Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the term for the rate or speed of the heart?
What is the term for the rate or speed of the heart?
- Dromotropic
- Inotropic
- Chronotropic (correct)
- Lusitropic
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pacemaker cells?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pacemaker cells?
- Conductivity
- Rhythmicity
- Automaticity
- Contractility (correct)
What is the term for the period during repolarization where the cell can be depolarized if the stimulus is strong enough?
What is the term for the period during repolarization where the cell can be depolarized if the stimulus is strong enough?
- Absolute refractory period
- Vulnerable period
- Relative refractory period (correct)
- Supernormal period
Which of the following is responsible for rapid impulse conduction within the heart?
Which of the following is responsible for rapid impulse conduction within the heart?
Which phase of the action potential is characterized by rapid repolarization?
Which phase of the action potential is characterized by rapid repolarization?
What is the process called when calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is triggered by calcium entering the cell?
What is the process called when calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is triggered by calcium entering the cell?
Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to myocyte relaxation?
Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to myocyte relaxation?
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of automaticity?
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of automaticity?
Which of these is a property of propranolol?
Which of these is a property of propranolol?
What is the preferred route of administration for propranolol?
What is the preferred route of administration for propranolol?
Which of these is a potential side effect of propranolol?
Which of these is a potential side effect of propranolol?
What is the maximum intravenous bolus dose of propranolol?
What is the maximum intravenous bolus dose of propranolol?
Which of these conditions is propranolol commonly used to treat?
Which of these conditions is propranolol commonly used to treat?
What drug is no longer available due to a high risk of death or cardiac arrest within the first 14 days of therapy?
What drug is no longer available due to a high risk of death or cardiac arrest within the first 14 days of therapy?
Which drug has a synergistic effect with 𝛽-blockers or antiarrhythmics like quinidine or procainamide, allowing for decreased dosages of these components?
Which drug has a synergistic effect with 𝛽-blockers or antiarrhythmics like quinidine or procainamide, allowing for decreased dosages of these components?
Which drug is indicated for the control of heart rate and blood pressure?
Which drug is indicated for the control of heart rate and blood pressure?
What is the therapeutic blood level for phenytoin?
What is the therapeutic blood level for phenytoin?
Which drug has a negative ionotropic activity?
Which drug has a negative ionotropic activity?
What is the elimination half-life of propafenone?
What is the elimination half-life of propafenone?
Which drug is a fluorinated local anesthetic analog of procainamide?
Which drug is a fluorinated local anesthetic analog of procainamide?
Which drug is indicated for the suppression of chronic ventricular tachycardia?
Which drug is indicated for the suppression of chronic ventricular tachycardia?
What is the mechanism of action of esmolol?
What is the mechanism of action of esmolol?
Which drug may widen the QRS complex and potentially cause second-degree or third-degree AV blocks?
Which drug may widen the QRS complex and potentially cause second-degree or third-degree AV blocks?
What is the primary route of administration for tocainide?
What is the primary route of administration for tocainide?
Which drug is effective in suppressing ventricular arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity?
Which drug is effective in suppressing ventricular arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity?
Which drug is considered a Class IC antiarrhythmic?
Which drug is considered a Class IC antiarrhythmic?
Which drug has a shorter elimination half-life compared to others mentioned in the content?
Which drug has a shorter elimination half-life compared to others mentioned in the content?
Which drug is known to be effective in atrial fibrillation?
Which drug is known to be effective in atrial fibrillation?
What is the primary mechanism of action of dofetilide?
What is the primary mechanism of action of dofetilide?
What percentage of dofetilide is eliminated unchanged in urine?
What percentage of dofetilide is eliminated unchanged in urine?
Which of the following conditions increases the risk of developing torsades de pointes VT when using dofetilide?
Which of the following conditions increases the risk of developing torsades de pointes VT when using dofetilide?
Which of the following is true regarding bretylium?
Which of the following is true regarding bretylium?
What adverse effect can result from the use of verapamil?
What adverse effect can result from the use of verapamil?
What is the key property of verapamil's pharmacokinetics?
What is the key property of verapamil's pharmacokinetics?
What effect does bretylium have on catecholamines?
What effect does bretylium have on catecholamines?
For which condition is dofetilide indicated?
For which condition is dofetilide indicated?
What serious complication is associated with dronedarone due to its effect on cardiac action potentials?
What serious complication is associated with dronedarone due to its effect on cardiac action potentials?
Which statement is true regarding sotalol's mechanism of action?
Which statement is true regarding sotalol's mechanism of action?
Before initiating long-term therapy for a patient exposed to pulmonary toxicity, which test is recommended?
Before initiating long-term therapy for a patient exposed to pulmonary toxicity, which test is recommended?
What is ibutilide predominantly indicated for?
What is ibutilide predominantly indicated for?
What is a common adverse effect associated with long-term treatment of certain antiarrhythmic agents?
What is a common adverse effect associated with long-term treatment of certain antiarrhythmic agents?
For patients receiving dronedarone, what is a significant risk concerning liver health?
For patients receiving dronedarone, what is a significant risk concerning liver health?
Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is a pure class III drug?
Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is a pure class III drug?
What characteristic is true about the disposition of sotalol?
What characteristic is true about the disposition of sotalol?
In the management of atrial flutter or fibrillation, what is the primary role of dronedarone?
In the management of atrial flutter or fibrillation, what is the primary role of dronedarone?
What safety measure should be taken regarding oxygen in patients under chronic treatment for possible pulmonary toxicity?
What safety measure should be taken regarding oxygen in patients under chronic treatment for possible pulmonary toxicity?
Which of the following are Class 1A antiarrhythmics?
Which of the following are Class 1A antiarrhythmics?
How does the mechanism of action of Class I antiarrhythmics relate to their effect on the heart?
How does the mechanism of action of Class I antiarrhythmics relate to their effect on the heart?
What is the primary mechanism of action of quinidine?
What is the primary mechanism of action of quinidine?
Which of the following best describes the effect of Class 1A antiarrhythmics on repolarization?
Which of the following best describes the effect of Class 1A antiarrhythmics on repolarization?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic effect of quinidine?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic effect of quinidine?
What is the significance of quinidine's effect on the refractory period?
What is the significance of quinidine's effect on the refractory period?
How is quinidine metabolized in the body?
How is quinidine metabolized in the body?
What is the primary reason for quinidine's relatively narrow therapeutic index?
What is the primary reason for quinidine's relatively narrow therapeutic index?
Which of the following conditions is quinidine most effective in treating?
Which of the following conditions is quinidine most effective in treating?
What is the primary mechanism by which volatile anesthetics can contribute to arrhythmias?
What is the primary mechanism by which volatile anesthetics can contribute to arrhythmias?
Which class of antiarrhythmic drug is commonly used in treating supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
Which class of antiarrhythmic drug is commonly used in treating supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
What is the primary mechanism by which triggered activity contributes to arrhythmias?
What is the primary mechanism by which triggered activity contributes to arrhythmias?
How does inhibition of sodium channels by volatile anesthetics affect the refractory period of cardiac cells?
How does inhibition of sodium channels by volatile anesthetics affect the refractory period of cardiac cells?
Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with Class IA antiarrhythmics?
Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with Class IA antiarrhythmics?
What is the primary mechanism by which Class III antiarrhythmics work to treat arrhythmias?
What is the primary mechanism by which Class III antiarrhythmics work to treat arrhythmias?
Which of the following drugs is classified as a Class III antiarrhythmic?
Which of the following drugs is classified as a Class III antiarrhythmic?
Flashcards
Automaticity
Automaticity
The ability of a cell to spontaneously generate an electrical impulse.
Conductivity
Conductivity
The ability of a cell to transmit an electrical impulse to neighboring cells.
Rhythmicity
Rhythmicity
The regular pattern of electrical impulses generated by heart cells.
Excitability
Excitability
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Relative refractory period
Relative refractory period
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Absolute refractory period
Absolute refractory period
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Lusitropic
Lusitropic
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Inotropic
Inotropic
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Propranolol (Inderal)
Propranolol (Inderal)
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Propranolol for HOCM
Propranolol for HOCM
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Propranolol's effect during stress
Propranolol's effect during stress
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Propranolol's metabolism and half-life impact
Propranolol's metabolism and half-life impact
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Propranolol dosing for heart rate
Propranolol dosing for heart rate
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Enhanced automaticity
Enhanced automaticity
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Triggered automaticity
Triggered automaticity
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Reentry
Reentry
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Class I antiarrhythmics
Class I antiarrhythmics
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Class IA antiarrhythmics
Class IA antiarrhythmics
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Quinidine
Quinidine
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Class II antiarrhythmics
Class II antiarrhythmics
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Class III antiarrhythmics
Class III antiarrhythmics
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Class IV antiarrhythmics
Class IV antiarrhythmics
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Procainamide
Procainamide
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Disopyramide
Disopyramide
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Class IB antiarrhythmics
Class IB antiarrhythmics
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Lidocaine
Lidocaine
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Class IC antiarrhythmics
Class IC antiarrhythmics
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Flecainide
Flecainide
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Dronedarone (MULTAQ)
Dronedarone (MULTAQ)
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Dronedarone MOA
Dronedarone MOA
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Torsades de Pointes
Torsades de Pointes
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Sotalol (BETAPACE)
Sotalol (BETAPACE)
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Ibutilide (CORVERT)
Ibutilide (CORVERT)
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Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
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QTc Prolongation
QTc Prolongation
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Lusitropic Effect
Lusitropic Effect
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Inotropic Effect
Inotropic Effect
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Cardiotoxicity
Cardiotoxicity
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Dofetilide (Tikosyn)
Dofetilide (Tikosyn)
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Amiodarone
Amiodarone
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Bretylium
Bretylium
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Verapamil (Calan)
Verapamil (Calan)
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Flecainide (Tambocor)
Flecainide (Tambocor)
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Propafenone (Rythmol SR)
Propafenone (Rythmol SR)
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Esmolol (Brevibloc)
Esmolol (Brevibloc)
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Flecainide properties
Flecainide properties
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Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
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Phenytoin dosage
Phenytoin dosage
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Tocainide (Tonocard) - No Longer Available
Tocainide (Tonocard) - No Longer Available
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Mexiletine (Mexitil)
Mexiletine (Mexitil)
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Moricizine (Ethmozine) - No Longer Available
Moricizine (Ethmozine) - No Longer Available
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Propafenone (Rythmol SR) Properties
Propafenone (Rythmol SR) Properties
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Phenytoin - Effectiveness
Phenytoin - Effectiveness
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Phenytoin & QTc Interval
Phenytoin & QTc Interval
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Propafenone - Beta-blocker Effects
Propafenone - Beta-blocker Effects
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Mexiletine - Synergistic Effects
Mexiletine - Synergistic Effects
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Study Notes
Myocardial Cells-Electricity
- Properties include automaticity, conductivity, rhythmicity, and excitability
- Pacemaker cells generate electrical impulses, transitional cells conduct impulses slowly, and Purkinje cells conduct impulses rapidly.
Cardiac Conduction System
- Sino-atrial (SA) node initiates the heartbeat
- Internodal and interatrial pathways connect the SA node to the AV node
- Atrioventricular (AV) node delays the impulse
- Bundle of His transmits the impulse to the ventricles
- Right and left bundle branches distribute the impulse throughout the ventricles
- Purkinje fibers rapidly conduct the impulse throughout the ventricles
Neural Modulation of Contractility
- Chronotropic relates to heart rate
- Dromotropic refers to impulse conduction
- Inotropic relates to contraction strength
- Lusitropic relates to relaxation
Cardiac Transplantation
- The diagrams show different approaches to cardiac transplantation
Fluid & Electrolyte Balance
- Nernst Equation calculates the electrical potential for ions
- Goldman Hodgkin-Katz Equation calculates potential for multiple permeable ions
SA Node Pacemaker Cells
- Pacemaker action potential has phases (0-4) with specific ion channel involvement (HCN, T-type Calcium, L-type Calcium, and Voltage-gated Potassium)
- HRmax = 220 - age
Electrophysiology
- Resting membrane potential, threshold potential, depolarization, and repolarization are part of the electrophysiological process
- Action potentials of cardiac muscles have specific phases (0-4) involving ion fluxes
Electrophysiology-Phase Repolarization
- Phase 0: Depolarization
- Phase 1: Early repolarization
- Phase 2: Plateau phase
- Phase 3: Rapid repolarization
- Phase 4: Repolarization
Refractory Periods of Repolarization
- Absolute or effective refractory period: The cell cannot be re-stimulated.
- Relative refractory period: The cell can be re-stimulated with a strong stimulus.
- Supernormal or vulnerable period: The cell can be re-stimulated with a week stimulus.
Action Potentials
- Atrial and ventricular myocytes, Purkinje fibers, and pacemaker cells each have unique action potentials
Cardiac Channelopathies
- Information on various diseases related to cardiac ion channels
Calcium-Induced Calcium Release
- Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is triggered by intracellular calcium and these steps in cardiac contraction
- SERCA calcium channel is mentioned as important to returning intracellular calcium to the SR
Cardiomyocyte Contractile Cycle
- The steps of the cardiomyocyte contractile cycle
Myocyte Relaxation
- Repolarization occurs and calcium detaches from troponin and returns to sarcoplasmic reticulum
- T-T complex reattaches to binding sites on actin to cause muscle relaxation
Why Arrhythmias Occur?
- Enhanced automaticity, triggered automaticity, and reentrant (circus movement) are causes of arrhythmias
Electrolytes & EKG Changes
- Information covering electrolytes and EKG changes.
Arrhythmias & Volatile Anesthetics
- Volatile anesthetics interact with ion channels, potentially causing arrhythmias
Antiarrhythmic/Arrhythmic Classes
- Different antiarrhythmic drugs and their mechanisms of action (including classes I-IV) are discussed
Drugs (and their Classes)
- These notes cover various drugs and their classifications, mechanisms of action.
- Class IA, IB, IC, II, III, and IV drugs are discussed.
Other Antiarrhythmic Drugs
- Digoxin. Adenosine. Ranolanizine. and more specifics regarding the class I-IV antiarrythmic drugs
- There is a focus on pharmacokinetics, dosages, indication, and contraindications
Electrophysiology: Phase Re-polarization;
- Specific phases and periods.
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