Cardiology Quiz on EKG Patterns
45 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

A ______ interval followed by QRS >120ms with a slurred initial deflection represents early ventricular activation via the bundle of Kent.

short PR

A prolonged ______ interval can lead to undulating rotation of the QRS complex around the EKG baseline.

QT

Patients with renal failure, crush injury, or burn victims may exhibit ______ T-waves, widened QRS, short QT and prolonged PR.

peaked

Three or more consecutive beats with QRS ______ bpm is a characteristic of a specific heart condition.

<p>120</p> Signup and view all the answers

A regular rhythm with a ventricular rate of 125-150 bpm and an atrial rate of 250-300 bpm is a pattern seen in ______ tachycardia.

<p>atrial</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with low-grade temperature and chest pain that is worse with inspiration, better with leaning forward, and a friction rub may have ______.

<p>pericarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chest pain that is worse with palpation may be a sign of ______.

<p>costochondritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chest pain that is vague, associated with a history of viral infection, and a murmur may indicate ______.

<p>myocarditis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Chest pain that occurs at rest, is worse at night, and is associated with few CAD risk factors, migraine headaches, and transient ST elevation during episodes might be ______.

<p>Prinzmetal’s angina</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prinzmetal's angina can be diagnosed with an ______ stimulation test.

<p>ergonovine</p> Signup and view all the answers

The EKG characteristic of "progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped beat" suggests ______.

<p>second-degree heart block</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cannon-a waves on physical exam, and a regular P-P interval and regular R-R interval on EKG, suggest ______.

<p>complete heart block</p> Signup and view all the answers

An EKG with "varying PR intervals with three or more morphologically distinct P waves in the same lead" suggests ______.

<p>junctional rhythm</p> Signup and view all the answers

The EKG shows an ______ baseline, no p-waves appreciated, and an irregular R-R interval.

<p>undulating</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pulsus paradoxus, hypotension, distant heart sounds, and JVD may have ______ beat variation in direction, amplitude, and duration of the QRS complex on their EKG.

<p>alternate</p> Signup and view all the answers

A continuous machine-like murmur is characteristic of a ______ duct patent.

<p>patent</p> Signup and view all the answers

A ______ murmur is typically louder with valsalva and softer with squatting.

<p>holosystolic</p> Signup and view all the answers

A late systolic murmur with a click is indicative of ______ valve prolapse.

<p>mitral</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient presents with shortness of breath, one needs to determine if the cause is ______ or pulmonary.

<p>cardiac</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating a patient with shortness of breath, a ______ should be performed if the pleural fluid is transudative.

<p>thoracentesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has a high risk of PE, such as after surgery or a long car ride, they may present with pleuritic chest pain, ______, and tachypnea.

<p>hemoptysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient presents with fatigue, petechiae, infection, bone pain, and hepatosplenomegaly, and over 20% of the cells are blasts, this defines ______ on biopsy.

<p>Acute Leukemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

The most common cancer in children, ALL is associated with the presence of ______ or TdT.

<p>CALLA</p> Signup and view all the answers

AML is more common in adults, and certain risk factors are associated, including radiation exposure, ______ syndrome, and myeloproliferative disorders.

<p>Down's</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of ______ rods in a patient with AML, particularly subtype M3, can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) during treatment.

<p>Auer</p> Signup and view all the answers

______ cell leukemia is characterized by an enlarged spleen, but no adenopathy, and the presence of numerous cytoplasmic projections on the smear, making it distinct from other leukemias.

<p>Hairy</p> Signup and view all the answers

Treatment for ALL typically involves ______, vincristine, and prednisone, with the addition of intrathecal methotrexate for central nervous system recurrence.

<p>Danorubicin</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of CML, the presence of a 9:22 translocation leads to the activation of tyrosine kinase, and treatment often involves the use of ______, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor.

<p>Imatinib</p> Signup and view all the answers

CLL, often detected through routine blood tests, is characterized by an asymptomatic elevation in WBCs, predominantly lymphocytes, and in more advanced stages may require treatment with ______.

<p>fludarabine</p> Signup and view all the answers

Medullary thyroid cancer is associated with ______ II

<p>MEN</p> Signup and view all the answers

Anaplastic thyroid cancer has a high mortality rate, with approximately 80% of patients dying within the first ______

<p>year</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hashimoto's thyroiditis is a condition that increases the risk of developing ______ lymphoma.

<p>thyroid</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients with central obesity, osteoporosis, diabetes, and hirsutism should be suspected of having ______'s syndrome.

<p>Cushing</p> Signup and view all the answers

The best screening tests for Cushing's syndrome include the 1mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the 24-hour ______ cortisol test.

<p>urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 8mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test is a useful ______ test for patients with suspected Cushing's syndrome.

<p>confirmation</p> Signup and view all the answers

A diagnosis of diabetes is made when a fasting blood glucose level is greater than 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions, or a random blood glucose level is greater than 200 mg/dL along with ______ of hyperglycemia.

<p>symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) typically present with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, Kussmaul respirations, and coma, with blood glucose levels exceeding 400 mg/dL. The diagnosis is confirmed by detecting ______ in the blood and urine, as well as an elevated anion gap and hyperkalemia.

<p>ketones</p> Signup and view all the answers

Defective transport of glucose, amino acids, sodium, potassium, phosphate, uric acid, and bicarb is characteristic of ______ anemia.

<p>Fanconi's</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary treatment for septic arthritis caused by Staph aureus is ______ or vancomycin.

<p>nafcillin</p> Signup and view all the answers

A rise in creatinine of 0.5 or greater over baseline indicates ______ renal failure.

<p>acute</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the workup of a thyroid nodule, the first step is to check ______.

<p>TSH</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gout is characterized by needle-shaped, negatively birefringent ______ crystals.

<p>monosodium urate</p> Signup and view all the answers

In hypopituitarism, polyuria and hypernatremia can result from lack of ______.

<p>ADH</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus may have urine osmolarity that still ______ after desmopressin administration.

<p>decreases</p> Signup and view all the answers

The initial treatment for thyroid storm includes propranolol and ______.

<p>PTU</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Ventricular tachycardia

Three or more consecutive heartbeats with a QRS complex width greater than 120 milliseconds.

Atrial flutter

A rapid and regular heart rhythm with a ventricular rate of 125-150 bpm and atrial rate of 250-300 bpm.

Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

A rapid and regular heart rhythm with a rate between 150-220 bpm.

Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome (WPW)

The PR interval is short, followed by a QRS complex wider than 120 milliseconds with a 'slurred' initial deflection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hyperkalemia on EKG

Peaked T-waves, widened QRS complex, short QT interval, and prolonged PR interval.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pericarditis

Inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, often associated with a low-grade fever.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chest pain worsened with inspiration, improved by leaning forward, friction rub, and diffuse ST elevation

Sharp or stabbing chest pain that is often associated with breathing in and improves with leaning forward. It may be accompanied by a friction rub (a scratching sound) and diffuse ST elevation on the electrocardiogram (EKG).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chest pain worsened with palpation

Chest pain that worsens with palpation (touching the chest). It may be caused by inflammation or irritation of the cartilage connecting the ribs to the breastbone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Myocarditis

Inflammation of the heart muscle, often caused by a viral infection. It can cause chest pain, a heart murmur, and other symptoms like fatigue and shortness of breath.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prinzmetal's Angina

Chest pain that occurs at rest, often at night, and is usually associated with few CAD risk factors and a history of migraines. It is characterized by transient ST elevation during episodes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ergonovine Stimulation Test

A test that involves giving a patient the medicine ergonovine to stimulate the heart. It can be used to diagnose Prinzmetal's angina by inducing coronary artery spasms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Progressive Prolongation of the PR Interval Followed by a Dropped Beat

A type of heart block where the PR interval (the time between the start of P wave and start of QRS complex) progressively increases and eventually drops a beat.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cannon A Waves

A heart rhythm characterized by a regular P-P interval (the distance between P waves) and a regular R-R interval (the distance between R waves) but with large, prominent 'a' waves in the jugular veins.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What EKG finding is associated with hyperthyroidism?

Abnormal rhythm with undulating baseline, absent P waves, and irregular R-R intervals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What EKG finding is seen in pulsus paradoxus?

A heart rhythm characterized by "alternate beat variation in direction, amplitude, and duration of the QRS complex."

Signup and view all the flashcards

What murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation?

A holosystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla and is associated with left atrial enlargement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What murmur is characteristic of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?

A continuous, machine-like murmur.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What characteristics define exudative pleural effusion?

Pleural fluid with high LDH, protein, and low glucose.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What characteristic of pleural effusion might suggest rheumatoid arthritis?

A low pleural glucose level (<60 mg/dL) in pleural fluid.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What murmur is associated with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) ?

A murmur that gets louder with squatting and softer with Valsalva maneuver.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What EKG finding is observed in ventricular tachycardia?

Heart rhythm with three or more consecutive QRS complex at a rate faster than 100 beats per minute.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fanconi's Anemia

A condition characterized by a decreased ability of the proximal tubules to reabsorb essential substances like glucose, amino acids, sodium, potassium, phosphate, uric acid, and bicarbonate. It can be hereditary or acquired.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acute Renal Failure

A type of kidney failure where at least 25% of kidney function is lost, or there is a 0.5 mg/dL rise in creatinine over baseline.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gout

A type of arthritis caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints, often presenting with intense pain and swelling.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pseudogout

A type of arthritis caused by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition, often presenting with pain, swelling, and stiffness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diabetes Insipidus (DI)

A condition characterized by polyuria, polydipsia, hypernatremia, and dilute urine, due to a lack of or non-functional antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Deprivation Test

This is a test done to evaluate the ability of the pituitary gland to regulate water balance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Graves' Disease

A condition characterized by excess thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) and a low TSH level, often resulting in hyperthyroidism symptoms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Thyroid Storm

A rapid rise in the body's core temperature, potentially leading to a life-threatening state, often associated with hyperthyroidism.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acute Leukemia

A type of acute leukemia characterized by >20% blasts in the bone marrow.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

A type of acute leukemia commonly found in children, often characterized by CALLA or TdT positivity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

A type of acute leukemia most common in adults, often associated with Auer rods, myeloperoxidase, and exposure to radiation or chemicals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hairy Cell Leukemia

A type of leukemia characterized by numerous cytoplasmic projections on the smear, enlarged spleen, and decreased lymphocytes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

A chronic myeloproliferative disorder characterized by a 9:22 translocation, leading to tyrosine kinase overactivation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

A type of chronic lymphocytic leukemia characterized by asymptomatic elevation in white blood cells (primarily lymphocytes), often found on a routine exam.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Niacin Deficiency (Pellagra)

A condition caused by a deficiency in niacin due to increased tryptophan usage for serotonin production, resulting in dementia, dermatitis, and diarrhea.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Carcinoid Syndrome

A syndrome associated with metastatic carcinoid tumors, often presenting with flushing, tachycardia, hypotension, and diarrhea.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anaplastic Thyroid Cancer

A rare, aggressive, and often fatal form of thyroid cancer with a high mortality rate within the first year.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cushing's Syndrome

A rare endocrine disorder characterized by excessive cortisol production, leading to various symptoms like osteoporosis, central obesity, diabetes, and hirsutism.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

A severe complication of diabetes characterized by high blood glucose levels, ketones in the blood and urine, metabolic acidosis, and electrolyte imbalances, leading to nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, Kussmaul respirations, and coma.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Right Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA) Stroke

A type of stroke that affects the right anterior cerebral artery, resulting in confusion, behavioral disturbances, left hemiplegia, right ptosis, and a deviated right eye.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Paramedial Branches of the Basilar Artery Stroke

A type of stroke affecting the paramedial branches of the basilar artery, leading to total paralysis except for vertical eye movements.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Seizures

A neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures caused by a variety of factors like hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, infection, or drug withdrawal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Status Epilepticus

A medical emergency characterized by prolonged seizures without recovery of consciousness between seizures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Partial Seizures

A type of seizure that starts in one part of the brain but can spread to other areas, causing various symptoms like arm twitching, déjà vu, or sensory disturbances.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

High Yield Internal Medicine Shelf Exam Review

  • Cardiology review is included in the material provided.
  • Key tests for chest pain include EKG, cardiac enzymes (q8hrs×3), and others based on findings.
  • Key findings and management for STEMI and NSTEMI are outlined.
  • Post-MI complications, such as arrhythmias and wall ruptures, are discussed.
  • Additional conditions, like pericarditis and costochondritis, and their EKG/clinical presentations are covered.
  • Details on workup, diagnosis, and treatment of unstable angina are included.
  • Important cardiac enzymes like myoglobin, CK-MB, and Troponin I are discussed in terms of their timing of elevation and return to normal.

Murmur Buzzwords

  • Aortic stenosis is characterized by louder murmurs during squatting and softer murmurs during valsalva, along with parvus et tardus.
  • Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM) shows louder murmurs during valsalva and softer during squatting/handgrip.
  • Mitral valve prolapse presents with a late systolic murmur with a click, louder with valsalva and handgrip, but softer with squatting.
  • Mitral regurgitation presents with a holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla with left atrial enlargement.

More Murmurs

  • Ventricular septal defect (VSD) typically presents with a holosystolic murmur.
  • Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) presents with a continuous machine-like murmur.
  • Atrial septal defect (ASD) may have a fixed, wide split S2.
  • Rumbling diastolic murmur with an opening snap and left atrial enlargement suggests mitral stenosis.
  • A blowing diastolic murmur with widened pulse pressure and an associated eponymous sign may point to aortic regurgitation.

Pulmonary Embolism

  • High risk from surgery, long car rides, and hypercoagulable states.
  • Symptoms include pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, and tachypnea along with decreased pO2 and tachycardia.
  • Random findings may include right heart strain on EKG and decreased vascular markings on CXR.
  • Initial management includes heparin therapy.
  • Further workup includes V/Q scan and spiral CT.
  • Treatment may involve thrombolytics in severe cases, surgical thrombectomy for life-threatening situations, and IVC filter placement where appropriate.

CXR Buzzwords

  • Key terms like "opacification, consolidation, air bronchograms," "hyperlucent lung fields with flattened diaphragms," and "heart >50% AP diameter" to highlight key findings in CXR.
  • Other terms like "cavity containing an air-fluid level," "upper lobe cavitation," and “thickened peritracheal stripe" relate to specific CXR findings.
  • The descriptions help with analysis when a CXR presents certain findings related to various disorders.

Pleural Effusions

  • Pleural effusions present as a fluid collection greater than 1cm on lateral decubitus radiographs, necessitating thoracentesis.
  • Transudative effusions are likely due to CHF, nephrotic syndrome, or cirrhosis, potentially showing decreased pleural glucose or increased lymphocytes suggesting other conditions (e.g., RA, tuberculosis).
  • Exudative effusions indicate causes like parapneumonic effusion and malignancies, sometimes complicated by gram-negative infections and low glucose.
  • Diagnostic thoracentesis might be necessary for complicated effusions, guided by Light's criteria (LDH, protein, and LDH/serum comparisons).

Acid Base Disorders

  • Check pH; less than 7.4 indicates acidosis, and greater than 7.4 indicates alkalosis.
  • If bicarbonate (HCO3) and partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2 ) are both elevated, it suggests metabolic alkalosis.
  • If urine chloride (Cl-) is >20 and there is hypertension, hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome) or Bartter/Gitelman syndrome is possible.
  • Chloride is less than 20 and vomiting and/or diuretics or antacids are used, metabolic alkalosis is possible.
  • If both HCO3 and pCO2 are low, it suggests metabolic acidosis.
  • Anion gap (AG) calculations aid in determining the cause of the metabolic acidosis.

Acute Renal Failure

  • 25% or 0.5 rise in creatinine, over baseline creatinine levels.

  • workup: BUN/Creatinine (Cr) ratio, to confirm prerenal causes. FENA tests. FENurea, for prerenal in those on diuretics.
  • Treatment aims to address prerenal causes, meaning to improve kidney blood flow/perfusion (e.g., fluid administration).

Intrinsic Renal Causes

  • Muddy brown casts in a patient with amphotericin B, AG, cisplatin administration, or prolonged ischemia can point toward acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
  • Protein, blood, and eosinophils in the urine, alongside fever and rash following trim-sulfa usage, may indicate acute interstitial nephritis (AIN).
  • Elevated CPK in trauma or crush victims can suggest rhabdomyolysis.
  • Enveloped crystals on UA could hint towards ethylene glycol toxicity.
  • A creatinine increase within 48-72 hours after a cardiac catheterization may suggest contrast nephropathy.

Infectious Disease

  • Meningitis causes (in kids and adults, and after brain surgery) and their specific treatments (antibiotics for bacterial meningitis)
  • Empiric treatment for suspected bacterial meningitis, including steroids in cases strongly suspected of being bacterial.
  • Laboratory testing/diagnostic tests(e.g. gram stain, high WBC count) for bacterial meningitis which suggest the infection.

Infectious Disease Buzzwords

  • Target rash, fever, facial nerve palsy, and AV block may point towards Lyme disease.

  • Rickettsia, can be suspected by rash at joints (wrist, ankles, or soles) that shows an association with fever and headache.

  • Tick-borne diseases (like Ehrlichiosis) may present with myalgia, fever, headache, and low platelets or white blood cells along with possibly a skin rash.

  • Immune deficiency from prior treatment(like those with history of recent antibiotic use) may pose an increased risk towards opportunistic infections like the involvement of c. diff toxin antigen

Other Infections

  • Viral or bacterial URI may produce multiple problems in the kidneys, like Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) with kidney failure, and abdominal pain, or other symptoms.
  • Multiple other related infections can include Cardiac conditions, and blood disorders like Thrombocytopenia along with fever, high white blood cells, and other related issues.
  • Important diagnostic considerations for possible infections that present as related conditions.
  • The possibility of infections like PCP(Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia) or other infections in patients with suppressed immune systems from HIV/AIDS
  • Considerations for the diagnoses and treatments of various problems that potentially occur in patients with HIV

Respiratory Infections

  • Key infections that cause pulmonary problems, such as pneumonia, from various sources and treatment approach needed
  • Important infections like tuberculosis (TB) and pneumococcal pneumonia
  • How to differentiate these infections based on presentation and other related tests (like CXR)

Immunological and Inflammatory

  • Autoimmune issues and related conditions that can cause various problems (sometimes affecting multiple organs) requiring a multifaceted approach to treatment.
  • Information regarding the types of syndromes, what criteria to check for to rule them out, and related symptoms.
  • Diagnosis and treatment strategies depending on the type of immune disorder.

Other Hematologic

  • Understanding different blood disorders (blood dyscrasias) and their possible causes
  • Conditions that can cause anemia or thrombocytopenia depending on the type and presenting features
  • Understanding the cause/s behind specific conditions and treatment considerations
  • Diagnosing the different skin-related conditions (possibly systemic) based on specific features
  • Conditions presenting with pain and other associated features of inflammations to other related problems in the body

Important Diagnostic and Treatment Considerations

  • Considerations for the specific clinical features and supporting tests(x-rays, scans, blood tests) for various conditions.
  • Management/treatment approach for related symptoms and conditions presented for the particular situation

Other Considerations

  • Conditions related to different organs/systems/conditions that may present (or require further diagnostics/workups to rule them out, especially if they are rare)

Additional Points

  • Information about specific testing, treatment and management decisions for particular patients and features present.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Description

Test your knowledge on EKG patterns and cardiac conditions with this quiz. It includes questions about intervals, QRS complexes, and various types of tachycardia. Perfect for medical students and healthcare professionals looking to refresh their understanding of cardiology.

More Like This

EKG Rhythms Overview
17 questions

EKG Rhythms Overview

ReputableTangent4657 avatar
ReputableTangent4657
EKG Technician Practice Test Flashcards
85 questions
EKG Practice Strips Flashcards
22 questions
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser