Cell Cycle Regulation and Neoplasia
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Questions and Answers

What is the effect of cyclin D on the retinoblastoma tumour suppressor gene?

  • It phosphorylates and releases Rb
  • It phosphorylates and inhibits Rb
  • It phosphorylates and activates Rb (correct)
  • It phosphorylates and degrades Rb

    • What is a characteristic of neoplasia?

  • A permanently altered growth pattern (correct)
  • A coordinated growth pattern with normal tissues
  • A growth pattern that is reversible
  • A growth pattern that is dependent on stimuli

    • What is the result of sustained angiogenesis in cancer cells?

  • Development of new blood vessels (correct)
  • Increased apoptosis
  • Inhibition of cell growth
  • Reduced blood supply to the tumour

    • Which of the following can accelerate the cell cycle?

    <p>Activation of oncogenes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of a proto-oncogene?

    <p>To promote normal cell growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of evading apoptosis in cancer cells?

    <p>Uncontrolled cell growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which ligands cause the activation of oncogenes?

    <p>By binding to the oncogene receptor, causing ligand-dependent activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following types of chemical signalling involves the secretion of hormones into the bloodstream?

    <p>Endocrine signalling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of gene amplification in oncogenes?

    <p>Overexpression of the oncogene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following oncogenes is commonly associated with breast cancer?

    <p>HER2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of the EGFR-targeted drug cetuximab?

    <p>By binding to the EGFR receptor, it blocks the binding of EGF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Ras in the cell cycle?

    <p>It propagates signals downstream, inducing cell division and growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of the mutation of Ras in cancer cells?

    <p>It leads to the activation of downstream signalling pathways, promoting cell division and growth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of tumour suppressor genes?

    <p>To regulate cellular proliferation and induce apoptosis in cells with damaged DNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of the amplification of the N-myc gene in neuroblastomas?

    <p>It results in the overexpression of the oncogene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of E2 in the cell cycle?

    <p>It helps the cell cycle to progress to the S phase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of a normal cell being affected by chemicals, carcinogens, radiation, and viruses?

    <p>DNA repair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term that describes the differences between tumors of the same type in different patients?

    <p>Tumor heterogeneity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the event that stimulates clonal proliferation of the initiated cell?

    <p>Promotion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of BRCA and Rad51 in breast cancer?

    <p>Mutated genes in 50% of breast cancer patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of a person's skin and tissue being extremely sensitive to sunlight and some other forms of ultraviolet (UV) light?

    <p>Xeroderma Pigmentosum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of a person with XP being unable to repair DNA damage?

    <p>Difficulty in repairing DNA damage by UV light</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the hypothesis that explains how retinoblastoma can occur?

    <p>Knudson's Two Hit Hypothesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the p53 tumour suppressor gene?

    <p>To activate apoptosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the syndrome characterised by germline mutations in p53?

    <p>Li-Fraumeni syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the APC/Beta-catenin gene?

    <p>To inhibit signal transduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What protein is involved in DNA damage repair and is rendered ineffective by BRCA mutation?

    <p>Rad51</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of a cell with an abnormal p53 tumour suppressor gene when DNA is damaged?

    <p>The cell becomes cancerous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of sustained angiogenesis in cancer?

    <p>The tumour outgrows its blood supply</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of immune evasion in cancer?

    <p>Cancer cells develop mechanisms to evade detection by the immune system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the drug approved by NICE in 2017 for the management of head and neck cancer?

    <p>Nivolumab</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the hallmark of cancer that involves the adaptation of more glycolytic pathways of metabolism?

    <p>Altered metabolism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary system affected by rheumatic fever?

    <p>Cardiovascular system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common age range for rheumatic fever?

    <p>5-15 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the latent period before rheumatic fever sets in?

    <p>2-6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common valve affected by rheumatic fever?

    <p>Mitral valve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the inflammation of blood vessels that can occur in rheumatic fever?

    <p>Vasculitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the nodules that can form in the heart muscle in rheumatic fever?

    <p>Aschoff nodules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of patients who are at risk of developing infective endocarditis?

    <p>Having structural cardiac defects or acquired valvular heart disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can a dentist contribute to the prevention of infective endocarditis?

    <p>By removing caries and promoting good oral hygiene practices</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is haematuria a sign of?

    <p>Kidney stone or tumor in the urinary tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible cause of haematuria?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of white blood cells in the urine, in addition to red blood cells, indicate?

    <p>Urinary tract infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible cause of urinary tract infection?

    <p>Bacterial infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary site where bacteria thrive in intravenous drug users with periodic introduction of foreign material?

    <p>Nidus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of endocarditis patients have negative blood cultures?

    <p>5-10%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the criteria for diagnosing rheumatic fever?

    <p>The presence of 2 major and 1 minor criteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of polyarthritis in rheumatic fever?

    <p>It is a migratory joint inflammation that lasts for 4-6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of heart disease that includes conditions that narrow or block blood vessels?

    <p>Conditions that narrow or block blood vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the association of carditis with rheumatic fever?

    <p>It is present in 40-50% of patients and lasts for 3-6 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the sign of heart disease that involves the development of a new murmur?

    <p>Development of a new murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of excessive complement activation in endocarditis patients?

    <p>Development of immune complexes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of erythema marginatum in rheumatic fever?

    <p>It is a circular rash with a pale-pink center, surrounded by a raised red outline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the percentage of endocarditis patients with positive blood cultures?

    <p>75%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the association of chorea with rheumatic fever?

    <p>It is a movement disorder that occurs in 10-20% of patients</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of antibiotic prophylaxis in endocarditis?

    <p>To reduce antibiotic resistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of subcutaneous nodules in rheumatic fever?

    <p>They are deep-seated lesions that occur over bony prominences</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of an organism that cannot be identified in endocarditis patients?

    <p>The prognosis is worse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the association of endocarditis with rheumatic fever?

    <p>It is a common complication of rheumatic fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of immune complexes in endocarditis patients?

    <p>Development of Osler's nodes and splinter hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason for the increasing incidence of endocarditis?

    <p>Increasing number of elderly people with abnormal/prosthetic valves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the medical term that predicts the likely or expected development of a disease?

    <p>Prognosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of Sydenham's Chorea?

    <p>It is a movement disorder that disappears during sleep</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of erythema nodosum in rheumatic fever?

    <p>It is a swollen fat under the skin causing bumps and patches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of dysphagia?

    <p>Difficulty in swallowing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a symptom of dysphagia?

    <p>Something sticking in the throat/chest during swallowing or immediately after</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of tumour is commonly associated with dysphagia in the upper 1/3rd of the oesophagus?

    <p>Squamous cell carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the cause of dysphagia in a patient with a foreign body obstruction?

    <p>A bone stuck in the oesophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of a failure of relaxation of the cardiac sphincter in achalasia?

    <p>Obstruction of oesophageal emptying with dysphagia for solids and liquids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of a web, a type of oesophageal stricture?

    <p>A fibrous stricture that forms at the upper end of the oesophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of chronic inflammation on acid production in the stomach?

    <p>It decreases acid production</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach?

    <p>Impaired absorption of vitamin B12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common age range for carcinoma of the oesophagus?

    <p>Over 50s</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a risk factor for carcinoma of the oesophagus?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a symptom of carcinoma of the oesophagus?

    <p>Dysphagia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a local spread effect of carcinoma of the oesophagus?

    <p>Fistulae to the trachea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the majority type of carcinoma present in oesophagus carcinoma?

    <p>Squamous cell carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a diagnostic method for carcinoma of the oesophagus?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason for oesophagitis?

    <p>Inflammation of oesophagus due to reflux from the stomach that is very acidic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a treatment option for carcinoma of the oesophagus?

    <p>Surgery, radiotherapy, or stent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic of vomited blood in haematemesis?

    <p>Dark and coffee-ground-like</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the weak point of the oesophagus called?

    <p>Killian's dehiscence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of muscle coats the inner and outer layer of the oesophagus?

    <p>Circular and longitudinal muscle coats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of pharyngeal pouch disease?

    <p>Herniation of mucosa through a weakness in the pharyngeal constrictor muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the passage of pale bulky stools that contain fat?

    <p>Steatorrhoea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the type of epithelium that lines the mucosal layer of the oesophagus?

    <p>Stratified Squamous Non Keratinising Epithelium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of the relaxation of the gastro-oesophageal sphincter?

    <p>Achalasia of the cardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the sensation of a lump in the throat?

    <p>Globus hystericus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the abnormal contractions of the oesophagus?

    <p>Oesophageal spasm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the difficulty in swallowing?

    <p>Dysphagia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of achalasia of the cardia?

    <p>Functional obstruction to oesophageal emptying with dysphagia for solids and liquids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of oesophageal webs?

    <p>Premalignant conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the difference between peptic and gastric ulcers in terms of affected areas?

    <p>Peptic ulcers affect the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum, while gastric ulcers only affect the stomach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of an oesophageal spasm?

    <p>A corkscrew oesophagus formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the common aetiology of peptic and gastric ulcers?

    <p>Mucosal inflammation due to acid and pepsin destruction of lining mucosa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for oesophageal webs?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the difference between acute and chronic duodenal ulcers?

    <p>Acute ulcers only affect the muscularis mucosae, while chronic ulcers penetrate the submucosa and muscular wall</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consequence of peptic ulcer scarring?

    <p>Scarring may lead to a stricture or obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of H. pylori in peptic ulcer disease?

    <p>It colonises the mucus and contributes to the development of the ulcer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for peptic ulcers?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consequence of liver damage?

    <p>Hepatocytes are lost and fibrosis occurs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the route of transmission of hepatitis A?

    <p>Contaminated food and water through the faeco-oral route</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of liver failure?

    <p>Jaundice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the result of chronic liver damage?

    <p>Liver failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Sjogren's syndrome associated with?

    <p>Body fluids like saliva and sweat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consequence of liver failure on the kidneys?

    <p>Secondary renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the incubation period of hepatitis A?

    <p>2-6 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is hepatitis E most common?

    <p>India</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mortality rate of pregnant women with hepatitis E?

    <p>20%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is hepatitis B spread?

    <p>Through sexual contact or infected blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ratio of carriers to being positive with hepatitis B?

    <p>1:4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines if hepatitis B is an acute infection?

    <p>HBsAg levels increase and decline at 12 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines if hepatitis B is a chronic infection?

    <p>HBsAg levels increase and stay high</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is hepatitis B infectious in saliva?

    <p>Through blood content</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the incubation period of hepatitis B?

    <p>2-6 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the percentage of the UK population that has hepatitis B?

    <p>0.3%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the necessary condition for hepatitis D to infect?

    <p>Presence of HBsAg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the percentage of people with hepatitis B that have hepatitis D in the UK?

    <p>2%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason why hepatitis C is described as a severe infection that is often fatal?

    <p>The virus mutates faster than the immune response can respond</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common way of transmitting hepatitis C?

    <p>Through needle sharing or blood transfusions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the percentage of people with hepatitis C in the USA?

    <p>2%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following has a higher risk of transmission via a sharps injury?

    <p>Hepatitis B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a medically compromised patient?

    <p>A patient with a condition that may impact safe and optimal dental care.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many histories are taken for patients?

    <p>5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What may happen to patients with a compromised cardiovascular system?

    <p>They may have an acute ischemic event, become breathless when laid flat, and have a bleeding tendency due to anticoagulants.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred anaesthetic for a patient with a compromised cardiovascular system?

    <p>Citanest as it does not contain adrenaline.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is infective endocarditis?

    <p>Infection of the heart lining.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the risk factors for infective endocarditis?

    <p>All of the above and more.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it necessary to maintain good oral health in people with infective endocarditis?

    <p>To prevent bacteremia and sepsis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common side effect of diuretics in antihypertensive therapy?

    <p>Xerostomia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it necessary to have salbutamol at hand when treating patients with respiratory disease?

    <p>To treat bronchospasms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a dental consideration for patients with diabetes?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it necessary to consider the timing of appointments for patients with diabetes?

    <p>To prevent hypoglycaemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential problem dentally for patients with epilepsy?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a function of the liver?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a dental consideration for patients with liver disease?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a consequence of alcohol dependency?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of corticosteroids?

    <p>Both A and B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action if a patient has been taking corticosteroids for over 3 weeks at more than 30mg a day and is having surgery?

    <p>Double their normal dose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common dental side effect of corticosteroids?

    <p>Oral candidiasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should NSAIDs be avoided with corticosteroid use?

    <p>They increase the risk of peptic ulceration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What history should be taken for a patient with a bleeding risk?

    <p>Previous episode, Past surgery, Previous treatment, Family history, Relevant Medical History, Drug History</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most commonly used long-term anticoagulant?

    <p>Warfarin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the INR equation?

    <p>PT / PT(normal) x IS(N)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the INR levels be for a patient taking warfarin to treat DVT or PE?

    <p>3.5-4.5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What measures should be taken when performing an extraction on a warfarin patient?

    <p>Schedule appointment in the morning, try not to give ID blocks, and do not interrupt warfarin medication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of taking an INR reading for a warfarin patient?

    <p>To monitor the patient's warfarin dosage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should a dental appointment be booked early in the day and week for a patient with a bleeding risk?

    <p>To allow for more time to deal with immediate re-bleeding problems and delayed re-bleeding episodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term used to describe the collective group of histamine, bradykinin, nitric oxide, eicosanoids, and neuropeptides?

    <p>Inflammatory mediators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a microvascular change that occurs in the inflammatory response?

    <p>Release of inflammatory mediators</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the venule in the microcirculation?

    <p>Oedema formation and cell accumulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils?

    <p>Allergic/hypersensitivity IgE responses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred type of histamine H1 antagonist?

    <p>Non-sedating</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an instance when anti-histamines are used?

    <p>Hayfever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fibres do sensory nerves consist of?

    <p>C fibres</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of substance P in sensory nerves?

    <p>To release neuropeptides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of sensory nerves mediate itch?

    <p>5% of afferent C-fibres</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of anti-histamines on itch?

    <p>They are effective as anti-itch agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of prostaglandins in inflammation?

    <p>They enhance inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of NSAIDs on prostaglandin generation?

    <p>They inhibit prostaglandin generation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of thromboxanes in cardiovascular regulation?

    <p>They play a key role in cardiovascular regulation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of inhibition of prostaglandin generation?

    <p>It reduces pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of TNF-alpha in arthritis?

    <p>It is the primary mediator of arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of Paracetamol on inflammation?

    <p>It is not an anti-inflammatory</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of COX-1 in the body?

    <p>To maintain homeostasis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of inhibiting COX-2?

    <p>To reduce inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using proton pump inhibitors with oral NSAIDs?

    <p>To inhibit GI reflux</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the category of DMARDs that includes methotrexate?

    <p>Slow acting, second line therapies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of anti-inflammatory steroids on lymphocyte T-cell proliferation?

    <p>Inhibition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the benefit of using biologics in treating arthritis when DMARDs fail?

    <p>Counteracts tissue damage and deformities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of IL-6 blockers, such as Tocilizumab?

    <p>Blocking IL-6</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of Rituximab in treating arthritis?

    <p>Removes antibody-producing WBCs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the advantage of using topical NSAIDs?

    <p>Has fewer side effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for not giving too much steroid for too long?

    <p>Steroid sparing</p> Signup and view all the answers

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