Ch. 53 Male Reproductive Process
84 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What test is primarily used to evaluate prostate health by measuring a specific protein produced by the prostate gland?

  • TRUS-guided biopsy
  • Testicular exam
  • Prostate Specific Antigen Test (PSA) (correct)
  • Digital rectal exam

    • What is a common consequence of an enlarged prostate that men may experience when attempting to urinate?

  • Inability to completely urinate
  • Increased urine flow rate
  • Increased urinary retention
  • Double or triple voiding (correct)

    • At what age should men start undergoing digital rectal exams for prostate health assessment?

  • 50 years (correct)
  • 40 years
  • 55 years regardless of family history
  • 45 years if family history is present

    • Which medication class is known to commonly cause erectile dysfunction?

    <p>Beta blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the evaluation of erectile dysfunction, which physiological process is commonly disrupted?

    <p>Increased blood flow into the corpus cavernosum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the acronym PLISSIT stand for in terms of sexual health assessment?

    <p>Permission, Limited Information, Specific Suggestions, Intensive Therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal range for Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) levels in men aged 60 years or younger?

    <p>Less than 4.0 ng/mL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common cause of erectile dysfunction?

    <p>Regular exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the BETTER acronym emphasize in discussing sexual health issues?

    <p>Bring up the topic, educate, tell, time, record</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential risk associated with a TRUS-guided biopsy of the prostate?

    <p>Infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two components of the Gleason Score?

    <p>Predominant and secondary architectural patterns</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surgical procedure is most commonly used when the disease is confined to the prostate?

    <p>Radical Prostatectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication following surgery for prostate removal?

    <p>Retrograde ejaculation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following therapies involves internal implantation of radioactive seeds?

    <p>Brachytherapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical nursing intervention for a patient after prostate surgery?

    <p>Monitoring I&amp;O and vital signs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential side effect should be avoided when using brachytherapy?

    <p>Contact with pregnant women and infants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is commonly used to alleviate bladder spasms post-prostate surgery?

    <p>Flavoxate (Urispas)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant sign to call the surgeon after continuous bladder irrigation post-surgery?

    <p>Bright red drainage after an hour</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect of chemotherapy with Docetaxel?

    <p>Gynecomastia and mastodynia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication of Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)?

    <p>Transurethral Resection Syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common age range for men to be diagnosed with testicular cancer?

    <p>15-35 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a risk factor for testicular cancer?

    <p>Undescended testicle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary clinical manifestation of testicular cancer?

    <p>Painless enlargement of the testes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended follow-up for monitoring tumor markers in testicular cancer?

    <p>Blood tests for alpha-fetoprotein and beta HcG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surgical procedure involves the removal of the affected testis in testicular cancer management?

    <p>Orchiectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential late adverse reaction from chemotherapy treatment for testicular cancer?

    <p>Renal insufficiency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is essential education for a patient post-vasectomy regarding contraception?

    <p>Use contraception until negative sample is confirmed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can swelling be managed after a vasectomy as part of nursing management?

    <p>Cold compress and elevation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is known to potentially cause erectile dysfunction?

    <p>Clonidine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common first sign of prostate cancer?

    <p>Urinary obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect of sildenafil?

    <p>Nasal congestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of prostatitis is most commonly encountered?

    <p>Chronic prostatitis/pelvic pain syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk factor for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

    <p>Smoking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of finasteride in the treatment of BPH?

    <p>Decreases prostate size</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should sildenafil be administered for optimal effect?

    <p>1 hour before sexual activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic is commonly used for treating prostatitis?

    <p>Ciprofloxacin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition can occur if organic nitrates are taken with sildenafil?

    <p>Severe hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is NOT commonly associated with chronic prostatitis?

    <p>Severe fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential complication of a digital rectal exam (DRE) for prostate cancer?

    <p>Infection risk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What therapeutic approach should be avoided during the acute phase of prostatitis?

    <p>Masturbation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What surgical procedure is primarily associated with enlarging the passage through the prostate?

    <p>Transurethral resection (TURP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lifestyle factor is NOT a risk factor for prostate cancer?

    <p>Diet low in animal fat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common clinical manifestation of testicular cancer?

    <p>Painless enlargement of the testes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which risk factor is associated with an increased likelihood of developing testicular cancer?

    <p>Caucasian ethnicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of tumor markers in the context of testicular cancer?

    <p>Staging the cancer and monitoring treatment response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What post-operative education is important for a patient after a vasectomy?

    <p>No change in sexual function or amount of ejaculate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment approach is commonly used for advanced metastatic testicular cancer?

    <p>Chemotherapy with cisplatin and etoposide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common complication associated with a vasectomy?

    <p>Bruising and swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should monthly testicular self-examinations (TSE) ideally be performed?

    <p>Monthly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be the initial focus in a male reproductive health assessment?

    <p>Urinary function and symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action if a patient exhibits symptoms of renal insufficiency after chemotherapy for testicular cancer?

    <p>Monitor renal function and contact the healthcare provider</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor may contribute to an increased risk of erectile dysfunction?

    <p>Chronic renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test is important to understand?

    <p>Levels can be elevated due to acute prostatitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is most notably associated with erectile dysfunction risk?

    <p>Statins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which patient position is NOT used during a testicular/scrotum examination?

    <p>Lying flat on the back</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the key elements of the BETTER model in discussing sexual health?

    <p>Timing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the assessment of erectile dysfunction, which physiological process is primarily involved?

    <p>Smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus cavernosum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of psychological factor can influence erectile dysfunction?

    <p>Anxiety and depression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of nitric oxide in the process of achieving an erection?

    <p>Enhances smooth muscle relaxation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What procedure is involved in obtaining prostate fluid or tissue analysis?

    <p>TRUS-guided biopsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary components of the Gleason Score used for grading cancer?

    <p>Architectural and predominant patterns of the gland</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medical management option is typically the first line for localized prostate cancer?

    <p>Radical prostatectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication is a common outcome following a radical prostatectomy?

    <p>Retrograde ejaculation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a known side effect of androgen deprivation therapy (ADT)?

    <p>Decreased libido and bone density</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a patient shows bright red drainage after an hour of continuous bladder irrigation post-prostate surgery?

    <p>Call the surgeon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which therapy involves the internal implantation of radioactive seeds?

    <p>Brachytherapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a major concern for patients undergoing brachytherapy?

    <p>Radiation exposure to pregnant women and infants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) after prostate surgery?

    <p>To prevent blood clot formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a recognized adverse effect of the medication Docetaxel?

    <p>Gynecomastia and mastodynia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the management of post-TURP complications, what is crucial for a nurse to monitor?

    <p>Urine output and vital signs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of prostatitis encountered?

    <p>Chronic prostatitis/pelvic pain syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which antibiotic is effective for treating acute bacterial prostatitis?

    <p>Ciprofloxacin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication class is mainly used to manage symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

    <p>Alpha adrenergic blockers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided to alleviate symptoms associated with prostatitis?

    <p>Alcohol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect associated with phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors like sildenafil?

    <p>Nasal congestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following risk factors is associated with prostate cancer?

    <p>African American ethnicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these conditions is characterized by the accumulation of waste products in the blood?

    <p>Azotemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important consideration when using sildenafil in combination with organic nitrates?

    <p>It may cause severe hypotension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of medical management might be used for treating severe pelvic pain in prostatitis?

    <p>Antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which surgical procedure involves removing the inner part of the prostate using endoscopy?

    <p>Transurethral resection (TURP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is considered a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor used in BPH treatment?

    <p>Finasteride</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical manifestation of prostate cancer?

    <p>Frequent urination at night</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What symptom is most commonly identified in patients with chronic prostatitis/pelvic pain syndrome?

    <p>Genitourinary discomfort</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a non-pharmacological treatment recommended for prostatitis management?

    <p>Sitz baths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Gerontologic Considerations

    • Prostate gland tends to enlarge with age, leading to changes in the scrotum and testes, and decreased sexual function.
    • Increased risk for genitourinary (GU) cancer and urinary incontinence in older men.

    Health History

    • Collect comprehensive general health history, focusing on chronic illnesses or disabilities.
    • Important Medications: Understanding the impact of beta blockers, psychotropic drugs (SSRIs, MAOIs, TCAs), and statins on urinary and sexual function is crucial.
    • Enlarged prostate may require men to double or triple void to fully empty the bladder.
    • Start assessments with urinary function and sexual activity; detail history may depend on symptoms presented.
    • Use PLISSIT and BETTER models for discussing sexual health issues: permission, information, specific suggestions, intensive therapy.

    Physical Assessment

    • Digital rectal examination (DRE) of the prostate should begin at age 50, or at 45 for those with a family history.
    • Testicular and scrotal examinations for abnormalities such as tumors or inflammation are essential.
    • Various positions may be used for examinations, including side-lying or standing.

    Diagnostic Evaluation

    • Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) Test: Normal PSA is <4.0 ng/mL; values >4 indicate potential issues, influenced by various factors including age and race.
    • Biopsies: Usually involves obtaining multiple samples from different zones of the prostate; higher risk for infection during TRUS-guided procedures.
    • Ultrasonography (TRUS): Used for staging localized prostate issues.
    • Sexual Function Test: Evaluates nocturnal penile tumescence to assess erectile function.

    Erectile Dysfunction

    • Characterized by reduced erection frequency, inability to maintain firmness, and rapid detumescence.
    • Role of nitric oxide in erectile function and pathway detailing smooth muscle relaxation.
    • Causes:
      • Psychogenic: Anxiety, relationship issues, body image concerns.
      • Organic: Cardiovascular disease, diabetes, medication side effects (most notably beta blockers and statins).

    Assessment and Medical Management

    • Comprehensive sexual and medical history is essential for diagnosis and treatment.
    • Treatment may involve pharmacology (e.g., PDE-5 inhibitors like sildenafil and tadalafil), therapeutic devices, or surgery.
    • Common Side Effects: Nasal congestion, flushing, dyspepsia.

    Prostatitis

    • Common condition causing urinary symptoms and sexual discomfort, prevalent in men under 50.
    • Causes: Primarily infectious agents like E. Coli, but can also arise from BPH or urethral strictures.
    • Types: Include acute/chronic bacterial prostatitis and chronic pelvic pain syndrome.
    • Clinical Manifestations: Fever, dysuria, and severe urinary tract symptoms.
    • Management: Incorporate self-care practices, hydration, medication with antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin).

    Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

    • Affects urinary flow, prevalent with aging, largely due to hormone levels (DHT and estrogen).
    • Key Risk Factors: Smoking, obesity, diet high in fats and low in fiber.
    • Clinical manifestations include increased frequency, hesitancy, incomplete bladder emptying, and recurrent UTIs.
    • Management: Use of medication (alpha blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors), lifestyle changes, or surgery (e.g., TURP).

    Prostate Cancer

    • Second most common cause of cancer deaths among men, significantly higher risk in African Americans and older males.
    • Clinical Signs: Urinary obstruction, painful ejaculation, and potential for bone metastasis.
    • Diagnosis usually involves DRE, PSA tests, and biopsies.
    • Gleason Score: A grading system for cancer aggressiveness based on tissue characteristics.

    Prostate Surgery

    • TURP: A surgical method to alleviate urinary symptoms, risks including retrograde ejaculation and TUR syndrome due to excessive fluid absorption.
    • Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) is employed post-surgery to mitigate complications from blood clots.

    Testicular Cancer

    • Most common cancer in men aged 15-35 years, with notable risk factors including Caucasian descent and family history.
    • Clinical Manifestations: Painless testicular enlargement, backache, and abdominal discomfort.
    • Tumor markers (AFP and HcG) serve significant roles in diagnosis and monitoring during treatment.

    Vasectomy

    • Procedure for male sterilization, does not affect sexual performance, and has minimal impact on ejaculate volume.
    • Post-operative care includes managing swelling and monitoring recovery; contraception until confirmed sterility through testing is advised.

    Gerontologic Considerations

    • Prostate gland tends to enlarge with age, leading to changes in the scrotum and testes, and decreased sexual function.
    • Increased risk for genitourinary (GU) cancer and urinary incontinence in older men.

    Health History

    • Collect comprehensive general health history, focusing on chronic illnesses or disabilities.
    • Important Medications: Understanding the impact of beta blockers, psychotropic drugs (SSRIs, MAOIs, TCAs), and statins on urinary and sexual function is crucial.
    • Enlarged prostate may require men to double or triple void to fully empty the bladder.
    • Start assessments with urinary function and sexual activity; detail history may depend on symptoms presented.
    • Use PLISSIT and BETTER models for discussing sexual health issues: permission, information, specific suggestions, intensive therapy.

    Physical Assessment

    • Digital rectal examination (DRE) of the prostate should begin at age 50, or at 45 for those with a family history.
    • Testicular and scrotal examinations for abnormalities such as tumors or inflammation are essential.
    • Various positions may be used for examinations, including side-lying or standing.

    Diagnostic Evaluation

    • Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) Test: Normal PSA is <4.0 ng/mL; values >4 indicate potential issues, influenced by various factors including age and race.
    • Biopsies: Usually involves obtaining multiple samples from different zones of the prostate; higher risk for infection during TRUS-guided procedures.
    • Ultrasonography (TRUS): Used for staging localized prostate issues.
    • Sexual Function Test: Evaluates nocturnal penile tumescence to assess erectile function.

    Erectile Dysfunction

    • Characterized by reduced erection frequency, inability to maintain firmness, and rapid detumescence.
    • Role of nitric oxide in erectile function and pathway detailing smooth muscle relaxation.
    • Causes:
      • Psychogenic: Anxiety, relationship issues, body image concerns.
      • Organic: Cardiovascular disease, diabetes, medication side effects (most notably beta blockers and statins).

    Assessment and Medical Management

    • Comprehensive sexual and medical history is essential for diagnosis and treatment.
    • Treatment may involve pharmacology (e.g., PDE-5 inhibitors like sildenafil and tadalafil), therapeutic devices, or surgery.
    • Common Side Effects: Nasal congestion, flushing, dyspepsia.

    Prostatitis

    • Common condition causing urinary symptoms and sexual discomfort, prevalent in men under 50.
    • Causes: Primarily infectious agents like E. Coli, but can also arise from BPH or urethral strictures.
    • Types: Include acute/chronic bacterial prostatitis and chronic pelvic pain syndrome.
    • Clinical Manifestations: Fever, dysuria, and severe urinary tract symptoms.
    • Management: Incorporate self-care practices, hydration, medication with antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin).

    Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

    • Affects urinary flow, prevalent with aging, largely due to hormone levels (DHT and estrogen).
    • Key Risk Factors: Smoking, obesity, diet high in fats and low in fiber.
    • Clinical manifestations include increased frequency, hesitancy, incomplete bladder emptying, and recurrent UTIs.
    • Management: Use of medication (alpha blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors), lifestyle changes, or surgery (e.g., TURP).

    Prostate Cancer

    • Second most common cause of cancer deaths among men, significantly higher risk in African Americans and older males.
    • Clinical Signs: Urinary obstruction, painful ejaculation, and potential for bone metastasis.
    • Diagnosis usually involves DRE, PSA tests, and biopsies.
    • Gleason Score: A grading system for cancer aggressiveness based on tissue characteristics.

    Prostate Surgery

    • TURP: A surgical method to alleviate urinary symptoms, risks including retrograde ejaculation and TUR syndrome due to excessive fluid absorption.
    • Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) is employed post-surgery to mitigate complications from blood clots.

    Testicular Cancer

    • Most common cancer in men aged 15-35 years, with notable risk factors including Caucasian descent and family history.
    • Clinical Manifestations: Painless testicular enlargement, backache, and abdominal discomfort.
    • Tumor markers (AFP and HcG) serve significant roles in diagnosis and monitoring during treatment.

    Vasectomy

    • Procedure for male sterilization, does not affect sexual performance, and has minimal impact on ejaculate volume.
    • Post-operative care includes managing swelling and monitoring recovery; contraception until confirmed sterility through testing is advised.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Related Documents

    Male Reproductive Process PDF

    Description

    This quiz covers gerontologic considerations regarding male reproductive health, including prostate enlargement and changes in sexual function. It also highlights the importance of health history and the impact of various medications on urinary and sexual functions. Test your knowledge on the dynamics of male reproductive health in aging.

    More Like This

    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Open
    Browser
    Browser