Clinical Microbiology: Bacteria and Infectious Disease

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Questions and Answers

Which characteristic distinguishes bacteria from other types of organisms?

  • Possession of a membrane-bound nucleus.
  • Presence of organelles.
  • Organization of DNA in a nucleoid region. (correct)
  • Ability to reproduce asexually.

A microbiologist is examining a bacterial sample and observes that the bacteria appear purple after Gram staining. What does this result indicate about the bacteria's cell wall structure?

  • The bacteria have a waxy lipid layer that prevents staining.
  • The bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.
  • The bacteria lack a cell wall.
  • The bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer and no outer membrane. (correct)

During Gram staining, a microbiology student stopped after applying the decolorizer (alcohol) but before applying safranin. If they looked at a mixed sample of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria under the microscope, what would they most likely see?

  • Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria would appear purple.
  • Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria would be pink.
  • Gram-positive bacteria would be purple, and Gram-negative bacteria would be colorless. (correct)
  • Gram-positive bacteria would be pink, and Gram-negative bacteria would be colorless.

Which of the following best describes the role of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in Gram-negative bacterial infections?

<p>LPS triggers a strong immune response, leading to systemic inflammation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a systemic infection caused by a Gram-positive bacterium. Compared to a similar infection caused by a Gram-negative bacterium, which of the following is more likely?

<p>More localized tissue damage at the site of infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinical sample is suspected to contain bacteria that do not stain well with Gram stain. Which of the following bacterial genera should be suspected?

<p>Mycobacterium. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A laboratory technician is asked to perform an acid-fast stain. This staining technique is most appropriate for identifying which of the following organisms?

<p>Mycobacterium tuberculosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterium is described as a Gram-positive coccus arranged in clusters. Which of the following genera is most likely being described?

<p>Staphylococcus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly differentiates between extracellular and obligate intracellular bacteria?

<p>Extracellular bacteria can grow on laboratory medium, while obligate intracellular bacteria require growth within host cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterium is identified as a Gram-positive rod that is also spore-forming. Which of the following genera is most likely?

<p>Bacillus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiology lab isolates a Gram-negative diplococcus from a patient's cerebrospinal fluid. What genus is the most likely source of this infection?

<p>Neisseria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with watery diarrhea after consuming contaminated food. Stool culture reveals a Gram-negative rod. Which of the following genera is most likely responsible?

<p>Escherichia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Lyme disease. Which of the following bacterial morphologies is characteristic of the causative agent?

<p>Spirochete. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacterial genera lacks a cell wall, making it insensitive to certain antibiotics?

<p>Mycoplasma. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a broth microdilution test, what is the significance of the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)?

<p>It is the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that prevents bacterial growth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key difference between dilution methods and the Kirby-Bauer method for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

<p>Dilution methods provide quantitative results, while Kirby-Bauer provides qualitative results. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test, a large zone of inhibition around an antibiotic disk generally indicates:

<p>The bacteria are susceptible to the antibiotic. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it generally imply if a bacterial isolate shows a decreased zone of inhibition diameter and an increased MIC to the same antibiotic?

<p>The bacterial isolate is developing resistance to the antibiotic. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiology report indicates that a bacterial isolate is "susceptible-dose dependent" (SDD) to a particular antibiotic. How should a clinician interpret this result?

<p>The antibiotic is effective at standard doses but may require higher doses for certain infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary concern regarding multi-drug resistant organisms (MDROs)?

<p>They limit treatment options, increasing morbidity and mortality. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A long-term care facility decides to implement a new policy regarding antibiotic use. Which strategy would be most consistent with the goal of reducing the spread of MDROs?

<p>Antibiotic use should be restricted to those with documented infections requiring them. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic helps differentiate protozoa from bacteria?

<p>Protozoa possess a nucleus, while bacteria do not. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with liver abscesses containing an "anchovy paste"-like material. Which protozoan is the most likely cause?

<p>Entamoeba histolytica. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having amebiasis. Which diagnostic test has the highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing this infection?

<p>Stool antigen test. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios is most suggestive of a Giardia lamblia infection?

<p>A patient with fatty diarrhea (steatorrhea) after drinking untreated water while camping. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Giardia lamblia. Which of the following microscopic findings is most suggestive of this infection?

<p>Double-nucleated flagellated organisms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman is diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. What is the primary concern regarding this infection?

<p>The infection may cause congenital defects in the fetus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most important serological test to order for confirmation of Toxoplasma gondii?

<p>Anti-toxoplasma IgM and IgG antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with trichomoniasis. What microscopic finding in a wet mount preparation or vaginal/penile discharge is most suggestive of this infection?

<p>Motile flagellates. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Plasmodium species is most likely to cause fatal malaria infections?

<p>P. falciparum. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with malaria. What is the best diagnostic test to identify the malaria parasite?

<p>Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature distinguishes enveloped viruses from naked viruses?

<p>Enveloped viruses bud out of the host cell, while naked viruses lyse the host cell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do enveloped viruses typically enter host cells?

<p>Fusion with the host cell plasma membrane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in the replication strategy between DNA and RNA viruses?

<p>DNA viruses use host cell DNA polymerase, while RNA viruses use their own RNA polymerase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient tests positive for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-specific antibodies including IgM and IgG. What aspect of the infection cycle does this finding confirm?

<p>Active or recent infection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician suspects a patient has infectious mononucleosis (IM) due to Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Which laboratory test is most appropriate for initial screening?

<p>Heterophile antibody test (e.g., Monospot). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes the purpose of the Gardasil 9® vaccine?

<p>To prevent infection from nine HPV types. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with perianal warts. Which of the following HPV types are most likely responsible for this condition?

<p>HPV 6 and 11. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician suspects a patient has influenza. A rapid antigen detection assay returns a negative result. What action is most appropriate?

<p>Consider a more sensitive molecular assay (e.g., RT-PCR). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the utility of molecular assays (RT-PCR) compared to antigen detection assays in diagnosing influenza?

<p>Molecular assays offer higher sensitivity/specificity than antigen tests. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with shingles (herpes zoster). This condition represents:

<p>Reactivation of latent varicella-zoster virus (VZV). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If someone is suspected of having herpes simplex virus, what test would you run?

<p>PCR (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Bacteria

Single-celled organisms lacking organelles or a true nucleus; DNA is in a tangled "nucleoid DNA" region.

Peptidoglycan

The polysaccharide found in bacterial cell walls, more abundant in Gram-positive bacteria.

Outer membrane

An asymmetric bilayer in Gram-negative bacteria; its outer layer contains lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A potent endotoxin found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, released when bacteria die.

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Gram staining

A differential staining technique used to classify bacteria based on their cell wall structure.

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Gram-positive bacteria

Bacteria that retain crystal violet stain, appearing purple or blue under a microscope because of a thick peptidoglycan layer.

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Gram-negative bacteria

Bacteria that do not retain crystal violet stain, appearing pink or red after counterstaining due to a thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane.

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Acid-fast stain

A staining method used for bacteria with resistant cell walls that contain mycolic acid, such as Mycobacterium.

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Cocci

Spherical bacterial cells that can be arranged in pairs (diplococci), chains (streptococci), or clusters (staphylococci).

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Bacilli

Rod-shaped bacterial cells.

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Spirochetes

Spiral-shaped bacterial cells.

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Extracellular (free-living)

Can grow on lab medium in absence of other host cells.

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Obligate intracellular parasites

Can only grow within host cells.

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Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing

Determines sensitivity/resistance of bacteria to various antibiotics.

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MIC

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration; the lowest concentration of a drug that inhibits visible growth of an organism.

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Kirby-Bauer method

A method where bacteria colonies are cultured and exposed to antibiotic disks; measures the zone of inhibition.

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Single-celled organisms

Protozoa means:

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Stool antigen test

Diagnostics of Entamoeba histolytica include:

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Stool antigen immunoassay

Infection caused by Giardia lamblia is diagnosed by:

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Serology

Most important way Toxoplasma gondii is diagnosed?

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Wet Mount

Sexually transmitted vaginal infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis is diagnosed by what examination?

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Malaria

Cyclical flu-like illness, ranges from mild to fatal.

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Malaria diagnosis

Blood smear examination.

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DNA or RNA genome

Virus consist of:

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Can hijack the cell

How Viruses invade

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Epstein-Barr diagnosis

Detected through Monospot or EBV-specific antibody testing

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Human Papillomavirus

Double-stranded DNA viruses infecting humans; types cause cancer.

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Gardasil

2-part serious for starting ages 9-12

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Orthomyxovirus

Caused by what?

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Conventional reverse transcription PCR

Molecular assays that are most specific.

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Varicella-Zoster

Human alphaherpesvirus 3

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Varicella-Zoster lab tests

Is a clinical diagnosis

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Causes or rates

Can causes rabies

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Viral infections (CMV)

Used in immuno:

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HSV testing

Detects specific antibodies via lab

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Tzanck smear

Looks for Vesicle/bulla

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Both T- or NT teats

Check for syphillis and STIs to use:

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Creamy discharge

Caused by Gonorrhoeae.

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Nucliec

NAAT is:

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E. oili

These examples of bacteria are called?

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Study Notes

  • Clinical Microbiology, Part 1 covers topics including introduction & bacteria review, body system infections, antibiotic susceptibility tests, bacteria, protozoa, viruses and STIs.

Organisms that Cause Infectious Diseases

  • These organisms are categorized into 5 major groups: bacteria, fungi, protozoa, helminths (worms), and viruses.
  • Bacteria are in their own domain.
  • Fungi (yeasts and molds) are unicellular or relatively simple multicellular organisms.
  • Protozoa and helminths (worms) are complex multicellular organisms.
  • Viruses are noncellular.

Bacteria

  • Bacteria are single-celled organisms without organelles or nuclei.
  • Bacteria's DNA is tangled in “nucleoid DNA".
  • Gram stain is performing in 4 steps.
  • Medically-important bacteria are tested.
  • Antimicrobial susceptibility testing and result interpretation is needed.

Bacterial Structure

  • Almost all bacteria have an inner plasma membrane and a peptidoglycan cell wall.
  • Gram+ bacteria have a much thicker peptidoglycan cell wall than gram- bacteria.
  • Gram- bacteria have an additional outer membrane
  • The outer membrane is an asymmetric bilayer with lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on the outside, and phospholipid on the inside.

Gram Staining

  • Gram staining is the technique of differentiating bacteria according to their cell walls, through the following four steps:
  • Crystal violet dye (purple) is applied and taken up into the cell.
  • Mordant (iodine) is applied to set the stain, forming insoluble complexes in the cell so it is not easily removed.
  • A lipid detergent, such as alcohol, is applied.
    • In gram- bacteria, the outer membrane is washed away because of its thin cell wall, making the cell colorless as the crystal violet washes away
    • Gram+ bacteria retain crystal violet in the cell because of their thicker cell wall, so they appear purple.
  • Cells are counterstained with safranin (pink).
  • Gram+ bacteria appear purple or blue because the pink safranin is overshadowed by the crystal violet.
  • Gram- bacteria appear pink or red.

Bacteria: Gram Positive vs. Gram Negative

  • Gram-positive bacteria have 1 cell membrane and a thick cell wall, and retain crystal violet dye, staining purple with gram stain.
  • Gram-negative bacteria have 2 cell membranes and a thin cell wall, and do not retain crystal violet dye, staining pink with gram stain.

Gram Staining and Other Techniques

  • Gram staining does not work well on all bacteria, so alternative techniques exist.
  • Some bacteria have envelope components that resist decolorization by acid/ethanol-based staining ingredients, so they are identified with acid-fast staining.
  • Mycobacterium (e.g., M. tuberculosis) are a notable example of acid-fast bacteria.

Gram-Negative Bacteria

  • Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in the outer membrane is a potent endotoxin.
  • LPS is highly antigenic, causing a systemic inflammatory response but making it impossible to build immunity to LPS.
  • Bacteria itself causes limited local tissue damage.
  • The death of bacteria causes a systemic inflammatory response, which becomes a problem.
  • The outer membrane of gram- bacteria makes them more resistant to many antibiotics compared to gram+ bacteria.

Gram-Positive Bacteria

  • Gram Positive Bacteria are invasive and causes local tissue damage.
  • Gram Positive Bacteria causes Less systemic disease than gram-negative bacteria.

Bacterial Structure and Classification

  • Bacteria are classified in many ways, with classifications updated as science advances, and historically classified primarily on morphology and biochemical characteristics.
  • The three basic groups based on shape are cocci, bacilli, and spirochetes.
  • Cocci are round/spheres that may be arranged in pairs (diplococci), chains (streptococci), or clusters (staphylococci).
    • Gram-positive cocci are most clinically relevant.
  • Bacilli are rods.
    • Gram-negative rods are most clinically relevant.
  • Spirochetes are spiral shaped.
  • Some bacteria are variable in shape (pleomorphic), with additional shapes like coccobacilli beyond those listed above.

Classical Categorization of Medically Important Bacteria

  • The classical categorization of medically important bacteria are separated into I. Rigid, thick cell walls, II. Flexible, thin cell walls (spirochetes), III. No cell wall (mycoplasmas).
  • Rigid, thick cell walls category are further subdivided into Extracellular and Obligate intracellular parasites.
  • Extracellular bacteria can grow on lab medium in absence of other host cells, and subdivided according to shape, staining reaction, and oxygen/spore-forming abilities.
    • Gram+ cocci and rods
    • Gram- cocci and rods.
  • Obligate intracellular parasites can only grow within host cells.

Bacterial Taxonomy

  • The following taxonomy is not complete.
  • It provides a framework for understanding some of the more clinically relevant bacteria, but is not all traditionally organized.

Gram+ Cocci

  • Gram+ cocci are either Staph (Clusters) or Strep (Chains).
  • Refer to chart for distinctions between the clusters including Staphylococcus aureus, Staph. epidermidis, and the chains including Strep. pyogenes, Strep. agalactiae and Strep. viridans.

Gram+ Rods

  • Gram+ Rods are spore forming or non-spore forming
  • Refer to chart for distinctions between the groups including Bacillus (aerobic), Clostridium (anaerobic), Actinomyces(filamentous) and Listeria (non-filamontous)

Gram- Cocci

  • The Gram- Cocci chart lists Neisseria (such as gonorrhoeae and meningitidis) and Moraxella.
  • Both Neisseria and Moraxella are typically diplococci.

Gram- Rods

  • Gram - Rods chart includes the types of Respiratory organisms, the Zoonotic organisms, and the Enteric organisms.

Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing

  • There are various testing methods for determining sensitivity/resistance of bacteria to antibiotics.
  • Dilution methods such as broth microdilution, include different concentrations of antibiotic treatments.
  • Quantitative Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is the lowest concentration of a specific drug that will inhibit visible growth of an organism.
  • MIC ranges are classified into interpretative categories.
  • Kirby-Bauer method (disk diffusion test) is a simple, inexpensive method.
  • Sample colonies are cultured then exposed to antibiotic disks, where antibiotic diffuses outward with the highest antibiotic concentration near the disk.
  • The diameter of inhibited growth is measured with the zone of inhibition (ZOI).

Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing

  • The Kirby-Bauer method (disk diffusion test) is qualitative.
  • Prespecified breakpoints (ranges) are used for the diameter of zone of inhibition (ZOI).
    • It is used to classify activity of a drug against a specific organism into susceptible, susceptible-dose, intermediate, or resistant.
  • The higher the susceptibility of the organism to the drug, the higher the ZOI and the lower MIC.
  • A culture & sensitivity (C&S) test can take up to 3 days for a final report, with preliminary reports given.
  • Samples taken can be from blood, sputum, wound, or urine.
  • "S" stands for susceptible/sensitive, and "R" stands for resistant on test results.

Multi-Drug Resistant Organisms (MDROs)

  • MDROS pose a "catastrophic threat" according to WHO.
  • Resistance can be inherent to the species or acquired through mutations and non-resistant bacteria.
  • The clinical role is to use antibiotics only when the body needs them to fight infection patient education.
  • From the laboratory role, Suppress sensitivity results on broad-spectrum antibiotics, include reminders with C&S reports.
    • For example, "50% of long-term care residents have asymptomatic bacteriuria".

Protozoa

  • Protozoa are single-celled organisms with nuclei and more complex cellular machinery than bacteria.
  • Protozoa are closer to single-celled animals than to bacteria.
  • Protozoa causes common Protozoal Infections.
  • Can specifically relate to the four Plasmodium malaria species.

Protozoa: Entamoeba histolytica

  • Entamoeba histolytica causes amebiasis/amebic liver disease, known for causing liver abscesses ("anchovy paste").
  • Diagnostic studies include:
    • E. histolytica-specific stool antigen test (~90% sensitive/specific)
    • Stool microscopy is also an option but less sensitive/specific/Stool specimens show cysts or trophozoites
    • Sigmoidoscopy may supplement stool antigen/stool microscopy (mucus collected from ulcers for microscopy and biopsy samples taken from edge of ulcers, Mucosal biopsy shows flask shaped ulcers)
    • Blood serologic testing does not differentiate acute infection vs. past exposure; but if negative in someone with 7-10 days of symptoms, then E. histolytica is less likely.

Protozoa: Giardia lamblia

  • Giardia lamblia causes giardiasis, which is the most common protozoal infestation in U.S.
  • A typical scenario is drinking untreated water, such as while hiking/camping, where multiple family members are affected.
  • Trophozoites from ingested cysts attach to the intestinal epithelium, causing mucosal inflammation and malabsorption.
  • Malabsorption results in steatorrhea (fatty diarrhea).
  • Diagnosis can be determined by stool microscopic examination for ova (eggs) and parasites (O&P).
  • Double-nucleated flagellated organisms are seen on stool sample.

Protozoa: Toxoplasma gondii

  • Toxoplasma gondii is an obligate intracellular protozoan, found worldwide in humans and in many species of mammals and birds.
  • It is commonly around cats.
  • It causes toxoplasmosis.
  • You can diagnosis with Anti-toxoplasma IgM and IgG antibodies and serology is most important. -IgM peaks, IgG and can cause congenital infection and reactivate in immunocompromised.

Protozoa: Trichomonas vaginalis

  • Trichomonas vaginalis causes trichomoniasis.
  • It needs to be discovered Traditionally via microscopic "wet mount” examination of vaginal/penile discharge.
  • This will show motile flagellates
  • For the Pearls, treat patient and sexual partners because partners can keep infecting each other.

Protozoa: Malaria

  • Malaria is contracted from a Mosquito-borne cyclical flu like illness
  • It ranges from mild to fatal
  • Parasitic protozoan
  • Plasmodium causes Malaria.
  • Transmitted from Anopheles mosquito's saliva into blood/releasing merozoites.
  • Multiple Stages
  • Sporozoite infects liver. -Replicates until hepatocyte bursts. -Also forms gametocytes.

Protozoa: Malaria (Diagnosis)

  • Diagnosis occurs with light microscopy examination of Giemsa-stained blood smear(classic test).
  • The technique, requires expertise and labor intensive and can miss cases with very low parasite loads
  • Rapid antigen tests. -Detect parasite antigens, are Useful and Simpler and quicker than blood smear.
  • Test-use generally limited to reference labs for research/epidemiology.

Protozoa: Malaria (Symptoms)

  • Molecular can amplify parasite DNA
  • Nucleic acid tests: PCR.
  • Anemia (testing and diagnosis of tissue-invasive diseases must be verified.)

Viruses

  • Viruses are studied by medical virology.
  • They can invade host cells and replicate.
  • Viruses relates to common viral infections.
  • Used to inventory the indications for a Tzanck smear.

Viruses

  • A virus is a genome that is a sequence of DNA or RNA, contained in a capsid composed of structural proteins that protect, transport, and deliver the viral genome.
  • There are also enveloped viruses that contain their own transcription factors, and its envelope comes from host cell plasma membranes.
  • The genome is usually stuffed with glycoproteins.

Viruses

  • Naked viruses have only a capsid and must penetrate host cell plasma membranes.
  • Enveloped viruses have hijacked part of the host cell plasma membrane, disguising the virus and enabling it to enter cells by fusion of membranes.

Viral Genome

  • DNA viruses are double-stranded and replicate in nuclei
  • Host cell machinery does not distinguish viral sequences from host sequences.
  • Viral DNA hijacks host polymerases and reproduces.
  • Most viral DNA brings its own viral polymerase.
  • RNA viruses are single stranded and replicate in cytoplasm.
  • They bring its own viral polymerases to replicate.

Viral Life Cycle

  • General life cycle of viruses includes 1) invade and 2) release
  • Viruses are not alive, and can can hijack cells.
  • Viruses exist until they bump into a cell.
    • Naked viruses attach and penetrate using capsid proteins, then uncoat and release the genome.
    • Enveloped viruses Glycoproteins facilitate membrane fusion.
  • From the invasion process. Genome is copied from the Host ribosomes
  • They hijacked to make viral proteins used to make new capsids.
  • There are Naked and Enveloped viruses for Exit and entry.
  • Enveloped viruses needs to be acute or chronic or latent. Cytolytic
  • Exit when its acute.

Viral Infections: Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

  • EBV is most common cause of infectious mononucleosis (IM): fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, atypical lymphocytosis.
  • Diagnosis (Check WBC count) due to with differential+ heterophile antibody test with Monospot
  • The Gold Standard will also be EBV-specific antibody testing on.

Viral Infections: Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

  • HPV are Double-stranded DNA viruses that only infect humans with >200 types.
  • Low-risk HPVs mostly cause no disease
  • HPV's can cause anogenital and oropharynx. The vaccine for treatment is Gardasil 9® protects against infection from nine HPV types (nonavalent.)
  • 2-part series, boys and girls, starting between ages 9-12.

Viral Infections: Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)

  • Is used to show and give viral information.
  • Shingles(herpes zoster) with dermatomal pattern that is Painful .
  • It can diagnosis infections and conditions.

Tzanck Smear

  • Tzanck Smear is Simple, rapid, and inexpensive .

Viral Infections: Rhabdovirus

  • Rhabdovirus causes rabies
  • Low cases in US.
  • There can be rabies from transcript infection.
  • If it is wild life ,euhanthiza brains observed. Isolate pets

Viral Infections: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

CMV: Usually, asymptomatic for the patients infection.

  • CMV can cause many clinical presentations
  • Can also cause congenital with infection
  • Cannot be reliably diagnosed. PCR is a treatment that is preferred.

Viral Infections: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

  • Painful vesicular eruptions, usually in orolabial area (HSV1) or on genitals (HSV2).
  • Usually diagnosed clinically but should be confirmed with lab testing with PCR ( preferred).
  • Lab text is other PCR to be less and and the use of Tzanck.
  • Limited test to diagnose patient.

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

  • Commonly Analyze using laboratory testing.
  • Has Trichomonas, HSV and HPV (certain types).

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs): Syphilis

  • Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum (spirochete).
  • Multistage disease beginning with painless, indurated ulcer, usually on the genitals
  • Serology is the recommended approach. -The test should include the test should be non. -False-positives.

Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs): Gonorrhea

•Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. •Creamy, yellow discharge from the (Penile or cervical). •Diagnosis will be Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT): most accurate ("gold standard")

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