Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which phase of the cloud data life cycle requires adherence to export and import restrictions, including Export Administration Regulations (EAR) and the Wassenaar Arrangement?
Which phase of the cloud data life cycle requires adherence to export and import restrictions, including Export Administration Regulations (EAR) and the Wassenaar Arrangement?
Why is the striping with parity method of storing data used in most redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configurations?
Why is the striping with parity method of storing data used in most redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configurations?
It allows efficient data recovery as even if one drive fails, other drives fill in the missing data.
What is the purpose of egress monitoring tools?
What is the purpose of egress monitoring tools?
They are used to prevent data from going outside the control of an organization.
A company is looking at different types of cloud storage options. One of the threats to cloud storage that the company foresees is the possibility of losing forensic artifacts in the event of an incident response investigation. Which type of cloud storage has the highest risk of losing forensic artifacts in the event of an incident response investigation?
A company is looking at different types of cloud storage options. One of the threats to cloud storage that the company foresees is the possibility of losing forensic artifacts in the event of an incident response investigation. Which type of cloud storage has the highest risk of losing forensic artifacts in the event of an incident response investigation?
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A manager is made aware of a customer complaint about how an application developed by the company collects personal and environmental information from the devices it is installed on. Which document should the manager refer to in order to determine if the company has properly disclosed information about what data it collects from this application's users?
A manager is made aware of a customer complaint about how an application developed by the company collects personal and environmental information from the devices it is installed on. Which document should the manager refer to in order to determine if the company has properly disclosed information about what data it collects from this application's users?
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An organization needs to store passwords in a database securely. The data should not be available to system administrators. Which technique should the organization use?
An organization needs to store passwords in a database securely. The data should not be available to system administrators. Which technique should the organization use?
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A company is looking to ensure that the names of individuals in its data in the cloud are not revealed in the event of a data breach, as the data is sensitive and classified. Which data masking technique should the company use to prevent attackers from identifying individuals in the event of a data breach?
A company is looking to ensure that the names of individuals in its data in the cloud are not revealed in the event of a data breach, as the data is sensitive and classified. Which data masking technique should the company use to prevent attackers from identifying individuals in the event of a data breach?
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An organization needs to quickly identify the document owner in a shared network folder. Which technique should the organization use to meet this goal?
An organization needs to quickly identify the document owner in a shared network folder. Which technique should the organization use to meet this goal?
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An organization plans to introduce a new data standard and wants to ensure that system inventory data will be efficiently discovered and processed. Which type of data should the organization use to meet this goal?
An organization plans to introduce a new data standard and wants to ensure that system inventory data will be efficiently discovered and processed. Which type of data should the organization use to meet this goal?
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An organization implemented an information rights management (IRM) solution to prevent critical data from being copied without permission and a cloud backup solution to ensure that the critical data is protected from storage failures. Which IRM challenge will the organization need to address?
An organization implemented an information rights management (IRM) solution to prevent critical data from being copied without permission and a cloud backup solution to ensure that the critical data is protected from storage failures. Which IRM challenge will the organization need to address?
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A data center engineer is tasked with the destruction of data on solid-state drives (SSDs). The engineer must ensure that the data is not able to be retrieved. Which data destruction action should the engineer take to meet this goal?
A data center engineer is tasked with the destruction of data on solid-state drives (SSDs). The engineer must ensure that the data is not able to be retrieved. Which data destruction action should the engineer take to meet this goal?
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An organization wants to gather and interpret logs from its cloud environment. Which system should the organization use for this task?
An organization wants to gather and interpret logs from its cloud environment. Which system should the organization use for this task?
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An organization with a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system wants to minimize errors or missed issues due to human log analysis. Which SIEM policy should the organization use in this case?
An organization with a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system wants to minimize errors or missed issues due to human log analysis. Which SIEM policy should the organization use in this case?
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Which software type allows multiple operating systems to run on the same physical server in a virtualized environment?
Which software type allows multiple operating systems to run on the same physical server in a virtualized environment?
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What is the name of the process of automatically provisioning, configuring, and managing virtual machines and other resources in a virtualized environment?
What is the name of the process of automatically provisioning, configuring, and managing virtual machines and other resources in a virtualized environment?
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Which cloud computing characteristic allows customers to manage their utilization by only paying for the resources used?
Which cloud computing characteristic allows customers to manage their utilization by only paying for the resources used?
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Which cloud deployment model allows customers to take advantage of service and price differences from two or more cloud vendors?
Which cloud deployment model allows customers to take advantage of service and price differences from two or more cloud vendors?
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Which cloud consideration refers to the ability of the infrastructure to withstand disruptive events?
Which cloud consideration refers to the ability of the infrastructure to withstand disruptive events?
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Which technology is used to protect the confidentiality of data from on-path attacks?
Which technology is used to protect the confidentiality of data from on-path attacks?
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Which technology allows cryptographic secrets to be held in a secure way so that they can be recovered by parties who have authorization?
Which technology allows cryptographic secrets to be held in a secure way so that they can be recovered by parties who have authorization?
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Which safety control acts as a virtual firewall in cloud environments?
Which safety control acts as a virtual firewall in cloud environments?
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An organization with a single headquarters building in New York City wants to secure its cloud infrastructure so that only users at its offices can administer its cloud resources. Which architectural concept should the organization implement?
An organization with a single headquarters building in New York City wants to secure its cloud infrastructure so that only users at its offices can administer its cloud resources. Which architectural concept should the organization implement?
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Which business continuity/disaster recovery (BC/DR) term refers to a secure container that contains all the necessary documentation and resources needed to conduct a proper BC/DR response action?
Which business continuity/disaster recovery (BC/DR) term refers to a secure container that contains all the necessary documentation and resources needed to conduct a proper BC/DR response action?
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An organization is planning to store its production data in a public cloud service. While researching the service, the organization discovers that its data will be stored in a proprietary data format that cannot be read by other cloud services. Which cloud risk does this represent?
An organization is planning to store its production data in a public cloud service. While researching the service, the organization discovers that its data will be stored in a proprietary data format that cannot be read by other cloud services. Which cloud risk does this represent?
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A company configures a backup solution that will automatically sync the data between the services of multiple cloud service providers to prevent data redundancy. One concern is that the different service offerings may not have the same level of data protection and may not allow direct syncing between the providers. Which architectural concept addresses this concern?
A company configures a backup solution that will automatically sync the data between the services of multiple cloud service providers to prevent data redundancy. One concern is that the different service offerings may not have the same level of data protection and may not allow direct syncing between the providers. Which architectural concept addresses this concern?
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Which design pillar represents the ability of a workload to execute its intended function accurately and consistently when it is expected to?
Which design pillar represents the ability of a workload to execute its intended function accurately and consistently when it is expected to?
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A cloud customer wants to store application programming interface (API) tokens for their applications so they can be accessed from anywhere. Which cloud provider service should the customer use?
A cloud customer wants to store application programming interface (API) tokens for their applications so they can be accessed from anywhere. Which cloud provider service should the customer use?
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The Department of Justice (DOJ) assesses options for a new cloud-hosted collaboration solution. What should it use to ensure that the vendors are compliant with the governmental regulations for data management in the United States?
The Department of Justice (DOJ) assesses options for a new cloud-hosted collaboration solution. What should it use to ensure that the vendors are compliant with the governmental regulations for data management in the United States?
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A European Union (EU) citizen contacts a company doing business in the EU, claiming that its data processing activities are out of compliance with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). The citizen demands that the company stops processing their personal data. What must the company do if it wishes to continue processing this personal data?
A European Union (EU) citizen contacts a company doing business in the EU, claiming that its data processing activities are out of compliance with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). The citizen demands that the company stops processing their personal data. What must the company do if it wishes to continue processing this personal data?
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What is used to allow additional functionality such as improved networking or video output for a guest operating system by connecting to an underlying host's hardware?
What is used to allow additional functionality such as improved networking or video output for a guest operating system by connecting to an underlying host's hardware?
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Which concept denotes an advantage of virtualized environments that enable them to achieve high availability?
Which concept denotes an advantage of virtualized environments that enable them to achieve high availability?
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Which storage architecture contains nodes that are logically connected rather than physically connected?
Which storage architecture contains nodes that are logically connected rather than physically connected?
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Which purpose does an intrusion prevention system (IPS) serve when compared to an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
Which purpose does an intrusion prevention system (IPS) serve when compared to an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
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Which part of a network should a security information and event management (SIEM) suite use to ensure network devices in a software-defined network are properly forwarding traffic?
Which part of a network should a security information and event management (SIEM) suite use to ensure network devices in a software-defined network are properly forwarding traffic?
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An analyst needs to scan hosts for misconfigurations and known security threats that could lead to a security incident. Which type of scanner will allow the analyst to check for these types of issues?
An analyst needs to scan hosts for misconfigurations and known security threats that could lead to a security incident. Which type of scanner will allow the analyst to check for these types of issues?
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An organization identified the need to improve the resiliency of a critical IT service to ensure access for its customers. Which information technology service management (ITSM) process should be implemented to ensure the organization meets this goal?
An organization identified the need to improve the resiliency of a critical IT service to ensure access for its customers. Which information technology service management (ITSM) process should be implemented to ensure the organization meets this goal?
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An organization lost connectivity to one of its data centers because of a power outage. What is used to measure the return to operational capability after the loss of connectivity?
An organization lost connectivity to one of its data centers because of a power outage. What is used to measure the return to operational capability after the loss of connectivity?
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Which type of management focuses on arranging all the elements needed to deploy new software, including QA testing and staging, before the software enters active maintenance?
Which type of management focuses on arranging all the elements needed to deploy new software, including QA testing and staging, before the software enters active maintenance?
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A security analyst is tasked with collecting evidence related to a data breach involving monetary theft. Which action should the security analyst take when accessing the breached system?
A security analyst is tasked with collecting evidence related to a data breach involving monetary theft. Which action should the security analyst take when accessing the breached system?
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During an investigation, government agents asked a security professional to collect the records stored in a database and present them to the court. Which process should the security professional use to identify and obtain that information?
During an investigation, government agents asked a security professional to collect the records stored in a database and present them to the court. Which process should the security professional use to identify and obtain that information?
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The service at a cloud provider has been interrupted. Which group should this cloud provider contact with information about the expected window for which the services will be down as per a contractual agreement?
The service at a cloud provider has been interrupted. Which group should this cloud provider contact with information about the expected window for which the services will be down as per a contractual agreement?
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An online store has declared a disaster situation because of a large storm in the area of its primary cloud data center location. The emergency plan has allowed the store to remain online and accept payments, but it has fallen out of compliance with its Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) practices. Which party should the store keep apprised of ongoing developments and the potential solutions being considered?
An online store has declared a disaster situation because of a large storm in the area of its primary cloud data center location. The emergency plan has allowed the store to remain online and accept payments, but it has fallen out of compliance with its Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) practices. Which party should the store keep apprised of ongoing developments and the potential solutions being considered?
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Which type of communication channel should be established between parties in a supply chain to be used in a disaster situation?
Which type of communication channel should be established between parties in a supply chain to be used in a disaster situation?
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An organization's engineers recently attended a training session designed to raise awareness of the dangers of using insecure direct object identifiers to view another user's account information. Which Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top 10 vulnerability category did their training cover?
An organization's engineers recently attended a training session designed to raise awareness of the dangers of using insecure direct object identifiers to view another user's account information. Which Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top 10 vulnerability category did their training cover?
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An organization's engineers recently attended a training session that raised their awareness of the dangers of using weak algorithms or protocols for data security. Which Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top 10 vulnerability category did their training cover?
An organization's engineers recently attended a training session that raised their awareness of the dangers of using weak algorithms or protocols for data security. Which Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Top 10 vulnerability category did their training cover?
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A company plans to deploy a new application. Before the deployment, the company hires an IT security consultant to perform a zero-knowledge test to access the application as an external hacker would. Which testing technique applies to the work the consultant is performing?
A company plans to deploy a new application. Before the deployment, the company hires an IT security consultant to perform a zero-knowledge test to access the application as an external hacker would. Which testing technique applies to the work the consultant is performing?
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Which concept refers to multiple teams and roles within an organization that perform testing on code from end to end to ensure that the code meets all standards and requirements?
Which concept refers to multiple teams and roles within an organization that perform testing on code from end to end to ensure that the code meets all standards and requirements?
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What is the purpose of implementing rate limiting in application programming interface (API) security?
What is the purpose of implementing rate limiting in application programming interface (API) security?
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An organization wants to ensure that untested software updates provided by a third-party vendor are not run in its mission-critical environment. What should the organization use in this scenario?
An organization wants to ensure that untested software updates provided by a third-party vendor are not run in its mission-critical environment. What should the organization use in this scenario?
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Which software development methodology is sequential, with each phase followed by the next phase and with no overlap between the phases?
Which software development methodology is sequential, with each phase followed by the next phase and with no overlap between the phases?
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Which phase of software design includes gathering customer input to determine a system's desired functionality?
Which phase of software design includes gathering customer input to determine a system's desired functionality?
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Which technology is used to prevent cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks?
Which technology is used to prevent cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks?
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Which web application firewall (WAF) feature protects the application servers behind it from systems sending requests?
Which web application firewall (WAF) feature protects the application servers behind it from systems sending requests?
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Which scheme would provide protection if an entire physical solid-state drive was lost or stolen?
Which scheme would provide protection if an entire physical solid-state drive was lost or stolen?
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A small organization adopts a strategy to ensure that the cryptographic keys it uses in its cloud environment are securely stored and handled. Which third-party service should the organization leverage for key administration in the given scenario?
A small organization adopts a strategy to ensure that the cryptographic keys it uses in its cloud environment are securely stored and handled. Which third-party service should the organization leverage for key administration in the given scenario?
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An organization started the transition to using a public cloud service for a customer-facing application. The organization's security team has concerns about the application programming interface (API) tokens being lost or exposed to malicious actors. Which service do cloud providers offer that the organization should leverage to administer its API tokens?
An organization started the transition to using a public cloud service for a customer-facing application. The organization's security team has concerns about the application programming interface (API) tokens being lost or exposed to malicious actors. Which service do cloud providers offer that the organization should leverage to administer its API tokens?
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What is the benefit of virtualization management tools with respect to the management plane?
What is the benefit of virtualization management tools with respect to the management plane?
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Which component provides improved availability and path redundancy?
Which component provides improved availability and path redundancy?
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After an internal audit, an organization determined that its cloud deployment may be vulnerable to threats from external attackers. What should the organization implement to mitigate this risk?
After an internal audit, an organization determined that its cloud deployment may be vulnerable to threats from external attackers. What should the organization implement to mitigate this risk?
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A group of colleges decided to pool their resources to create a community cloud. Which risk is associated with this type of cloud deployment?
A group of colleges decided to pool their resources to create a community cloud. Which risk is associated with this type of cloud deployment?
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An organization believes that a man-in-the-middle attack is possible but unlikely to occur. However, if a successful attack occurs, the consequences will be serious. The cost estimate for reducing the risk of such an attack is much more than the organization wishes to pay. Which factor will determine whether the organization decides to pay the amount to mitigate the risk of an attack?
An organization believes that a man-in-the-middle attack is possible but unlikely to occur. However, if a successful attack occurs, the consequences will be serious. The cost estimate for reducing the risk of such an attack is much more than the organization wishes to pay. Which factor will determine whether the organization decides to pay the amount to mitigate the risk of an attack?
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Which tier of service is provided by a data center that is designed to have independent and physically isolated systems, multiple distribution paths, and fault tolerance for components?
Which tier of service is provided by a data center that is designed to have independent and physically isolated systems, multiple distribution paths, and fault tolerance for components?
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Which concept focuses on balancing virtual machines across clusters to ensure reliable and consistent performance?
Which concept focuses on balancing virtual machines across clusters to ensure reliable and consistent performance?
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An organization exclusively uses Microsoft software and prefers to use tools that run natively on Windows whenever possible. Which tool should this organization use to provide remote access to machines over an encrypted channel?
An organization exclusively uses Microsoft software and prefers to use tools that run natively on Windows whenever possible. Which tool should this organization use to provide remote access to machines over an encrypted channel?
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An organization opens an office with a reception area. Visitors are required to sign in at the reception and collect a visitor's badge, which turns from white to red after eight hours. Which security concept is the organization employing?
An organization opens an office with a reception area. Visitors are required to sign in at the reception and collect a visitor's badge, which turns from white to red after eight hours. Which security concept is the organization employing?
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An organization wants to include a second factor of authentication in its authentication, authorization, and accounting scheme for its cloud environment. It wants to ensure that the additional authentication mechanism will not be compromised if an employee's laptop or smartphone is compromised. Which type of authentication token will meet the organization's requirements?
An organization wants to include a second factor of authentication in its authentication, authorization, and accounting scheme for its cloud environment. It wants to ensure that the additional authentication mechanism will not be compromised if an employee's laptop or smartphone is compromised. Which type of authentication token will meet the organization's requirements?
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An organization deploying a greenfield cloud-based system wants to validate users' identities and access before they are allowed to interact with data. Which scheme should the organization leverage to ensure that users are properly validated?
An organization deploying a greenfield cloud-based system wants to validate users' identities and access before they are allowed to interact with data. Which scheme should the organization leverage to ensure that users are properly validated?
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An organization is taking part in a disaster recovery (DR) exercise that simulates a natural disaster. The key players are performing minimal actions that test the call tree to ensure that all the contact information is up to date. Which type of testing is the organization performing?
An organization is taking part in a disaster recovery (DR) exercise that simulates a natural disaster. The key players are performing minimal actions that test the call tree to ensure that all the contact information is up to date. Which type of testing is the organization performing?
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After a severe storm, the local power grid used by an organization's primary European data center was damaged and could no longer provide the necessary power to keep the services running. Management has established that this event does not meet the definition of a disaster but is a business continuity impacting event since a failover site can temporarily bear the load. What should the organization leverage to return operations to the data center?
After a severe storm, the local power grid used by an organization's primary European data center was damaged and could no longer provide the necessary power to keep the services running. Management has established that this event does not meet the definition of a disaster but is a business continuity impacting event since a failover site can temporarily bear the load. What should the organization leverage to return operations to the data center?
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Which legal requirement mandates companies in the United States to provide federal officials with data even if the data is not stored in the United States and disclosure of the data is illegal under the laws where it is stored?
Which legal requirement mandates companies in the United States to provide federal officials with data even if the data is not stored in the United States and disclosure of the data is illegal under the laws where it is stored?
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Which process describes the tracking and monitoring of evidence, including who had access and what controls were used, from the time it is classified and gathered for evidential purposes until the time it is delivered to a court or law enforcement officials?
Which process describes the tracking and monitoring of evidence, including who had access and what controls were used, from the time it is classified and gathered for evidential purposes until the time it is delivered to a court or law enforcement officials?
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The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) provides data subjects with various rights related to privacy. What do organizations need to do in order to acquire and use personal information under GDPR?
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) provides data subjects with various rights related to privacy. What do organizations need to do in order to acquire and use personal information under GDPR?
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An organization has devised a new use for the personal data that it stores about its customers. What should the organization do in this situation according to the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles (GAPP)?
An organization has devised a new use for the personal data that it stores about its customers. What should the organization do in this situation according to the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles (GAPP)?
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Which type of analysis compares a control analysis against a baseline standard?
Which type of analysis compares a control analysis against a baseline standard?
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Which type of statement issued by an auditor indicates that an organization did not disclose enough information to perform a fair audit?
Which type of statement issued by an auditor indicates that an organization did not disclose enough information to perform a fair audit?
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Which risk management strategy involves changing business practices to eliminate the potential of an enterprise risk?
Which risk management strategy involves changing business practices to eliminate the potential of an enterprise risk?
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Which risk management strategy involves continuing business operations as normal after being made aware of an enterprise risk?
Which risk management strategy involves continuing business operations as normal after being made aware of an enterprise risk?
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Which document specifies the service guarantees a vendor will provide and the remedies available if the vendor fails to adhere to them?
Which document specifies the service guarantees a vendor will provide and the remedies available if the vendor fails to adhere to them?
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Which document provides a contract for a vendor's work for an organization over an extended period and usually includes security requirements?
Which document provides a contract for a vendor's work for an organization over an extended period and usually includes security requirements?
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Study Notes
Cloud Data Life Cycle and Compliance
- The "Share" phase of the cloud data life cycle requires adherence to export and import restrictions (EAR, Wassenaar Arrangement). This phase involves transferring data between parties or across borders.
RAID Data Storage
- Striping with parity is used in most RAID configurations for efficient data recovery. It distributes data across multiple drives and adds parity information, allowing reconstruction of lost data when a drive fails.
Egress Monitoring
- Egress monitoring tools track and control data leaving an organization's systems. They prevent unauthorized data exfiltration and enforce security policies.
Cloud Storage and Forensic Artifacts
- Ephemeral storage has the highest risk of losing forensic artifacts during incident response investigations because it's temporary and deleted after instance termination.
Privacy Notice and User Data
- A privacy notice details how an application collects, uses, and protects user data. It informs users about collected personal data and its handling.
Password Storage Security
- Hashing securely stores passwords by converting them into one-way cryptographic hashes, making them unavailable to system administrators even if compromised.
Data Masking: Anonymization
- Anonymization masks personally identifiable information (PII) to prevent identification during a data breach. It obscures or removes such data making it harder to identify individuals.
Document Management: Labeling
- Labeling involves associating metadata (e.g., owner, role) with documents to facilitate quick identification of document owners.
Data Structure for Efficient Discovery
- Structured data (organized in rows and columns like a database) is best for discovering and processing data effectively, especially for managing system inventory.
Information Rights Management (IRM) and Cloud Backup
- Cloud backup can conflict with IRM policies because IRM often restricts data replication. Organizations must manage this conflict.
Secure Data Destruction of SSDs
- Crypto-shredding securely deletes data by rendering encryption keys unrecoverable, making encrypted data on SSDs permanently inaccessible.
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
- SIEM systems collect, aggregate, and analyze logs (including from cloud environments) to detect security incidents, monitor compliance, and interpret data.
SIEM Policy - Automated Analysis
- Automated analysis of data sets in a SIEM system minimizes human error in log analysis, ensuring issues are detected efficiently and accurately.
Hypervisor for Virtualization
- A hypervisor enables multiple operating systems to run on one physical server by virtualizing its hardware resources and creating virtual machines.
Cloud Resource Orchestration
- Orchestration automatically provisions, configures, and manages virtual machines and resources in a virtualized environment, streamlining tasks.
Metered Service in Cloud Computing
- Metered service helps customers pay only for the resources they use in cloud computing, leading to cost efficiency.
Multi-Cloud Deployment
- A multi-cloud deployment model uses services from multiple cloud vendors to leverage service and price differences, thus optimizing performance and cost.
Cloud System Resiliency
- Resiliency is the ability of infrastructure to withstand and recover from disruptive events, ensuring operational continuity.
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
- TLS protects data confidentiality and integrity in transit, preventing data-in-transit attacks (eavesdropping, tampering).
Key Escrow
- Key escrow securely stores cryptographic keys, enabling authorized parties to retrieve them if necessary (e.g., for lost credentials or legal requirements).
Network Security Group (NSG)
- Network security groups (NSGs) act as virtual firewalls in cloud environments, controlling traffic to and from resources.
Geofencing for Restricted Cloud Access
- Geofencing restricts access to cloud resources based on geographic locations. This is useful to restrict access to only users in specific locations.
Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery Toolkits
- A BC/DR toolkit contains documents, procedures, and resources needed to effectively respond to and recover from incidents.
Vendor Lock-in
- Vendor lock-in occurs when an organization stores data in a proprietary format, making it difficult or impossible to move it to other cloud services, restricting flexibility.
Cloud Interoperability
- Interoperability means cloud systems and services from different vendors can work together seamlessly, addressing potential data protection and compatibility issues.
Reliability in Cloud Systems
- Reliability is the ability of a workload to function accurately and consistently under specified conditions. It includes fault tolerance and consistent performance.
Secrets Management Service
- Secrets management services securely store and manage sensitive information like API tokens, ensuring secure access from anywhere.
FedRAMP Compliance
- FedRAMP provides a standardized approach for assessing, authorizing, and monitoring cloud products/services for U.S. government entities, ensuring compliance with regulations.
GDPR Data Processing Authorization
- Under GDPR, organizations must demonstrate a lawful basis (e.g., consent, legitimate interest) for processing personal data.
GAPP and Data Consent
- Organizations must obtain additional consent if using personal data for new purposes or beyond previously agreed. This follows Generally Accepted Privacy Principles (GAPP).
Gap Analysis
- Gap analysis assesses the difference between current practices/controls and a baseline standard, revealing areas for improvement.
Scope Limitations in Audits
- Scope limitations occur if an auditor cannot obtain enough information for a thorough and fair audit. This limits their conclusions.
Risk Management Strategies: Avoidance
- Avoidance involves changing business practices to eliminate a particular risk entirely.
Risk Management Strategies: Acceptance
- Acceptance involves acknowledging a risk but continuing operations without taking active steps to avoid it. This approach is cost-effective when risk mitigation costs exceed the potential damage.
Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
- SLAs define service guarantees, performance standards, and remedies if standards are not met.
Master Service Agreements (MSAs)
- MSAs are long-term contracts between organizations and vendors that outline general terms of the business relationship, including security requirements.
Documenting and Recording Activities (Evidence Collection)
- Documenting all activities during evidence collection is crucial to maintaining a clear chain of custody and ensuring evidence integrity.
Electronic Discovery (eDiscovery)
- Electronic discovery (eDiscovery) is a process for gathering and presenting electronically stored information (ESI) in legal proceedings.
Notification of Service Interruptions (Customers)
- A cloud provider must notify customers of service interruptions as per the service level agreement (SLA).
Regulatory Notification (Disaster Events)
- During disaster events involving PCI DSS non-compliance, the organization must inform regulators of the situation and proposed solutions.
Secondary Communication Channels
- A secondary communication channel is a backup to maintain communication during disasters when primary channels fail.
OWASP Top 10: Broken Access Control
- Broken access control (IDOR) vulnerabilities occur when applications fail to enforce proper access restrictions, allowing users to access resources they shouldn't.
OWASP Top 10: Cryptographic Failures
- Cryptographic failures occur when security protocols or algorithms are weak, compromising data security.
Black Box Testing
- Black box testing simulates an external attacker's perspective by evaluating an application without internal knowledge, identifying vulnerabilities from an outsider's view.
Quality Assurance (QA)
- Quality assurance involves multiple teams and roles collaboratively testing code to ensure it meets requirements and standards.
API Security: Rate Limiting
- Rate limiting prevents API overuse by controlling the number of requests allowed within a timeframe, mitigating abuse.
Manual Updates for Software
- Manual updates allow for review, testing, and validation of software before deployment, reducing the risk of introducing bugs or vulnerabilities into mission-critical environments.
Software Development Methodology: Waterfall
- The Waterfall methodology follows a strict sequential process for software design and development, with each phase completed before the next. There's no overlap between phases.
Software Design: Requirements Definition
- Requirements definition gathers information from customers and stakeholders to establish the desired functionality and specifications of a system, ensuring that it fulfills user needs and expectations.
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) Prevention
- Tokens (such as CSRF tokens) are used to prevent CSRF attacks (forging requests) by verifying legitimate user actions.
Web Application Firewall (WAF) - Reverse Proxy
- A reverse proxy in a WAF acts as an intermediary between clients and application servers, inspecting requests and preventing malicious traffic.
Full-Disk Encryption (FDE)
- Full-disk encryption (FDE) protects entire drives by encrypting all data, making data inaccessible without the encryption key if lost or stolen.
Hardware Security Modules (HSMs)
- Hardware security modules (HSMs) are specialized devices for secure cryptographic key management, ensuring security in cloud environments.
Secrets Management Service and API Tokens
- Cloud providers offer secrets management services specifically to securely store and manage sensitive data, like API tokens.
Virtualization Management Tools and Resource Management
- Virtualization management tools effectively manage resource demands in virtualized environments through central control and dynamic resource allocation.
Network Interface Card (NIC) Teaming
- NIC teaming combines multiple network interface cards (NICs) into a single logical NIC, improving availability and redundancy.
Hardened Virtual Machines
- Utilizing hardened virtual machines with strong access controls minimizes the attack surface, safeguarding cloud deployments against external threats.
Community Cloud Risks
- Community clouds share access and control mechanisms, potentially leading to risks like mismanagement, unauthorized access, or inconsistent security practices.
Risk Appetite
- Risk appetite determines the level of risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives, guiding decisions regarding risk mitigation.
Tier 4 Data Centers
- Tier 4 data centers offer the highest level of reliability and fault tolerance through redundant systems, multiple distribution paths, and the ability to withstand component failures.
Distributed Resource Scheduling (DRS)
- Distributed resource scheduling (DRS) balances virtual machines across clusters based on resource usage and needs, ensuring consistent performance.
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
- RDP provides remote access to machines over an encrypted channel for organizations largely using Microsoft software and Windows-native tools.
Controlled Entry Point Security
- A controlled entry point, such as reception areas with sign-in and visitor badges, ensures access control and accountability for visitors.
Hardware Authentication Tokens
- Hardware authentication tokens (like key fobs) provide a second factor of authentication independent of devices like laptops or smartphones, making them resistant to compromises.
Zero Trust Model
- The zero trust model authenticates, authorizes, and continuously validates users and devices before granting access to data or systems, enabling secure access in cloud environments.
Disaster Recovery (DR) Testing: Dry Run
- A dry run in DR testing involves minimal actions to test procedures and communication channels without disrupting actual operations.
Generators for Data Center Power
- Generators provide backup power to restore operations to a primary data center in case of local power grid outages, serving as backup power for disaster response.
CLOUD Act Data Access
- The CLOUD Act enables U.S. federal officials access to data held by U.S. companies, even if located outside the U.S., potentially disregarding conflicting laws in other countries.
Chain of Custody
- Chain of custody tracks evidence, including access information and control procedures, from initial collection to final delivery in legal contexts.
GDPR Data Subject Consent
- Under GDPR, organizations need explicit consent from data subjects before collecting or using their personal data.
GAPP and Consent for Data Use Changes
- According to GAPP, organizations must obtain additional consent if they change the use of personal data beyond the initially agreed-upon purpose.
Gap Analysis in Control Comparison
- Gap analysis (in risk management) compares control analyses to baseline standards, identifying differences that need improvement to meet compliance levels.
Scope Limitation in Audits
- A scope limitation is an auditor's statement that they could not obtain enough information to conduct a thorough and fair audit.
Risk Management Strategy: Avoidance
- Avoidance involves changing business practices to eliminate the potential of a certain risk entirely.
Risk Management Strategy: Acceptance
- Acceptance is accepting the presence of a risk and continuing operations without additional mitigation efforts.
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Description
This quiz covers key concepts related to the cloud data life cycle, including phases like sharing data while adhering to compliance regulations. It also addresses RAID configurations for data storage, egress monitoring, and the implications of ephemeral storage on forensic investigations.
