period
Neuromuscular Junction & Skeletal Muscle Excitation
- Large myelinated nerve fibers rapidly transmit signals from the spinal cord's anterior horn to skeletal muscle fibers
- An action potential travels down the motor neuron, causing a change in electrical potential
- Sodium channels open, allowing sodium to flow in and create a positive electrical change
- At the end of the neuron, a voltage-gated calcium channel opens, allowing calcium to diffuse into the motor endplate
- Calcium binds with vesicles containing neurotransmitters, primarily acetylcholine, causing them to bind with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter
- Acetylcholine diffuses across the neuromuscular junction and binds to ligand-gated sodium channels, depolarizing the muscle
Acetylcholine Role
- Two acetylcholine molecules attach to a specific portion of the sodium ion channel, opening it and allowing diffusion into the muscle
- Rapid sodium influx changes the muscle membrane's electronegativity from negative to positive, propagating the action potential
- The change in potential causes voltage-gated receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum to open, releasing calcium into the muscle
- Acetylcholine must be removed to allow the sodium channel to close, primarily via acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine into choline and acetate
Drugs Affecting Neuromuscular Transmission
- Drugs can alter electronegativity, affecting stimulus required to reach action potential threshold
- Succinylcholine: Acts like acetylcholine, binding to the acetylcholinesodium receptor and opening the channel, causing depolarization but may cause muscle pain
- Rocuronium: An acetylcholine receptor antagonist, blocking the channel and causing paralysis without fasciculations
T-Tubules & Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
- T-tubules facilitate rapid action potential spread throughout the muscle
- The sarcoplasmic reticulum, next to T-tubules, is where calcium is stored and released
- A voltage change in the t-tubule is sensed by ryanodine receptor channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing the opening and release of calcium channels
- Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by a calcium pump located in its walls
Malignant Hyperthermia
- A mutation in the ryanodine receptor can cause malignant hyperthermia
- Exposure to certain anesthetics or succinylcholine can cause the opening of calcium channels and continuous muscle contraction, leading to hyperkalemia and elevated temperature
Smooth Muscle
- Multi-unit smooth muscle fibers operate independently, often innervated by a single nerve fiber; unitary smooth muscle fibers contract together in sheets or bundles
- Prolonged tonic contraction is characteristic of smooth muscle, with slower myosin cross-bridge cycling and increased attachment time, requiring less energy
- It can be stimulated by stretch, nerve stimulation, hormones, or chemical environment changes Smooth muscle does not contain troponin; instead, calcium combines with calmodulin, activating myosin light chain kinase, leading to myosin attachment to actin
Smooth Muscle Nerve Stimulation
- Nerves, hormones, local chemicals, and stretch can stimulate smooth muscle
- Neuromuscular junctions in smooth muscle are branched, with neurotransmitters released outside the muscle to diffuse to receptors
- Vesicles in smooth muscle neurons can contain acetylcholine, norepinephrine, or epinephrine
- The action is determined by the stimulated receptor, so drugs can cause different effects in different locations
- Acetylcholine can be inhibitory or excitatory in different muscles
Musculoskeletal Injuries & Healing
Unintentional traumatic injuries are a leading cause of death for people aged 1 to 44
- Fractures can be complete or incomplete, open or closed, and have various patterns such as transverse, spiral, or greenstick
- Fracture healing occurs in three phases: inflammatory, repair, and remodeling
- Subluxation is a partial loss of contact between two joints, while dislocation is a temporary displacement of a bone.
Strains vs Sprains
- A strain is a tear or injury to a tendon while a sprain is a tear or injury to a ligament.
- The inflammatory cascade begins immediately after an injury, with collagen formation starting 3 to 4 days later
Rhabdomyolysis
- Break down of muscle that releases contents that can block the kidney and can cause hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and potential DIC
- IV hydration is a treatment to dilute the muscle contents and prevent them from binding in the glomerulus
Musculoskeletal Diseases
- Osteoporosis is characterized by low bone mineral density, impaired integrity, decreased strength, and increased fracture risk
- Osteomyelitis is a bone infection typically caused by bacteria, leading to inflammation, necrosis, and potential antibiotic treatment or debridement
- Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory joint disease that can cause fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints, potentially leading to difficult intubation
- Scoliosis involves curvature and rotation of the spine, which can complicate epidural placement
Musculoskeletal Condition in Children
- Bone formation begins in the 6th week of gestation. Syndactyly is the presence of multiple digits.
- Hip dysplasia can occur during birth, involving subluxation, dislocation, or acetabular dysplasia
- Rickets is a failure of bone to become mineralized due to vitamin D insufficiency or insensitivity
- Cerebral palsy is a non-progressive disorder of movement and posture resulting from injury or malformation of the CNS, often with comorbid conditions
- Duchenne's muscular dystrophy (DMD) is characterized by the absence of dystrophin, leading to muscle weakness, loss of ambulation, and potential anesthetic complications
Musculoskeletal Injuries: Muscle Cell Injuries
Unintentional traumatic injuries are a leading cause of death for people aged 1-44
Types of Fractures
- Complete Fracture: Bone is broken into pieces
- Incomplete Fracture: Bone is not completely broken (e.g., greenstick fracture)
- Open Fracture: Bone breaks through the skin
- Closed Fracture: Skin remains intact
- Greenstick Fracture: Perforates one cortex and splinters spongy bone
- Transverse Fracture: Horizontal break through the bone
- Spiral Fracture: Curves around the bone, caused by twisting
Common fractures
Greenstick, transverse, spiral, the highest incidence occur in young males (15-24) and adults over 65
Fracture Healing
- Process: Bleeding from the bone damage forms a hematoma. Necrotic tissue and debris cause an inflammatory response. Platelet-derived growth factor, prostaglandins, and other factors promote healing. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are activated
- Phases: Inflammatory, repair, and remodeling.
- Callus Formation: Occurs prior to remodeling
Complications of Fractures
- Nonunion: Failure of bone ends to unite
- Delayed Union: Healing occurs after 8-9 months
- Malunion: Healing in a non-anatomical position
Fracture Treatment
- Realignment: Manipulating bone fragments to the correct position
- Immobilization: Holding the bone in place for healing
- Traction: Used to maintain alignment
- Open Reduction Internal Fixation (ORIF): Surgical procedure to align fragments with hardware
- External Fixation: Device used to stabilize fractures
Dislocation and Subluxation
- Dislocation: Temporary displacement of a bone from its joint; a complex dislocation involves a fracture
- Subluxation: Partial loss of contact between joint surfaces
- Common Sites: Shoulder, elbow, wrist, finger, hip, and knee
Tendon and Ligament injuries
- Tendons: Attach muscle to bone
- Ligaments: Connect bones at a joint
- Strain: Tear or injury to a tendon
- Sprain: Tear or injury to a ligament
- Avulsion: Complete separation of a tendon or ligament from its bony attachment
- Healing: Inflammation occurs, followed by collagen formation where the tendon or ligament lacks sufficient strength for 4-5 weeks
Tendonitis and Bursitis
- Trauma and overuse can cause inflammation of tendons (tendonitis), painful degradation of collagen fibers (tendinosis), and inflammation of bursae (bursitis)
Rhabdomyolysis
- Rapid breakdown of muscle releasing intracellular contents into the bloodstream and can be caused by trauma or overuse
Rhabdomyolysis Complications
- Hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, acute renal failure, and possible DIC
- Treatment: IV hydration, hemodialysis, and management of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Bone Disorders
- Osteoporosis: Low bone mineral density, impaired bone structure, and increased fracture risk; with prevention being key
- Risk factors are not necessarily a consequence of aging; with prevention with calcium, intake (1000-1500mg/day), high intake of fruits and vegetables
Osteomyelitis
- Infections of the bones caused by bacteria, fungi, mycobacteria, parasites, or viruses which occur from both Endogenous (from pathogens in the blood), and Exogenous (from external sources)
- Bone Infections need antibiotics, debridement, surgery hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Joint Disorders
- Rheumatoid Arthritis: Autoimmune destruction of synovial membranes and joints
- Ankylosing Spondylitis: Chronic inflammatory disease causing stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints.
Skeletal Muscle Disorders
- Weakness and Fatigue: Common symptoms that can result from a lack of motion, stress, or disuse atrophy with Myotonic and Periodic Paralysis.
Fracture Types
- Complete: Bone breaks into separate pieces
- Incomplete: Bone damaged but remains in one piece
- Open: Break in skin near the fracture site
- Closed: No break in the skin
Fracture Line Classifications
- Comminuted: Multiple bone fragments
- Linear: Fracture line runs parallel to the long axis of the bone
- Oblique: Fracture line is at an angle to the long axis of the bone
- Spiral: Fracture line encircles the bone
- Transverse: Fracture line is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone
- Impacted: Fracture fragments are pushed into each other
- Pathologic: Occurs at a point in the bone weakened by disease
- Avulsion: A fragment of bone connected to a ligament or tendon separates from the main bone
- Greenstick: Break in only one cortex of bone
Fracture Healing Process
- Three overlapping phases occur with an Inflammatory phase lasting 3-4 days, a Repair Phase with tissue formation, followed by osteoblasts synthesizing collagen and matrix to form callus
- The final is a Remodeling Phase, where unnecessary callus is resorbed and trabeculae are reformed along stress lines, lasting months to years
Clinical Manifestation of Fractures
- Include impaired function, unnatural alignment, swelling, muscle spasm, tenderness, pain, and impaired sensation
- Treatment: Closed or open reduction is needed where open is a surgical procedure the exposes fracture site, realigns fragments, and maintain with hardware.
Sprains and Strains
- Sprain: Injury to a ligament
- Strain: Injury to a tendon
- Avulsion: Complete separation of a tendon or ligament from its bony attachment
Patho of Sprains and Strains
- An inflammatory process starts, with collagen formation initially random but is organized parallel to stress lines within 3-4 days
- Clinical Manifestations: Pain, functional limitation, swelling, changes contour, and possible dislocation or subluxation
Tendipathies
- Tendinopathy: Inflammation of a tendon, most tendon pathology is caused by tissue degeneration rather than inflammation
- Bursitis: Inflammation of bursae where common sites are Shoulder, hip, knee, and elbow
Rhabdomyolysis (cont)
- Rapid muscle breakdown causing the release of myoglobin into blood stream with causes due to trauma, genetic, medications, and intoxication
- Includes hyperkalemia, kidney failure, dark urine, and muscle pain
- Evaluation: Serum Creatine Kinase is the most important
Bone Disorders: Osteoprosis
- Characterized by low density and increased fracture risk
- With risk factors of inactivity and malnutrition, the proper treatment is calcium/vitamine D and weights
Osteomyelitis (Cont)
- A bone infection that causes inflammation and abscess formation and requires surgical and antibiotic therapy
Anemia Overview: In Children
- Commonly results from on of four disabilities and is most common cause is iron deficiency
- Has symptoms of fatigue, dizziness, and low HB
Acute Blood Loss Overview
- The physiological affect of acute blood loss in reduced intravascular volume and depends on rate of hemorrhage and can cause cardiovascular collapse and death
- Recovery takes up to a few months; where plasma is replaced within a day then blood within weeks
Megaloblastic Anemia
- Vitamin B12 and nutritional deficiency
- Small Erythrocytes with abnormal amount of hb
- Inefficient iron take causes this
- Hematopoietic Failure
PV
- Increased blood with no stimulus that causes peak incidence between the ages of 60-80.
Platelet Disorders
- Quantitative: Platelets
- Qualitative: Platelets
Coagulation Overview: The role of the liver?
- Defect in clotting causes liver disease
- Coagulation of clotting factors. Heparin replaces factors of DIC, which may cause blood.
- Hypercoagulability: Defect in proteins involved in the hemistat
AA
- Results in pancytopenia and can be acquired and inherited which can cause diminished level of erythrocytes and leuocycte where diagnosis would be through blood test
Characterization of Premature Blood destruction
- Congenital or hereditary and requires blood tests and bone testing where proper treatment requires different solutions
MRBC
- Over production of blood cells which includes PV and bone analysis and can lead to fatigue head and body pain that can be helped with the proper treatment
Iron Overload
- HH or too much blood can cause genetic testing and the proper care would be getting treatment.
Tormbocytopenia
- Less than 150% platelets leads to increased Hemorrhage that is a chain reaction where treatment can be the right drugs/tests
Impaired hemostatis
- Not having enough vitamin K and lead to the failure of this system
AA In Depth
- Results from hematopoietic failure resulting in Pancytopenia.
- The causes include stem, immune deficiencies or other
- Treatmemnt requires transplant, immunosuppression, or even supportive care
HA IN depth
- Characterized by premature destruction either episodes or continuous and are warm auto immune or Drug induced
- Warm-IgG, Cold-igm, Cold Hemoylsin-Exposure
- Require a removal, steroids, fluid, and blood testing.
BloodCell inDepth
- Overproduced because the over regulation of Hematopoietic
- Leads to splenomeagaly, pain, and headache from increased volume
IOL In Depth
- Hereditary or increased with Iron, requires phlebotomy, avoidance of iron and proper moderation
Low platelets
- Requires platelet creation and increased consumption
HIT
- After heparin treatment, is where problems occur and will tests for any anti platelet reactions
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