Molecular biology
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following organelles is NOT directly involved in protein production or modification?

  • Ribosomes
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • Mitochondria (correct)
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Which of the following is NOT a function of the cytoskeleton?

  • Cell division
  • Enzymatic breakdown of cellular waste (correct)
  • Maintaining cell shape
  • Providing mechanical support for the cell
  • Which type of cytoskeletal element is directly involved in the movement of cilia and flagella?

  • Intermediate filaments
  • Microfilaments
  • Microtubules (correct)
  • Actin filaments
  • Which of the following statements about the nucleus is TRUE?

    <p>It contains the genetic information of the cell. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a function of lysosomes?

    <p>Breakdown of cellular waste (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus?

    <p>Modification and packaging of proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is found in both animal and plant cells?

    <p>Vacuole (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of the ER in the cell?

    <p>The ER is the site of protein synthesis and lipid synthesis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between anabolism and catabolism?

    <p>Anabolism builds complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy, while catabolism breaks down complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the information provided, which of the following does NOT serve as evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?

    <p>Mitochondria and chloroplasts share a similar structural organization with eukaryotic nuclei. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the functional group attached to the phosphate in a phospholipid determine its specific properties?

    <p>The functional group determines the phospholipid's solubility in water, influencing its interaction with the cell membrane. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary product of glycolysis?

    <p>Pyruvic acid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of ATP in cellular metabolism?

    <p>ATP is not directly involved in either anabolic or catabolic reactions, but rather facilitates the transport of energy within the cell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

    <p>Aerobic respiration requires oxygen, while anaerobic respiration does not. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

    <p>Eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells, incorporating organelles like mitochondria and chloroplasts through endosymbiosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component of a phospholipid?

    <p>Amino acids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the process of phosphorylation in relation to molecular switches?

    <p>Phosphorylation adds a phosphate group to a protein, causing it to switch from its inactive to active state. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of cell division, what is the primary role of mitosis?

    <p>To duplicate the DNA content of the parent cell before dividing, thereby ensuring each daughter cell receives a complete copy of the genome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristics distinguish a diploid cell from a haploid cell?

    <p>Diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes while haploid cells contain only one set of chromosomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of GTP binding to a protein in the context of molecular switches?

    <p>GTP binding to a protein activates the protein, switching it on. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The statement 'The cell cycle is a sequence of events that occur in a eukaryotic cell leading to its division' implies which of the following?

    <p>The cell cycle is a highly ordered and regulated process, with specific events occurring at each phase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Meiosis, unlike mitosis, is essential for which biological process?

    <p>Production of gametes (eggs and sperm). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary motivation driving the accurate duplication of DNA and its segregation during the cell cycle?

    <p>To ensure that each daughter cell receives a complete and identical copy of the genome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a recognized phase of the cell cycle?

    <p>Telophase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary event that distinguishes the pachytene stage from the zygotene stage in meiosis I?

    <p>The formation of chiasmata between non-sister chromatids. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following events occurs during the leptotene stage of prophase I?

    <p>The condensation of chromatin into chromosomes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the synaptonemal complex contribute to the process of Meiosis I?

    <p>It holds homologous chromosomes together, allowing for crossing-over to occur. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary significance of crossing-over during prophase I?

    <p>It increases the genetic diversity of the offspring by shuffling genetic information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the role of cohesins in the formation of the synaptonemal complex?

    <p>Cohesins hold sister chromatids together, preventing their premature separation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes the meiosis I prophase from the mitosis prophase?

    <p>During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic information through crossing-over. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which stage of prophase I do centrioles migrate to opposite poles of the cell?

    <p>Zygotene (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the diakinesis stage of prophase I described as a stage of terminalization?

    <p>The chiasmata move towards the ends of the chromosomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following components is NOT found in a prokaryotic cell?

    <p>Nucleus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly pairs a type of organic molecule with its primary function in a cell?

    <p>Proteins - Catalyzing biochemical reactions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of an inorganic molecule that plays a vital role in maintaining osmotic balance within a cell?

    <p>Sodium Chloride (NaCl) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these cellular components IS NOT directly involved in protein synthesis?

    <p>Mitochondria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A cell that lacks a cell wall but has mitochondria and a nucleus is most likely a:

    <p>Animal cell (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately compares prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

    <p>Only eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a factor that distinguishes an organic molecule from an inorganic molecule?

    <p>Found only in living organisms (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these examples is a primary function of proteins in a cell?

    <p>Catalyzing biochemical reactions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of CDK inhibitors in the cell cycle?

    <p>To regulate the activity of cyclin-dependent kinases (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between the CIP/KIP and INK4 families of CDK inhibitors?

    <p>INK4 inhibitors specifically bind to and inhibit Cdk4 and Cdk6, while CIP/KIP inhibitors affect a broader range of Cdks. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the role of the p27 protein in cell cycle regulation?

    <p>p27 inhibits the entry of the cell into the G0 phase by inactivating E-Cdk2 and A-Cdk2 complexes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the p27 protein regulated in response to DNA damage?

    <p>The p53 protein promotes the production of p27. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

    <p>Apoptosis typically affects individual cells, while necrosis affects entire groups of cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of apoptosis in maintaining tissue homeostasis?

    <p>Apoptosis eliminates damaged, infected, or mutated cells, preventing uncontrolled growth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the cell cycle and DNA damage is TRUE?

    <p>If DNA damage is detected, the cell cycle is arrested to allow time for repair, and apoptosis is triggered if the damage is too severe. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the tumor suppressor protein p53?

    <p>To regulate p27 production and control the cell cycle in response to DNA damage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A cell that can respond to a specific signaling molecule is said to be a target cell. Which of the following best explains why only specific cells can respond to specific signals?

    <p>Target cells express specific receptors that bind to and receive signals from only specific signaling molecules. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Imagine a signaling molecule that triggers different responses in different target cells. What can be said about the mechanisms underlying this phenomenon?

    <p>The same signaling molecule can bind to different receptors on different target cells, leading to different intracellular pathways and responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of G protein in signal transduction?

    <p>G protein functions as a molecular switch, activating downstream signaling pathways by exchanging GDP for GTP. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the difference between neurotransmitters and neurohormones?

    <p>Neurotransmitters act locally at synapses, while neurohormones act systemically through the bloodstream. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes the activation of adenylyl cyclase from other G protein-mediated signaling pathways?

    <p>Adenylyl cyclase is activated by a different type of 7TM receptor compared to other pathways. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a cell were to lack the ability to produce cellular receptors, what would be the most immediate consequence?

    <p>The cell would be unable to communicate effectively with other cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the phosphorylation of a protein impact its function within a cell?

    <p>Phosphorylation can alter the protein's conformation, affecting its activity or interactions with other molecules. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between second messengers and signal amplification?

    <p>Second messengers amplify the signal by activating multiple downstream targets, leading to a cascade effect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of communication involves the release of signaling molecules into the extracellular fluid where they act on nearby cells?

    <p>Paracrine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    While endocrine communication utilizes the circulatory system for signal distribution, what distinguishes it from neuronal communication?

    <p>Endocrine communication is slower and more widespread than neuronal communication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these options is NOT a direct consequence of ligand binding to a 7TM receptor in signal transduction?

    <p>Direct activation of target genes by the receptor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Imagine a scenario where a signaling molecule triggers multiple effects within a single target cell. What can be attributed to this phenomenon?

    <p>The initial response to the signaling molecule initiates a cascade, leading to numerous downstream effects within the target cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the G protein α subunit contribute to the propagation of the signal once it is activated?

    <p>The α subunit binds to and activates specific target proteins, triggering downstream events. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of protein kinases in signal transduction?

    <p>Protein kinases catalyze the addition of phosphate groups to target proteins, altering their function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the primary function of gap junctions in cell communication?

    <p>Gap junctions allow for the direct transfer of signaling molecules between adjacent cells via specialized protein channels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following molecules is NOT directly produced by the activation of phospholipase C?

    <p>Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately compares lysosomal proteolysis with proteasomal proteolysis in terms of their selectivity for protein degradation?

    <p>Lysosomal proteolysis is non-selective and degrades a broad range of proteins, while proteasomal proteolysis is selective and targets specific proteins marked for degradation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the information provided, which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to trigger increased protein degradation in a cell?

    <p>The presence of misfolded or damaged proteins that are no longer functional. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following processes is directly involved in the selective targeting of proteins for degradation by the proteasome?

    <p>The attachment of a ubiquitin molecule to the target protein. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the lysosomes involved in protein degradation?

    <p>They are responsible for selective degradation of specific proteins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately represents the relationship between protein degradation and cellular health?

    <p>Protein degradation is essential for cellular health, but excessive degradation can lead to cellular dysfunction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the information provided, which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to lead to an increase in lysosomal proteolysis?

    <p>An influx of foreign substances, such as bacteria, into the cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the significance of protein degradation in a healthy organism?

    <p>Protein degradation is vital for maintaining cellular function by removing old, damaged, or excessive proteins. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between lysosomal proteolysis and proteasomal proteolysis in regards to their substrates?

    <p>Lysosomal proteolysis degrades both exogenous and old endogenous proteins, while proteasomal proteolysis primarily targets newly synthesized proteins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of signaling pathways involving phospholipase C, what is the primary function of the α subunit of the G protein?

    <p>The α subunit directly activates phospholipase C by binding to its catalytic domain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the activation of protein kinase C (PKC) in the context of phospholipase C signaling?

    <p>PKC is activated by the combined action of Ca²⁺ ions and diacylglycerol (DAG), which bind to PKC and induce a conformational change. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the activity of protein kinase A (PKA) contribute to energy production in muscle cells?

    <p>PKA activates proteins involved in the breakdown of glycogen, releasing glucose for energy production. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic that distinguishes enzyme-linked receptors from 7-transmembrane (7TM) receptors?

    <p>Enzyme-linked receptors typically produce slower, longer-lasting responses, while 7TM receptors elicit faster, transient responses. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the mechanism by which tyrosine kinases are activated by growth factors?

    <p>Growth factors bind to the receptor and induce dimerization, which brings together two tyrosine kinase domains, leading to autophosphorylation and activation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of cyclic AMP (cAMP) in the context of cellular signaling?

    <p>cAMP is a second messenger that activates protein kinase A (PKA) and triggers a variety of cellular responses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and calcium ions (Ca²⁺) in the context of phospholipase C signaling?

    <p>IP3 directly binds to and activates calcium channels on the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the activation of phospholipase C impact the levels of inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) within the cell?

    <p>Activation of phospholipase C results in an increase in both IP3 and DAG levels due to the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of mitogens in regulating the cell cycle?

    <p>They act as specific ligands that bind to receptors on the cell membrane, initiating signaling pathways that lead to cell division. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following pathways is NOT directly involved in the signaling pathways of mitogens, triggering cell division?

    <p>G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) pathway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the internal cell cycle regulators?

    <p>To regulate transitions between the different phases of the cell cycle by controlling the activity of key proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of checkpoints in the cell cycle?

    <p>Checkpoints are critical control points that assess internal and external conditions to determine if the cell should proceed to the next phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the G2 checkpoint?

    <p>Activating the spindle assembly checkpoint, ensuring proper chromosome alignment before mitosis begins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of a mitogen?

    <p>Mitogens bind to receptors on the cell membrane, initiating a signaling cascade that ultimately leads to cell division. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the function of the G1 checkpoint?

    <p>The G1 checkpoint determines whether the cell is in a favorable environment and has sufficient nutrients to progress into the S phase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the G1 and S phase of the cell cycle?

    <p>The S phase follows the G1 phase, where the cell grows and replicates its DNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is carbon essential for the formation of organic compounds?

    <p>Carbon has a unique ability to form strong covalent bonds with other carbon atoms, allowing for the creation of diverse and complex structures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What property of water makes it particularly important for biological processes?

    <p>Water's strong dipole moment allows it to act as a solvent for many polar molecules, facilitating chemical reactions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the structure of a water molecule contribute to its ability to form hydrogen bonds?

    <p>The oxygen atom has a higher electronegativity than hydrogen atoms, creating a partial negative charge on oxygen and partial positive charges on hydrogen atoms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What unique characteristic allows carbon to form an extensive diversity of organic molecules?

    <p>Carbon's ability to form double and triple bonds with other carbon atoms as well as other elements. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of water in a living cell?

    <p>Water is a solvent, transport medium, reactant in chemical reactions, and a product in other reactions, playing a multifaceted role in cellular function. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of peroxisomes in breaking down long-chain fatty acids?

    <p>Both A and B contribute to fatty acid breakdown in peroxisomes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the formation of peroxisomes?

    <p>Peroxisomes can be formed both de novo and by division of pre-existing peroxisomes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between autolysosomes and heterolysosomes?

    <p>Autolysosomes are involved in autophagy, while heterolysosomes break down external material. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the nucleoid found within peroxisomes?

    <p>Its function varies by species and tissue type, but it is not directly involved in any particular process. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between the centrosome and cell division?

    <p>The centrosome duplicates before cell division, ensuring each daughter cell receives a centrosome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of catalase and peroxidases within peroxisomes?

    <p>They break down hydrogen peroxide, preventing its accumulation and potential toxicity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of peroxisomes in relation to the myelin sheath?

    <p>They produce plasmalogens, essential components of the myelin sheath. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the statement that BEST explains the role of the centrosome in cell division.

    <p>The centrosome serves as a platform for the assembly of microtubules which form the fibers of the mitotic spindle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the Ras-GEF complex contribute to the activation of the Ras protein?

    <p>The Ras-GEF complex acts as a scaffold, bringing Ras and GTP together, promoting GTP binding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the phosphorylation cascade triggered by activated Ras, what is the primary role of the kinase kinases?

    <p>Kinase kinases directly phosphorylate and activate MAP kinase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference between the active and inactive states of the Ras protein?

    <p>The active state of Ras is located on the cell membrane, while the inactive state is in the cytoplasm. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following events is NOT directly involved in the activation of the kinase activity of a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK)?

    <p>Binding of a GTPase activating protein (GAP) to the receptor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of the PI3K/Akt pathway, what is the primary role of the Insulin-like Growth Factor (IGF)?

    <p>IGF binds to a receptor tyrosine kinase, triggering a signaling cascade that ultimately leads to cell survival and growth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between the phosphorylation cascade and the PI3K/Akt pathway?

    <p>Both pathways are triggered by activated Ras, but they diverge to carry out distinct cellular functions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of MAP kinase in the phosphorylation cascade?

    <p>MAP kinase phosphorylates additional target proteins, amplifying and transmitting the signal to regulate cellular activities. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the process of DNA replication, what is the primary role of topoisomerases?

    <p>Topoisomerases help to relieve the torsional stress that builds up as the DNA helix is unwound. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) contribute to signal transduction?

    <p>Phosphorylation creates binding sites for signaling proteins, allowing the signal to be amplified and transmitted into the cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following proteins is NOT involved in the initiation of DNA replication?

    <p>PCNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of RNase H during DNA replication?

    <p>RNase H removes RNA primers from the newly synthesized DNA strand. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Consider the statement: "DNA replication can only occur in the 5' to 3' direction." Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?

    <p>DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the free 3' hydroxyl group of a growing DNA strand. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary difference between necrosis and apoptosis?

    <p>Necrosis involves cell swelling and membrane leakage, while apoptosis involves cell shrinkage and fragmentation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements best describes the role of DNA ligase in DNA replication?

    <p>DNA ligase joins the fragments of newly synthesized DNA strands together. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the semiconservative nature of DNA replication?

    <p>Semiconservative replication ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of Replication Protein A (RPA) during DNA replication?

    <p>RPA binds to single-stranded DNA, protecting it from damage and degradation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the role of cAMP in cellular processes?

    <p>cAMP directly binds to specific receptors on the cell membrane, triggering a cascade of events. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the activation of phospholipase C differ from the activation of protein kinase A (PKA) by cAMP?

    <p>Phospholipase C activation involves a G protein, while cAMP activation of PKA does not. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the role of diacylglycerol (DAG) in the phospholipase C signaling pathway?

    <p>DAG activates protein kinase C (PKC) together with calcium ions, leading to the phosphorylation of target proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key difference between enzyme-linked receptors and 7TM receptors?

    <p>Enzyme-linked receptors have a catalytic domain, while 7TM receptors do not. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of intracellular signaling, what is the most significant difference between the signaling pathways triggered by cAMP and by phospholipase C?

    <p>cAMP pathways produce a single second messenger, while phospholipase C pathways produce two second messengers with distinct functions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the information provided, which of the following would NOT be directly activated by the binding of a ligand to an enzyme-linked receptor?

    <p>A G protein coupled to the receptor via a second messenger molecule. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Considering the information about the different signal transduction pathways, which of the following is NOT an accurate comparison between them?

    <p>Enzyme-linked receptors work independently of G proteins, relying solely on their own catalytic activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between the signaling pathways initiated by cAMP and phospholipase C?

    <p>All of the above are true. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these molecules can directly activate the G protein α subunit by replacing GDP with GTP?

    <p>Guanosine-5'-triphosphate (GTP) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the key difference in the mechanism of action between adenylyl cyclase and phospholipase C?

    <p>Adenylyl cyclase produces cAMP, while phospholipase C generates IP3 and DAG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the activation of adenylyl cyclase influence cellular processes?

    <p>It regulates the activity of protein kinases by producing cAMP, a second messenger (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of second messengers in signal transduction?

    <p>They amplify and transmit signals inside the cell, enabling an appropriate response (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following options correctly portrays the sequence of events in the activation of a signaling pathway involving a 7TM receptor and a G protein?

    <p>Ligand binds to 7TM receptor → G protein is activated → adenylyl cyclase produces cAMP → target protein is phosphorylated (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the provided information, what is the primary function of protein kinases in signal transduction?

    <p>They regulate the activity of target proteins by adding phosphate groups (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between 7TM receptors and G proteins?

    <p>7TM receptors activate G proteins by triggering the release of GTP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the text, which of these is NOT a direct consequence of G protein activation?

    <p>The direct phosphorylation of target proteins by G protein subunits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the role of mitogens in the cell cycle?

    <p>Mitogens initiate the G1 phase of the cell cycle by triggering a cascade of events that ultimately activate kinases involved in mitosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The G1 checkpoint is a critical point in the cell cycle. Which of the following is NOT a factor that is assessed at this checkpoint?

    <p>The completion of chromosome condensation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The cell cycle control system utilizes checkpoints and regulators to ensure proper cell cycle progression. Which of the following is NOT a direct function of regulators?

    <p>Directly modifying the structure of chromosomes during prophase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The MAPK and PI-3K pathways are crucial for mediating the effects of mitogens. Which of the following statements best describes the role of these pathways?

    <p>These pathways transmit signals from the cell membrane to the nucleus, initiating events leading to cell division. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements BEST explains the significance of the spindle checkpoint during the M phase?

    <p>Ensuring that sister chromatids are properly aligned at the metaphase plate before separation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Telophase II is a critical stage in the cell cycle, specifically in meiosis. Which of the following events DOES NOT occur during telophase II?

    <p>Replication of the chromosomes to create two sets of identical chromosomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The cell cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of internal and external factors. Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of internal regulators in this process?

    <p>Internal regulators act as checkpoints, ensuring that the cell only progresses to the next phase when appropriate conditions are met. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The cell cycle control system has evolved to safeguard the fidelity of cell division. Which of the following statements BEST explains the role of checkpoints in this process?

    <p>Checkpoints act as a regulatory mechanism, determining whether the cell should proceed to the next phase of the cell cycle or undergo apoptosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Intermediate filaments

    A type of protein filament that provides mechanical support to cells, with a diameter of 8-10 nm.

    Microtubules

    Protein structures about 25 nm in diameter, composed of tubulin, involved in cell transport and division.

    Actin filaments

    Thin filaments 7 nm in diameter made of actin, involved in cell movement and muscle contraction.

    Double membrane-bound organelles

    Organelles surrounded by two membranes, including nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.

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    Single membrane-bound organelles

    Organelles surrounded by one membrane, such as Golgi apparatus and lysosomes.

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    Non-membrane bound organelles

    Organelles without membranes, including ribosomes, cytoskeleton, and centrosome.

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    Nucleus

    A membrane-bound organelle that contains genetic information and regulates cell activities.

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    Cytoskeleton

    A network of fibers that provides structural support and shape to the cell.

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    Prokaryotic Cells

    Cells without a nucleus; simpler than eukaryotic cells.

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    Eukaryotic Cells

    Cells with a nucleus and more complex structures.

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    Components of Eukaryotic Cells

    Includes the nucleus, mitochondria, and golgi apparatus.

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    Cytoplasm

    Gel-like fluid inside a cell where organelles are found.

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    Organic Molecules

    Compounds that contain carbon-hydrogen bonds; essential for life.

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    Inorganic Molecules

    Compounds that generally do not contain C-H bonds; simpler substances.

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    Ribosomes

    Molecular machines that synthesize proteins in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

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    Endosymbiotic theory

    Explains how mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from prokaryotic cells.

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    Metabolism

    All biochemical reactions in cells, vital for processes like growth and response.

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    Anabolism

    Metabolic process of building complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy.

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    Catabolism

    Metabolic process of breaking down complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy.

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    Glycolysis

    The first step of aerobic respiration that breaks glucose into pyruvic acid without ATP production.

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    Phospholipids

    Lipids composed of two fatty acids, glycerol, and a phosphate group, key for membrane structure.

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    Molecular switches

    Signaling molecules that can be activated or deactivated in response to signals.

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    Phosphorylation

    The process of adding phosphate groups to proteins to activate them.

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    Dephosphorylation

    The removal of phosphate groups from proteins to turn them off.

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    GDP

    Guanosine-5′-diphosphate; an inactive state of a protein when bound.

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    GTP

    Guanosine-5′-triphosphate; an active state of a protein when bound.

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    Diploid cells

    Cells with two sets of chromosomes (2n), such as somatic cells.

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    Haploid cells

    Cells with a single set of chromosomes (1n), such as gametes.

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    Cell cycle

    A series of events in a cell leading to its division and DNA replication.

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    Sexual reproduction

    A process in humans where diploid cells dominate life stages and haploid cells are gametes.

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    Meiosis

    A special type of cell division in germ cells that produces four haploid cells from one diploid cell.

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    Meiosis I

    The first division of meiosis, which reduces the chromosome number by half.

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    Meiosis II

    The second division of meiosis that ensures each haploid cell receives a complete chromosome set.

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    Prophase I

    The longest and most complex stage of meiosis, divided into five sub-stages.

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    Synaptonemal complex

    A protein structure that holds homologous chromosomes together during meiosis.

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    Crossing-over

    The exchange of DNA segments between non-sister chromatids during meiosis, enhancing genetic diversity.

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    Chiasmata

    The points where homologous chromosomes remain connected following crossing-over during meiosis.

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    G1 phase

    The first phase in the cell cycle where the cell grows and prepares for DNA replication.

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    S phase

    The phase in the cell cycle where DNA synthesis occurs, duplicating the genetic material.

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    CDKIs

    Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors that regulate the cell cycle by inhibiting Cdks.

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    CIP/KIP family

    A group of CDKIs that includes proteins like p21 and p27 which inhibit various Cdks.

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    p27 protein

    A protein that regulates cell cycle entry; increases concentration pushes cell into resting phase.

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    Apoptosis

    Programmed cell death that removes unnecessary or damaged cells in an organized manner.

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    Necrosis

    A passive form of cell death affecting groups of cells due to damage without energy use.

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    p53 protein

    A tumor suppressor that regulates the cell cycle and p27 production in response to DNA damage.

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    Macroelements in cells

    Essential chemical elements in large quantities, such as carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur.

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    Role of water in cells

    Water makes up 70-80% of a living cell and acts as a solvent for chemical compounds and reactions.

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    Hydrogen bonds in water

    Polarization in a water molecule leads to hydrogen bonds, causing molecules to group together.

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    Carbon atom structure

    A carbon atom has 6 protons, 6 neutrons, 4 valence electrons, enabling strong covalent bonds.

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    Organic compounds

    Compounds that consist of carbon atoms bonded to at least one other element.

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    Juxtacrine communication

    Direct cell contact for signaling through surface molecules or gap junctions.

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    Paracrine communication

    Signaling molecules released into extracellular fluid, affecting nearby cells.

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    Autocrine communication

    Cell secretes signaling molecules that act back on itself.

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    Endocrine communication

    Hormones secreted into the bloodstream that affect distant target cells.

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    Neuronal (synaptic) communication

    Electrical and chemical signals transmitted along neurons and across synapses.

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    Neurocrine molecules

    Chemicals released by neurons, including neurotransmitters and neurohormones.

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    Target cells

    Specific cells with receptors that respond to particular hormones or signaling molecules.

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    Cellular receptors

    Proteins that detect signals and trigger cellular responses.

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    7TM receptors

    Transmembrane proteins that initiate signaling pathways when activated by ligands.

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    G proteins

    Molecular switches that transmit signals from 7TM receptors to target proteins.

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    Second messenger molecules

    Intracellular molecules that relay signals from G protein activation to target proteins.

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    cAMP

    Cyclic adenosine-3′,5′-monophosphate; a key second messenger in signal transduction.

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    Adenylyl cyclase

    An enzyme that converts ATP into cAMP upon receptor activation.

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    Endocytosis

    A bulk transport process for internalizing substances into a cell.

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    Phagocytosis

    A type of endocytosis that involves the uptake of large particles like bacteria, forming a phagosome.

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    Pinocytosis

    A form of endocytosis that allows the uptake of fluids and small solutes, creating pinosomes.

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    Receptor-mediated endocytosis

    Endocytosis initiated when ligands bind to receptors on the cell membrane, forming a specialized pit.

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    Lysosomes

    Organelles that contain enzymes for degrading macromolecules and waste materials in cells.

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    Hydrolases

    Enzymes present in lysosomes that hydrolyze different biomolecules such as proteins and lipids.

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    Lysosomal proteolysis

    A non-selective pathway for protein degradation involving lysosomes.

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    Proteasomal proteolysis

    A selective process that degrades marked proteins using the proteasome.

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    Telophase II

    The final stage of meiosis where four haploid nuclei form and chromosomes decondense.

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    Cell cycle control system

    A system that regulates the progression of the cell cycle through checkpoints.

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    Checkpoints

    Critical stages in the cell cycle that assess conditions for cell division.

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    G1 checkpoint

    The checkpoint between G1 and S phase that assesses cell size and DNA integrity.

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    Mitogens

    Proteins that stimulate cells to divide by binding to receptors on the cell surface.

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    MAPK pathway

    A signaling pathway activated by mitogens that promotes cell division.

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    PI-3K pathway

    Another signaling pathway linked with cell division and survival, activated by mitogens.

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    Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

    A second messenger involved in cellular signaling, activating protein kinase A (PKA).

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    Protein Kinase A (PKA)

    An enzyme activated by cAMP that phosphorylates target proteins in response to signals.

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    Phospholipase C

    An enzyme activated by G proteins that breaks down phosphatidylinositol to generate second messengers.

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    Inositol trisphosphate (IP3)

    A second messenger generated by phospholipase C that triggers calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum.

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    Diacylglycerol (DAG)

    A second messenger that remains membrane-bound and helps activate protein kinase C (PKC).

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    Enzyme-linked receptors

    Receptors that act as enzymes or bind to enzyme proteins, involved in slow signaling pathways.

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    Tyrosine kinase receptors

    A type of enzyme-linked receptor that phosphorylates tyrosine residues in response to growth factors.

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    Calcium ions (Ca²⁺)

    Ions released by IP3 that play a crucial role in various signaling pathways and muscle contraction.

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    Autolysosomes

    Secondary lysosomes involved in autophagy and autolysis.

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    Heterolysosomes

    Lysosomes formed by fusion with endocytosed material.

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    Peroxisomes

    Organelles involved in detoxification and fatty acid oxidation, with a single membrane.

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    β-oxidation

    Process of breaking long-chain fatty acids into shorter chains within peroxisomes.

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    Catalase

    An enzyme in peroxisomes that breaks down hydrogen peroxide to prevent toxicity.

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    Centrosome

    A structure near the cell nucleus, consisting of two centrioles that assist in cell division.

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    Centrioles

    Cylindrical structures within the centrosome composed of microtubules, crucial for cell division.

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    De novo formation of peroxisomes

    The process of creating new peroxisomes from ER and mitochondria vesicles.

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    Protein kinase

    Enzymes that add phosphate groups to proteins, modifying their activity.

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    Spindle checkpoint

    A checkpoint that ensures all chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle before separation.

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    Semiconservative DNA replication

    Process where each original DNA strand serves as a template for a new complementary strand.

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    Helicase

    An enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix during replication.

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    DNA polymerase

    Enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the growing DNA strand during replication.

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    Topoisomerase

    An enzyme that prevents DNA from becoming too twisted during unwinding.

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    PCNA

    Proliferating Cell Nuclear Antigen; a sliding clamp that keeps DNA polymerase attached to DNA.

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    FEN1 exonuclease

    An enzyme that removes remaining RNA fragments during DNA replication.

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    Dimerization

    The process where two receptor molecules bind together to form a dimer.

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    Tyrosine phosphorylation

    The addition of phosphate groups to tyrosine residues on receptors, activating them.

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    Ras protein

    A monomeric G protein activated by GTP, playing a key role in cell signaling.

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    Ras-GEF complex

    A complex formed when an adaptor protein binds to Ras, exchanging GDP for GTP to activate Ras.

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    Phosphorylation cascade

    A series of events where kinases activate each other through phosphorylation, amplifying the signal.

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    MAP kinase

    The final kinase in the phosphorylation cascade that continues the signaling process.

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    PI3K/Akt pathway

    A signaling pathway that promotes cell growth and survival upon activation by tyrosine kinases.

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    GTP and GDP

    GTP is the active form for proteins, while GDP is the inactive form.

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    Study Notes

    Molecular Biology Exam Prep

    • This document is for molecular biology exam preparation.
    • It covers topics like cell composition and structure.
    • Different types of cells are covered, prokaryotic and eukaryotic.
    • Components of each cell type are detailed.
    • The structure and function of the cell, including the cell membrane and cytoplasm, are covered.
    • Different cell organelles are examined, and their roles in cellular processes are described.
    • Organic and inorganic molecules are classified.
    • The chemical components of cells and their functions are detailed.
    • Water's properties, including hydrogen bonds, and its importance in biological systems are covered.
    • Carbon's role in organic molecules, including formation of chains, branches, and rings, and its importance are highlighted.
    • Carbohydrates, lipids, and other essential organic compounds are described.
    • The cytoskeleton, its components, and its function are detailed.
    • The nucleus, its function, and the various processes involved in its function are described.
    • The Endoplasmic Reticulum, its function, and the differences between smooth and rough ER are noted.
    • The significance and function of ribosomes are described.
    • Mitochondria, their structure, function, and importance in cellular respiration are detailed.
    • Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, peroxisomes, vacuoles, and centrosomes, and their functions are mentioned.
    • The roles of the centrosome are described.
    • The cellular activities of plant cells are detailed, including their cell walls and vacuoles.
    • Cell communication and the different types of signals are described.
    • The various cellular processes and functions, such as metabolism, are covered.
    • The process of DNA replication, transcription, translation, and also post-transcriptional processing in detail.
    • The key enzymes in DNA replication, transcription, and translation are described.
    • -The components of ribosomes, and how tRNA is attached to amino acids, and the steps in translation are detailed
    • Post-transcriptional processing and the roles of mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are detailed.
    • The types of cellular receptors are described, including cell surface receptors (ion channel-linked receptors, G protein-coupled receptors, enzyme-linked receptors) and intracellular receptors.
    • DNA replication, transcription, translation, and post-transcriptional processing steps are discussed.
    • Stem cells are defined, categorized based on potency (totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, unipotent) and origin (embryonic, fetal, somatic, induced pluripotent stem cells).
    • Specific types of stem cells are covered, and their characteristics (including self-renewal and potency), methods of collection (including apheresis and bone marrow biopsy), and applications are detailed.
    • Stem cell niches and their components are described (e.g., HSC niches, epidermal niches, intestinal crypts).
    • Cell cycle and regulation are detailed - including checkpoints (G1, S, G2, spindle), regulators (cyclins, Cdks, CdkIs), and the cell cycle exit (G0).
    • Types of mutations and their effects, including point mutations (substitution, insertion, deletion, inversion, duplication), frameshift mutations, silent mutations, nonsense mutations, and missense mutations and chromosomal aberrations (deletions, insertions, inversions, duplications, translocations—including reciprocal and Robertsonian), and numerical chromosomal aberrations (aneuploidy, polyploidy) are discussed. DNA repair mechanisms (including excision repair, mismatch repair, double-strand break repair, and homologous recombination), are described.
    • Basic principles of cell signaling, different types of cell communication (local, distant, neuronal—including neurotransmitters and neurohormones—), and various types of cellular receptors are detailed.
    • The process of apoptosis and necrosis are highlighted.
    • The roles of DNA polymerase, RNAse H, FEN1, and DNA ligase in DNA replication are noted, along with other DNA replication enzymes, and details about the role of protein complexes like the Replication Factor C (RFC).
    • Structural details of chromosomes (centromeres, telomeres, arms) and how they are involved in cell division are discussed. The types of chromosomes are specified: acrocentric, metacentric, submetacentric, and telocentric.
    • Specific details of the cell cycle phases (G phases, M phase, cytokinesis), including sub-phases of meiosis (prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II), and the roles of the synaptonemal complex and kinetochores are specified.
    • Methods of cell signaling (ligand binding, receptor activation, intracellular signalling cascades) are discussed
    • Intercellular communication, including the different types (juxtacrine, paracrine, autocrine, endocrine), are elaborated.
    • How cell cycle regulators (cyclins, CDKs, CDKIs) control the cell cycle, and which factors promote cell division (mitogens) are detailed.
    • The role of p53 in DNA damage response and the role of the APC/C complex are mentioned.
    • DNA replication, transcription, and translation are described with details about the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of each process.
    • Important post-transcriptional modifications are discussed, including the cap and tail additions, splicing, and RNA editing, and different types of RNA molecules (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA), as well as non-coding RNAs, and their functions in gene expression.
    • Mechanisms of DNA repair highlighted include direct repair, excision repair (BER, NER), nucleotide excision repair (NER) and double-strand break repair (NHEJ, HR).
    • The roles of enzymes and proteins involved in DNA replication and repair are detailed.
    • Stem cell-specific details are elaborated in the document.

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