163 Questions
Which of the following is not an example of a fomite?
mosquitoes
HEPA filters are required for which Biological Safety Level (BSL)?
BSL 4
From a clinical perspective, aseptic technique is carried out to do which of the following?
prevent contamination in living tissue
The autoclave uses which of the following mechanism(s) for sterilization?
pressure and temperature
Autoclaves are designed to kill which of the following heat-resistant microbes?
endospores
The decimal reduction time (D-value) is how long it takes to kill which percentage of a microbial population?
90%
Which of the following actions would be considered bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal?
Placing a bacterial culture in the -80°C freezer
Microbial death follows which type of trend?
Logarithmic
Which of the following are the standard conditions for an autoclave?
121°C, 15 psi, 20 minutes*
Which of the following is not a milkborne pathogen?
Yersinia pestis*
For appropriate food storage in refrigerators, the temperature should be set to no higher than which of the following?
7°C*
Which of the following is a characteristic of bacteriostatic agents?
**Preventing bacterial growth without necessarily killing them
X-rays and gamma rays are examples of which type of radiation?
ionizing radiation
Which type of radiation is ultraviolet light an example of?
Nonionizing radiation
To sterilize packaged intravenous tubing, which method would not be acceptable?
non-ionizing radiation
Liquid growth media containing antibiotics should be sterilized using which method?
Membrane filtration
Which method of microbial control introduces double-strand breaks into DNA?
Ionizing radiation
Which method of microbial control does not rely on denaturing proteins and/or disrupting DNA?
HEPA filtration
Where can phenolic compounds be found naturally?
Plants
Which phenolic compound commonly added to soap raises concerns about resistant bacteria?
Triclosan
How do heavy metals control microbial growth?
By binding to sulfur-containing amino acids
What is argyria?
A buildup of silver in the body resulting in blue-gray skin
Which halogen or halogen-containing compound is typically used as a form of topical antisepsis?
Iodophor
Which substance may be used to disinfect water to make it potable?
Sodium dichloroisocyanurate
What type of chemical agent is commonly used by contact lens cleaners to control microbial growth?
Peroxygen
Which of the following chemicals is not classified as an alkylating agent?
Chlorhexidine
How do many chemical preservatives like potassium sorbate preserve food products?
By altering the pH
Which bacterium produces the antimicrobial peptide nisin?
Lactococcus lactis
In a disk-diffusion assay, which antimicrobial agent is considered the least effective?
Erythromycin
What is the primary mechanism of action of supercritical fluid in controlling microbial growth?
Oxidizing cellular components
What group of organisms can naturally contain phenolic compounds?
Fungi
Which phenolic compound is commonly added to soap and raises concerns about resistant bacteria?
Triclosan
How do heavy metals primarily control microbial growth?
By binding to sulfur-containing amino acids
What is argyria?
A condition resulting in blue-gray skin due to silver buildup
Which halogen or halogen-containing compound is commonly used for topical antisepsis?
Iodophor
Which of the following substances may not be used to disinfect water for potable use?
Fluoride
Which of the following is NOT an alkylating agent?
Chlorhexidine
How do many chemical preservatives, such as potassium sorbate, preserve food products?
By altering the pH
Nisin, an antimicrobial peptide, is produced by which bacterium?
Lactococcus lactis
In a disk-diffusion assay, which antimicrobial agent is the least effective?
Streptomycin
What does ethylene oxide primarily function as in microbial control?
An alkylating agent affecting DNA
What is the main difference between a secondary infection and a superinfection?
A superinfection is a type of secondary infection that can develop when antibiotics kill much of the patient's normal flora.
Which type of agents should be used to treat life-threatening diseases caused by bacterial pathogens?
Bactericidal agents only
What is an example of a ☐-lactam antibiotic?
S-NH2
What was the first antimicrobial agent discovered to treat syphilis?
Penicillin
Who is credited for first finding an antimicrobial agent?
Paul Ehrlich
Who is credited for first finding a naturally occurring antimicrobial agent?
Alexander Fleming
What did Alexander Fleming's observed mold, Penicillium notatum, inhibit?
Staphylococcus
Which of the following is a semisynthetic antimicrobial agent?
Ampicillin
What is the key difference between a secondary infection and a superinfection?
The timing of the infection
In the disk diffusion assay results shown, which antimicrobial agent is the most effective?
A*
What does MIC stand for in the context of antimicrobial testing?
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration*
Which dilution of amoxicillin was found to have the lowest MIC against E. coli in the macrobroth dilution assay?
0.01 µg/mL
What percentage of a microbial population must be killed for the decimal reduction time (D-value) to be determined?
99%
What is the primary purpose of a disk diffusion assay in microbiology?
To measure the zone of inhibition caused by antimicrobial agents*
Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial disease?
Acquiring MRSA after touching a locker door handle after an already infected individual did so
Which of the following diseases can be classified as noninfectious?
Noninfectious
Which of the following diseases is not zoonotic?
Typhoid
Which of the following would be considered a symptom?
Body ache and chills
Which of the following would be considered a sign?
Gross hematuria (visible presence of blood in urine)
What term describes the initial period of disease with general signs and symptoms?
Prodromal
Which virus can be targeted using reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as AZT?
HIV
Which antiviral drug is NOT a nucleoside analog?
Etravirine
What mechanism of resistance is utilized by both MRSA and VRSA?
Target modification
What contributes to the development of antibiotic resistance?
Target modification
What does an antibiogram typically describe?
A compilation of local antibiotic susceptibility data broken down by bacterial pathogen
In a microbial control context, what does an Etest help determine?
The approximate Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic against bacteria
What are the units used to express the MIC values in the provided text?
µg/mL
Which organization's standards are referenced in relation to the questions provided?
ASM
What is the approximate MIC value of the antibiotic against the bacterium plated in the Etest?
0.12 µg/mL
An antibiotic that is lipophilic and detergent-like is most likely targeting which of the following?
The plasma membrane
Rifampin, an antimicrobial drug, primarily targets which of the following?
RNA polymerase
Fluoroquinolones, a class of antimicrobial drugs, primarily target which molecule in bacteria?
DNA gyrase
Sulfa drugs inhibit which metabolic pathway in bacteria?
Dihydrofolic acid synthesis pathway
Metronidazole and pentamidine are commonly used to treat infections caused by which type of microorganism?
Protozoan
Benzimidazoles and avermectins are typically used to treat infections caused by which type of organism?
Helminth
What would be classified as a symptom?
Body ache and chills
Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial disease?
Acquiring MRSA after touching a locker door handle
Sickle cell anemia is classified as which type of disease?
Noninfectious
Which of the following diseases is considered non-zoonotic?
Typhoid
What is characteristic of the initial period of disease with general signs and symptoms?
Prodromal period
What does 150/90 mm Hg represent?
A blood pressure reading
What type of disease can sickle cell anemia be classified as?
Infectious, noncommunicable
What is the condition in which blood contains actively dividing bacteria?
Septicemia
Which characteristic of pathogens do Molecular Koch's postulates aim to identify?
Virulence factor genes
Which of the following diseases is not zoonotic?
Typhoid
What type of exoenzyme is Hyaluronidase?
Glycohydrolase
During which period of disease is a patient most susceptible to developing a secondary infection?
Period of decline
Which type of exoenzyme do intracellular pathogens like Listeria and Rickettsia produce to aid in escaping the phagosome?
Phospholipases
What is the approximate ID250 of the virus from the graph shown?
10
Which virulence factor produced by Staphylococcus aureus allows the bacterium to be coated in fibrin that protects it from phagocytes?
Coagulase
What period of disease describes when the patient begins to feel general signs and symptoms?
Prodromal period
What is the toxic component of endotoxin?
Lipid A
What type of study gathers data from past cases to study present-day cases?
Retrospective*
In the epidemiological study described, individuals who ate potato salad and both developed and did not develop illness were interviewed. What type of study was conducted?
Case-control*
In the study on a new drug for colds, 25 individuals received a sugar pill, and 25 received the test drug in a double-blind approach. What type of study was conducted?
Experimental*
Florence Nightingale's 1858 book included graphs that highlighted casualties due to which problem?
Preventable infectious diseases*
In epidemiology, what type of study is conducted when individuals with a specific condition are compared to those without it?
Case-control*
When analyzing a new drug's efficacy for colds, if individuals are randomly assigned to receive different treatments, what type of study is being conducted?
Experimental*
Which pathogen is the most virulent based on ID50?
Pathogen C with an ID50 of 1 cell
What is the main concept of pathogenicity?
The ability of a microbial agent to cause disease
Which pathogen is unable to infect a fetus via the blood-placenta barrier?
Salmonella typhi
Which disease is a common secondary fungal disease?
Oral thrush
How does Salmonella typhi enter host cells?
S.typhi secretes effector proteins that cause membrane ruffling
Why are Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections challenging to treat?
They form biofilms and are resistant to many antibiotics*
What chemical mediator produced by lactobacilli in the female reproductive system limits the growth of Candida?
Lactate
Which bacterium can invade sweat glands of the skin and utilize lipase to degrade sebum?
Propionibacterium
Defensins target which process or structure of a microbial cell?
Cell membrane
Which bond in peptidoglycan is targeted by lysozyme?
NAM-NAG bond
Which chemical mediator is produced by lactobacilli in the female reproductive system?
Lactate
Which type of cells produce and secrete mucus?
Goblet cells*
What type of cells line the inner surface of blood vessels to prevent microbes from gaining access to blood?
Endothelial cells*
Which of the following is true about the epidermis?
Lacks blood and lymph vessels
What layer of the skin contains blood and lymph vessels?
Hypodermis*
Which fungus causes rose gardener's disease?
Sporothrix schenckii
Which of the following is not a type of cell junction?
Centromere*
Where are acute phase proteins produced?
liver
What is the best term to describe the process when an immune cell releases cytokines to nearby cells?
Paracrine
Which cytokine primarily recruits leukocytes to sites of infections?
Chemokine
What describes the differentiation of stem cells into various blood cells?
Galactopoiesis
Which of the following leukocytes is an agranulocyte?
Eosinophil
Which leukocyte provides protection against protozoa and helminths?
Basophil
After being engulfed by a macrophage, where does a pathogen first enter?
Phagolysosome
Which brain part controls body temperature?
Hypothalamus
In acute inflammation after tissue injury, what is the correct order of events?
Erythema, edema, heat, pain, altered function
Which statement is true regarding inflammation?
Granulomas are examples of chronic inflammation.
What is not a common component of neutrophil extracellular traps?
Actin filaments
Which statement about LPS (lipopolysaccharide) is false?
LPS is an endogenous pyrogen.
Which type of carrier was Mary Mallon, also known as Typhoid Mary?
Asymptomatic*
Who traced the typhoid outbreak of 1900-1915 to Mary Mallon?
George Soper*
What is the term for the transmission of Listeria monocytogenes to a fetus through the blood-placenta barrier?
Vertical direct contact*
How are sexually transmitted diseases most commonly transmitted between sexually active partners?
Horizontal direct contact*
Which of the following is NOT considered a fomite?
Nurse*
In microbiology, what term describes a carrier who shows no symptoms of the infectious disease they harbor?
Asymptomatic*
Which class of antibody provides protection against parasitic pathogens?
IgA
Where do phagocytic cells bind during antibody-mediated opsonization?
Fc region
Which MHC class is mostly likely found on macrophages?
Class II
Which cells do not express MHCs?
Erythrocytes
Which process describes the cross-linking of pathogens by antibodies so the kidney and spleen can filter them from the blood?
Agglutination
Which complement cascade begins with antibodies binding to a pathogen?
Classical only
Which cells are the primary cells involved in the adaptive immune system?
Lymphocytes
What are antibodies primarily made up of?
Glycoproteins
Which molecular fragment on an antigen molecule do antibodies recognize and respond to?
Epitope
What is a molecule too small to be an antigen known as?
Hapten associated with allergies
Which class of antibody is the most abundant in serum?
IgG
Edward Jenner is credited for the discovery of the concept of a vaccine through his work with which diseases?
Cowpox and smallpox
Which class of antibody provides protection against parasitic pathogens?
IgE
Why was James Phipps (the boy infected with cowpox) protected against smallpox?
Cowpox has proteins identical to smallpox.
Vaccines belong to which class of immunity?
Active artificially acquired
Which type of vaccine would provide the best protection against diphtheria?
Toxoid
Which vaccine would be most protective against Neisseria meningitidis, a capsule-forming pathogen?
Conjugate
After being engulfed by a macrophage, in which compartment does a pathogen initially enter?
Phagosome*
Which of the following is the correct order of events in acute inflammation after tissue injury?
Erythema, edema, heat, pain, altered function*
Which statement about inflammation is true?
Granulomas are examples of chronic inflammation*
Which brain part is responsible for controlling body temperature?
Hypothalamus*
Which of the following is not a common component of neutrophil extracellular traps?
Actin filaments*
Which statement about Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is false?
LPS is an endogenous pyrogen.*
Where do T cells mature?
Thymus
Which lymphocyte targets cells infected with intracellular pathogens?
CD8+ cytotoxic T cell
What activates Helper T cells?
MHC class II
Which cells activate Cytotoxic T cells?
MHC class I
Which bacterial pathogen species can produce superantigens triggering toxic shock syndrome?
Staphylococcus
What is the primary function of B cells?
To produce antibodies
ch. 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18
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