STI and Vectors
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Questions and Answers

What is the gram-staining characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis?

  • Gram negative (correct)
  • Gram positive
  • Cannot be determined by gram staining
  • Gram variable
  • What is the recommended diagnostic test for Chlamydia?

  • Urine culture
  • Throat swab
  • NAAT (correct)
  • Blood smear
  • If testing for Chlamydia is done, what else is also tested for?

  • Hepatitis B
  • HIV
  • Gonorrhea (correct)
  • Syphilis
  • What action is recommended if either the Chlamydia or gonorrhea test comes back positive?

    <p>Ensure partners get tested and treated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for Chlamydia?

    <p>Azithromycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Gonorrhea primarily treated?

    <p>Ceftriaxone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What could happen if Gonorrhea is left untreated in females?

    <p>It could progress to PID</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent of syphilis and what is the bacterial shape?

    <p>Treponema pallidum (spirochete)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is syphilis known as 'the great imitator'?

    <p>It imitates the symptoms of other diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first sign of the primary phase of syphilis?

    <p>Painless sores called chancres</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of secondary syphilis?

    <p>Non-pruritic body rash</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What part of the body is typically affected by the rash in secondary syphilis?

    <p>Palms and soles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the relationship between contracting syphilis and HIV infection risk?

    <p>It increases the risk for an HIV infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic presentation of genital herpes?

    <p>Clustered vesicles that are painful when they break</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Lee Vmee Uhlone came into the office for a checkup. They are found to have herpes. Which medication is not likely to be prescribed?

    <p>azithromycin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What demographic group is most at risk for HPV in the USA?

    <p>Teens and young adults</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the USA?

    <p>HPV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which types of HPV are associated with genital warts?

    <p>Type 6 and type 11</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which types of HPV are associated with the majority of HPV-caused cancers?

    <p>Type 16 and type 18</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first concern when HIV causes a drop in CD4 levels?

    <p>Candidiasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Due to advances in early diagnosis and aggressive treatment, what is HIV now largely considered as?

    <p>Chronic disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of virus is HIV?

    <p>Retrovirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is known for its sensitivity in detecting HIV?

    <p>Rapid antibody test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is specifically used to confirm the presence of HIV antibodies?

    <p>Western Blot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the distinguishing feature of the Western Blot test in HIV diagnosis?

    <p>Specificity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a CD4 count dropping below 200 in a person with HIV?

    <p>It signifies the progression to AIDS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a condition that defines an AIDS diagnosis?

    <p>Chlamydia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a condition that defines an AIDS diagnosis?

    <p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii?

    <p>Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is described as an opportunistic infection in individuals with weakened immune systems?

    <p>Kaposi sarcoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chu Ingam presents with a headache, focal neurologic deficits, and altered mental status. Which condition has Chu most likely contracted?

    <p>Toxoplasmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Mike Miday stepped on a rusty nail...

    <p>Tetanus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is cryptosporidiosis commonly contracted?

    <p>Through exposure to stool contaminated food and water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where are waterborne transmission of cryptosporidiosis infections commonly acquired?

    <p>Water parks and swimming pools</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What accounts for infections in travelers and common-source epidemics related to cryptosporidiosis?

    <p>Waterborne transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common transmission route of toxoplasmosis?

    <p>Contact with cat feces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of toxoplasmosis in pregnant women?

    <p>Risk of transmission to the fetus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are potential consequences of severe toxoplasmosis?

    <p>Eye and brain damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Boar Ted Eth comes into the clinic with diarrhea and vomiting. Boar says that his mother (Jane Doe) is also experiencing the same symptoms that began at the same time? What is an important thing to ask Boar?

    <p>What is everything you and your mother have eaten?</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential symptom of severe Shigellosis?

    <p>Mucous and blood in the stools</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the reservoir for Salmonellosis primarily found?

    <p>Domestic and wild animals including poultry and swine TURTLES</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are chemistry panels important in assessing a patient's dehydration status?

    <p>To measure the levels of electrolytes and minerals in the blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reservoir of campylobacteriosis?

    <p>Chickens and cows</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common source of exposure to campylobacteriosis?

    <p>Undercooked meat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reservoir for E. coli?

    <p>Cows</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bacterium is associated with the development of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

    <p>Escherichia coli 0157:H7</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of bacteria causes botulism?

    <p>Clostridium botulinum Gram +</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic feature used to diagnose Vibrio cholerae?

    <p>Rice water stools</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the gram stain classification of Vibrio cholerae?

    <p>Gram negative</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Hepatitis A primarily transmitted?

    <p>By consuming contaminated food or water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which route of transmission is associated with Hepatitis A?

    <p>Fecal-oral, food, or waterborne transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is another name for Giardia?

    <p>Beaver Fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can Zika virus be transmitted to a fetus?

    <p>During childbirth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what ways can Zika virus be transmitted to a newborn?

    <p>Through breastfeeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?

    <p>Borrelia burgdorferi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary presentation of Lyme disease?

    <p>Erythema migrans or bull's eye rash</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do you properly remove a tik?

    <p>Tweezers as close to the skin as possible, steady pressure to remove, don't twist, wash area with soap and water, no Vaseline, fingernail polish, or matches.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Chlamydia

    • Chlamydia trachomatis is gram-negative and does not retain the crystal violet stain used in gram-staining.
    • Recommended diagnostic test for Chlamydia is nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT).
    • Testing for Chlamydia often includes screening for gonorrhea due to their frequent co-occurrence.
    • If either Chlamydia or gonorrhea test results are positive, partners should also be tested and treated if necessary.
    • Primary treatment for Chlamydia consists of azithromycin or doxycycline.
    • Gonorrhea is primarily treated with antibiotic therapy, typically ceftriaxone combined with azithromycin.
    • Untreated gonorrhea in females can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), resulting in long-term complications.

    Syphilis

    • Causative agent of syphilis is Treponema pallidum, a spirochete.
    • Syphilis is known as 'the great imitator' because its symptoms mimic those of various other diseases.
    • The first sign of primary syphilis is a painless sore called a chancre.
    • Common symptom of secondary syphilis includes a rash, which can cover large areas of the body.
    • Rash in secondary syphilis often affects the trunk and extremities.
    • Contracting syphilis increases the risk of HIV infection due to mucosal lesions that facilitate transmission.

    Genital Herpes

    • Characteristic presentation of genital herpes includes painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.
    • Lee Vmee Uhlone diagnosed with herpes is less likely to be prescribed acyclovir, which is more commonly used for shingles or chickenpox.

    HPV

    • Most at-risk demographic group for HPV in the USA includes sexually active adolescents and young adults.
    • Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the USA.
    • HPV types 6 and 11 are associated with genital warts.
    • HPV types 16 and 18 are linked with the majority of HPV-related cancers.

    HIV

    • Primary concern when HIV causes a drop in CD4 counts is the increased risk of opportunistic infections.
    • HIV is largely considered a manageable chronic condition due to advances in early diagnosis and treatment.
    • HIV is an envelope virus that attacks the immune system.
    • The HIV RNA test is known for its high sensitivity in detecting the virus.
    • The ELISA test is specifically used to confirm the presence of HIV antibodies.
    • The Western Blot test is distinguished by its ability to confirm specific HIV proteins, providing confirmation of infection.
    • A CD4 count dropping below 200 signifies progression to AIDS, indicating that the immune system is severely compromised.

    Opportunistic Infections

    • Pneumocystis jirovecii treatment typically involves trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
    • Opportunistic infections occur in individuals with weakened immune systems, commonly seen in HIV/AIDS patients.

    Neurological Conditions

    • Chu Ingam's symptoms of headache, focal neurologic deficits, and altered mental status indicate possible cerebral toxoplasmosis or another infection affecting the central nervous system.

    Gastrointestinal Infections

    • Mike Miday's rusty nail incident highlights the importance of tetanus prophylaxis, but may not be directly related to gastrointestinal infections.
    • Cryptosporidiosis common transmission is from contaminated water or food.
    • Waterborne transmission of cryptosporidiosis typically occurs from recreational or drinking water.
    • Infections in travelers and common-source epidemics are often linked to contaminated water supplies.

    Zoonotic Infections

    • Toxoplasmosis is commonly transmitted through undercooked or raw meat and contaminated cat feces.
    • Pregnant women exposed to toxoplasmosis may face risks of miscarriage or congenital infections.
    • Severe toxoplasmosis can lead to neurological complications in immunocompromised individuals.

    Bacterial Infections

    • Potential severe symptom of Shigellosis includes dysentery, characterized by bloody diarrhea.
    • Reservoir for Salmonellosis primarily found in livestock, especially poultry.
    • Chemistry panels are critical for assessing dehydration status in infectious gastrointestinal cases.
    • Campylobacteriosis is mainly acquired from undercooked poultry and unpasteurized dairy products.
    • Primary reservoir of E. coli is the intestines of humans and animals, particularly cattle.
    • Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), leading to kidney failure.

    Additional Conditions

    • Botulism is caused by Clostridium botulinum, which produces a potent neurotoxin.
    • Vibrio cholerae is diagnosed by the presence of characteristic rice-water stools.
    • Vibrio cholerae is gram-negative and facultatively anaerobic.
    • Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, commonly seen in contaminated food or water.

    Miscellaneous

    • Giardia is also known as beaver fever, associated with gastrointestinal illness.
    • Zika virus can be transmitted to a fetus during pregnancy through maternal infection and can lead to congenital abnormalities.
    • Proper tick removal requires using fine-tipped tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the skin's surface as possible, pulling upward with even pressure.

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