WHO classification of primary tumor

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following molecular alterations is most crucial in differentiating between subtypes of adult-type diffuse gliomas, impacting both classification and prognosis?

  • IDH mutation and 1p/19q-codeletion status (correct)
  • ATRX mutation status
  • TP53 mutation status
  • EGFR amplification

In the context of paediatric diffuse gliomas, which distinction most significantly directs therapeutic strategies and prognostic expectations?

  • Patient's age at diagnosis
  • Differentiation between low-grade and high-grade categories (correct)
  • Tumor location within the CNS
  • Presence of contrast enhancement on imaging

Among circumscribed astrocytic gliomas, which histological subtype is recognized for its potential to exhibit features of higher-grade gliomas, necessitating careful pathological evaluation to predict clinical behavior?

  • Chordoid glioma
  • Pilocytic astrocytoma
  • Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (correct)
  • Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

Dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma (Lhermitte-Duclos disease) is uniquely characterized by its association with which of the following genetic syndromes?

<p>Cowden syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic fusion is most characteristically associated with supratentorial ependymomas, aiding in their molecular classification and differentiation from other ependymal tumor subtypes?

<p>ZFTA fusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Posterior fossa ependymomas are further subcategorized into groups A and B based on distinct molecular profiles. What is the primary molecular driver distinguishing posterior fossa group A (PFA) ependymomas?

<p>PRC2 complex dysfunction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among choroid plexus tumors, which variant is associated with the poorest prognosis due to its aggressive biological behavior and tendency for dissemination within the central nervous system?

<p>Choroid plexus carcinoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Papillary tumor of the pineal region, a distinct pineal tumor entity, is characterized by a specific molecular alteration involving which pathway, potentially offering targeted therapeutic avenues?

<p>SMARCB1 mutation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Medulloblastomas are now classified into molecular subgroups with distinct clinical and biological characteristics. Which subgroup is typically associated with the best prognosis?

<p>WNT-activated medulloblastoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor (AT/RT), a highly aggressive embryonal tumor, is defined by inactivation of which tumor suppressor gene, critical for its diagnosis and understanding of its pathogenesis?

<p>SMARCB1/INI1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among cranial and spinal nerve tumors, which entity is derived from Schwann cells and is frequently associated with Neurofibromatosis type 2?

<p>Schwannoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (MPNSTs) can arise in association with which predisposing genetic condition, significantly increasing the risk of developing these aggressive sarcomas?

<p>Neurofibromatosis type 1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chordoma, a tumor arising from notochordal remnants, is most frequently located in which anatomical region of the axial skeleton?

<p>Skull base and sacrum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Meningiomas, the most common primary intracranial tumors, are thought to originate from which type of cells within the meninges?

<p>Arachnoid cap cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among haematolymphoid tumors involving the CNS, which subtype is characterized by an aggressive clinical course and often presents as space-occupying lesions within the brain parenchyma?

<p>Primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the CNS (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Germinoma, the most common type of intracranial germ cell tumor, most frequently arises in which specific location within the CNS?

<p>Pineal and suprasellar regions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma, a tumor of the sellar region, is thought to arise from remnants of which embryonic structure?

<p>Rathke's pouch (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Papillary craniopharyngioma, a less common subtype, differs from adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma not only histologically but also in its typical genetic alteration. Which mutation is characteristic of papillary craniopharyngioma?

<p>BRAF V600E mutation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pituitary adenomas are broadly classified based on their hormone production. Which type of pituitary adenoma is the most common, frequently presenting with hyperprolactinemia?

<p>Prolactinoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among paediatric-type diffuse high-grade gliomas, diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered, is defined by a specific histone mutation. What is the location of this critical mutation in histone H3?

<p>Lysine 27 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Infant-type hemispheric glioma, another category of paediatric-type diffuse high-grade glioma, is characterized by fusions involving which receptor tyrosine kinase genes?

<p>NTRK and EGFR (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Polymorphous low-grade neuroepithelial tumour of the young (PLNTY), a paediatric-type diffuse low-grade glioma, often harbors alterations in which signaling pathway?

<p>MAPK pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Angiocentric glioma, also classified under paediatric-type diffuse low-grade gliomas, is histologically characterized by a distinct growth pattern around which type of CNS structure?

<p>Blood vessels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among adult-type diffuse gliomas, oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q-codeleted is defined by co-occurrence of IDH mutation and 1p/19q codeletion. What is the significance of 1p/19q codeletion in these tumors?

<p>It is a marker of favorable prognosis and chemosensitivity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, an adult-type diffuse glioma, is graded based on histological features. Which grading system is currently used for these tumors according to the WHO classification?

<p>WHO grading system (Grades 1-4) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype, the most aggressive adult-type diffuse glioma, is molecularly defined by the absence of IDH mutation and often harbors other genetic alterations. Which of the following is a common genetic alteration in IDH-wildtype glioblastomas?

<p>EGFR amplification (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among circumscribed astrocytic gliomas, pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common. What is a characteristic genetic alteration frequently found in pilocytic astrocytomas?

<p>BRAF fusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (SEGA) is strongly associated with which genetic syndrome, often leading to the development of SEGAs within the ventricles?

<p>Tuberous sclerosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chordoid glioma, a rare circumscribed astrocytic glioma, typically occurs in which location within the CNS?

<p>Third ventricle and suprasellar region (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among glioneuronal and neuronal tumors, ganglioglioma is a common type. What is the defining characteristic of gangliogliomas histologically?

<p>Mixture of neoplastic glial and neuronal cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma/desmoplastic infantile astrocytoma are typically diagnosed in which age group?

<p>Infants and young children (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor (DNET) is a glioneuronal tumor often associated with which clinical presentation?

<p>Intractable epilepsy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rosette-forming glioneuronal tumor is characterized by a distinctive histological feature involving neurocytic rosettes around which structures?

<p>Central neuropil islands (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Myxoid glioneuronal tumor, a recently recognized entity, is typically located in which region of the brain?

<p>Basal ganglia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Diffuse leptomeningeal glioneuronal tumor (DLGNT) is characterized by its spread along which CNS compartment?

<p>Leptomeninges (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Multinodular and vacuolating neuronal tumor (MVNT) is considered to be primarily what type of lesion in terms of neoplastic potential?

<p>Benign or low-grade (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dysplastic cerebellar ganglioncytoma (Lhermitte-Duclos disease) is histologically characterized by an abnormal expansion of which layer of the cerebellum?

<p>Purkinje cell layer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Central neurocytoma, a neuronal tumor, typically arises within which ventricular structure of the brain?

<p>Lateral ventricles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Extraventricular neurocytoma, a variant of neurocytoma, is distinguished from central neurocytoma primarily by its location. Where is extraventricular neurocytoma typically found?

<p>Brain parenchyma, outside the ventricles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cerebellar liponeurocytoma, a rare glioneuronal tumor, is characterized by a unique histological component. What is this distinguishing feature?

<p>Lipid-containing cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The molecular classification of medulloblastomas has refined our understanding of these tumours and their clinical management. Considering the distinct signalling pathways driving medulloblastoma subtypes, how does the differentiation between WNT-activated and SHH-activated medulloblastomas most significantly inform therapeutic strategies beyond conventional approaches?

<p>SHH-activated medulloblastomas are more amenable to targeted therapies inhibiting the Hedgehog pathway, while WNT-activated tumours may benefit from therapies modulating Wnt signalling or alternative pathway inhibitors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Paediatric diffuse low-grade gliomas are a heterogeneous group with distinct molecular drivers. In the context of targeted therapy development, which of the following molecular alterations, characteristic of specific paediatric low-grade glioma subtypes like Polymorphous low-grade neuroepithelial tumour of the young (PLNTY) and Angiocentric glioma, presents the most promising avenue for precision medicine approaches?

<p>Fusions involving receptor tyrosine kinase genes such as FGFR2 or NTRK, indicating potential sensitivity to kinase inhibitors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ependymal tumours, classified by location and molecular signatures, exhibit significant biological diversity. How does the presence of ZFTA or YAP1 fusions in supratentorial ependymomas fundamentally alter our understanding of their tumorigenesis and clinical behaviour compared to posterior fossa ependymomas, particularly concerning therapeutic resistance?

<p>ZFTA and YAP1 fusions are associated with altered epigenetic regulation and transcriptional programs that drive tumour development in supratentorial ependymomas, potentially leading to different vulnerabilities compared to posterior fossa subtypes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Craniopharyngiomas, arising in the sellar region, are histologically and genetically distinct as adamantinomatous and papillary subtypes. What embryological distinction most fundamentally explains the divergent pathogenesis and molecular profiles observed between adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma (ACP) and papillary craniopharyngioma (PCP)?

<p>ACP originates from Rathke's pouch remnants, while PCP arises from metaplastic transformation of pituicytes within the pituitary gland. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the classification of adult-type diffuse gliomas, the co-occurrence of IDH mutation and 1p/19q codeletion defines oligodendroglioma. How does this specific molecular signature, in comparison to IDH-mutant astrocytomas without 1p/19q codeletion, most critically refine our understanding of tumour biology and predict differential responses to clinical therapies?

<p>1p/19q codeletion is a marker of chromosomal instability and is associated with a distinct clinical course and improved prognosis in IDH-mutant oligodendrogliomas, as well as a characteristic sensitivity to specific chemotherapeutic agents like procarbazine, lomustine, and vincristine (PCV). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Gliomas

Tumors arising from glial cells and neurons.

Ependymal Tumors

Tumors derived from ependymal cells lining the ventricles.

Choroid Plexus Tumors

Tumors originating from the choroid plexus.

Pineal Tumors

Tumors located in or near the pineal gland.

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Cranial & Spinal Nerve Tumors

Tumors affecting cranial and spinal nerves.

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Fibroblastic and myofibroblastic tumours

Tumors composed of fibrous and myofibroblastic elements.

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Vascular tumors

Tumors involving blood vessels.

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Skeletal muscle tumors

Tumors composed of skeletal muscle tissue.

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Tumors of uncertain differentiation

Tumors with uncertain differentiation.

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Chondrogenic tumors

Tumors arising from cartilage-forming cells.

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Notochordal tumors

Tumors from remnants of the notochord.

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Melanocytic Tumors

Tumors derived from melanocytes.

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Lymphomas

Tumors composed of lymphoid cells.

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Histiocytic tumours

Arise from histiocytes and immune cells.

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Meningioma

Originate from meningothelial cells of the meninges.

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Tumour of the Sellar Region

Tumors located in the sellar region of the brain.

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Germ Cell Tumours

Tumors derived from germ cells.

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Adult-type diffuse gliomas

Gliomas commonly found in adults.

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Paediatric-type diffuse low-grade gliomas

Gliomas typically seen in children.

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Paediatric-type diffuse high-grade gliomas

Aggressive gliomas present in children.

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Circumscribed astrocytic gliomas

Astrocytic gliomas with well-defined borders.

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Glioneuronal and neuronal tumors

Involve glial and neuronal elements.

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Medulloblastomas, molecularly defined

Molecularly defined medulloblastomas.

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Medulloblastomas, histologically defined

Histologically defined medulloblastomas.

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Embryonal Tumours

Tumors arising from embryonic cells.

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Study Notes

Chemical Kinetics

  • Chemical kinetics studies reaction rates, how they change with conditions, and reaction mechanisms.
  • Reaction rate signifies how quickly reactants turn into products.
  • Rates can be tracked by monitoring changes in reactant or product concentrations over time.
    • $rate = \frac{\Delta[Product]}{\Delta t} = -\frac{\Delta[Reactant]}{\Delta t}$
  • Rate is positive when based on product formation, and negative when based on reactant consumption.
  • For the reaction $aA + bB \rightarrow cC + dD$
    • $rate = -\frac{1}{a}\frac{\Delta[A]}{\Delta t} = -\frac{1}{b}\frac{\Delta[B]}{\Delta t} = \frac{1}{c}\frac{\Delta[C]}{\Delta t} = \frac{1}{d}\frac{\Delta[D]}{\Delta t}$
  • Reaction conditions such as temperature, concentration, and catalysts affect reaction rates.

Rate Laws

  • Rate law is an equation linking reaction rate to reactant and catalyst concentrations.
  • For the reaction $aA + bB \rightarrow cC + dD$
    • $rate = k[A]^m[B]^n$
    • k is the rate constant
    • m is the reaction order with respect to A
    • n is the reaction order with respect to B
    • m + n is the overall reaction order
  • Reaction orders must be determined experimentally.

Temperature and Reaction Rate

  • The rate constant k is temperature-dependent.
  • The Arrhenius equation describes the relationship between k and T:
    • $k = Ae^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}}$
    • A is the frequency factor.
    • $E_a$​ is the activation energy.
    • R is the gas constant, 8.314 J/(mol·K).
    • T is the absolute temperature in Kelvin
  • Higher temperatures generally accelerate reactions by increasing molecular kinetic energy and effective collisions.

Reaction Mechanisms

  • A reaction mechanism shows the step-by-step elementary reactions of an overall chemical change.
  • The rate-determining step, being the slowest, governs the overall reaction rate.
  • Intermediates appear in the mechanism but are neither reactants nor final products.

Catalysis

  • A catalyst accelerates a chemical reaction without being consumed.
  • Catalysts lower activation energy by providing alternative reaction pathways.
  • Homogeneous catalysis features the catalyst in the same phase as reactants.
  • Heterogeneous catalysis involves the catalyst in a different phase from the reactants.
  • Enzymes are highly specific and efficient biological catalysts.

Linear Algebra

  • An vector space is a set $E$ with two operations:
    • Addition: $+ : E \times E \rightarrow E$
    • Multiplication by a scalar: $\cdot : \mathbb{K} \times E \rightarrow E$
    • satisfying certain properties (associativity, commutativity, neutral element, inverse element, distributivity).
  • A linear transformation is a function $f : E \rightarrow F$ between two vector spaces $E$ and $F$ that preserves the operations of addition and multiplication by a scalar:
    • $f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)$
    • $f(\lambda x) = \lambda f(x)$
  • The kernel of a linear transformation $f : E \rightarrow F$ is the set of vectors in $E$ that are mapped to the zero vector in $F$:
    • $\operatorname{Ker}(f) = {x \in E \mid f(x) = 0}$
  • The image of a linear transformation $f : E \rightarrow F$ is the set of vectors in $F$ that are reached by $f$:
    • $\operatorname{Im}(f) = {f(x) \mid x \in E}$

Theorems

  • Rank-Nullity Theorem: For a linear transformation $f : E \rightarrow F$ between vector spaces of finite dimension, we have:
    • $\dim(E) = \dim(\operatorname{Ker}(f)) + \dim(\operatorname{Im}(f))$
  • A linear transformation $f : E \rightarrow F$ is injective if and only if $\operatorname{Ker}(f) = {0}$.
  • A linear transformation $f : E \rightarrow F$ is surjective if and only if $\operatorname{Im}(f) = F$.
  • A linear transformation $f : E \rightarrow F$ is bijective if and only if it is injective and surjective.

Matrices

  • A matrix is an array of numbers. A matrix with $m$ rows and $n$ columns is of size $m \times n$.
  • Two matrices of the same size can be added.
  • A matrix can be multiplied by a scalar.
  • Two matrices $A$ and $B$ can be multiplied if the number of columns of $A$ is equal to the number of rows of $B$.
  • The determinant of a square matrix is a number that indicates whether the matrix is invertible.
  • The inverse of a square matrix $A$ is a matrix $A^{-1}$ such that $A A^{-1} = A^{-1} A = I$, where $I$ is the identity matrix.

Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors

  • An eigenvector of a square matrix $A$ is a non-zero vector $v$ such that $A v = \lambda v$, where $\lambda$ is a scalar called an eigenvalue.
  • The characteristic polynomial of a square matrix $A$ is the polynomial $\det(A - \lambda I)$. The roots of this polynomial are the eigenvalues of $A$.
  • A matrix is diagonalizable if it is similar to a diagonal matrix.
  • A matrix is diagonalizable if and only if the sum of the dimensions of its eigenspaces is equal to the dimension of the vector space.

Dot Product and Orthogonality

  • A dot product is a function $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle : E \times E \rightarrow \mathbb{K}$ that satisfies certain properties (linearity, symmetry, positivity).
  • Two vectors $x$ and $y$ are orthogonal if $\langle x, y \rangle = 0$.
  • An orthonormal basis is a basis formed of orthogonal vectors of norm 1.
  • The Gram-Schmidt process allows to construct an orthonormal basis from any basis.

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