Cardiology Pharmacology Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is the term for the rate or speed of the heart?

  • Dromotropic
  • Inotropic
  • Chronotropic (correct)
  • Lusitropic

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pacemaker cells?

  • Conductivity
  • Rhythmicity
  • Automaticity
  • Contractility (correct)

What is the term for the period during repolarization where the cell can be depolarized if the stimulus is strong enough?

  • Absolute refractory period
  • Vulnerable period
  • Relative refractory period (correct)
  • Supernormal period

Which of the following is responsible for rapid impulse conduction within the heart?

<p>Purkinje cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the action potential is characterized by rapid repolarization?

<p>Phase 3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the process called when calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is triggered by calcium entering the cell?

<p>Calcium-induced calcium release (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to myocyte relaxation?

<p>Calcium entering the cell (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of automaticity?

<p>The ability of a cell to generate its own electrical impulse (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a property of propranolol?

<p>Noncardioselective (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferred route of administration for propranolol?

<p>Intravenous (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a potential side effect of propranolol?

<p>Hypotension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum intravenous bolus dose of propranolol?

<p>10 mg (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these conditions is propranolol commonly used to treat?

<p>Hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What drug is no longer available due to a high risk of death or cardiac arrest within the first 14 days of therapy?

<p>Moricizine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug has a synergistic effect with 𝛽-blockers or antiarrhythmics like quinidine or procainamide, allowing for decreased dosages of these components?

<p>Mexiletine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is indicated for the control of heart rate and blood pressure?

<p>Esmolol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the therapeutic blood level for phenytoin?

<p>10-18 mcg/ml (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug has a negative ionotropic activity?

<p>Flecainide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the elimination half-life of propafenone?

<p>6-12h (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is a fluorinated local anesthetic analog of procainamide?

<p>Flecainide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is indicated for the suppression of chronic ventricular tachycardia?

<p>Mexiletine (A), Tocainide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of esmolol?

<p>Blocking beta-1 adrenergic receptors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug may widen the QRS complex and potentially cause second-degree or third-degree AV blocks?

<p>Propafenone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of administration for tocainide?

<p>Oral (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is effective in suppressing ventricular arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity?

<p>Phenytoin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is considered a Class IC antiarrhythmic?

<p>Flecainide (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug has a shorter elimination half-life compared to others mentioned in the content?

<p>Esmolol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is known to be effective in atrial fibrillation?

<p>Propafenone (A), Flecainide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of dofetilide?

<p>Blockade of rapid potassium channels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of dofetilide is eliminated unchanged in urine?

<p>80% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions increases the risk of developing torsades de pointes VT when using dofetilide?

<p>Prolonged QTc (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding bretylium?

<p>It was recently reintroduced after a long discontinuation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect can result from the use of verapamil?

<p>Severe bradycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key property of verapamil's pharmacokinetics?

<p>Extensive hepatic metabolism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does bretylium have on catecholamines?

<p>Increases catecholamine release initially (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which condition is dofetilide indicated?

<p>Chemical cardioversion of atrial fibrillation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What serious complication is associated with dronedarone due to its effect on cardiac action potentials?

<p>Torsades de pointes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding sotalol's mechanism of action?

<p>It predominantly acts as a beta-blocker at low doses. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before initiating long-term therapy for a patient exposed to pulmonary toxicity, which test is recommended?

<p>Baseline chest X-ray (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is ibutilide predominantly indicated for?

<p>Conversion of recent onset atrial fibrillation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect associated with long-term treatment of certain antiarrhythmic agents?

<p>Thyroid dysfunction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For patients receiving dronedarone, what is a significant risk concerning liver health?

<p>Hepatotoxicity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is a pure class III drug?

<p>Ibutilide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is true about the disposition of sotalol?

<p>Renally excreted (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of atrial flutter or fibrillation, what is the primary role of dronedarone?

<p>Restoring normal sinus rhythm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What safety measure should be taken regarding oxygen in patients under chronic treatment for possible pulmonary toxicity?

<p>Restrict FiO2 in general anesthetics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are Class 1A antiarrhythmics?

<p>quinidine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the mechanism of action of Class I antiarrhythmics relate to their effect on the heart?

<p>By blocking sodium channels, they reduce the rate of depolarization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of quinidine?

<p>Blockade of sodium channels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the effect of Class 1A antiarrhythmics on repolarization?

<p>They prolong the repolarization duration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic effect of quinidine?

<p>Increased heart rate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of quinidine's effect on the refractory period?

<p>It decreases the risk of arrhythmias. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is quinidine metabolized in the body?

<p>Primarily by the liver, with some renal excretion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for quinidine's relatively narrow therapeutic index?

<p>It can cause significant cardiovascular effects, including hypotension and heart block. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is quinidine most effective in treating?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which volatile anesthetics can contribute to arrhythmias?

<p>By inhibiting ion channels in the heart. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of antiarrhythmic drug is commonly used in treating supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

<p>Class I (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which triggered activity contributes to arrhythmias?

<p>Abnormal electrical activity in response to changes in membrane potential. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does inhibition of sodium channels by volatile anesthetics affect the refractory period of cardiac cells?

<p>It prolongs the refractory period. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with Class IA antiarrhythmics?

<p>Cardiovascular complications such as hypotension and heart block. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which Class III antiarrhythmics work to treat arrhythmias?

<p>They block potassium channels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is classified as a Class III antiarrhythmic?

<p>Amiodarone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Automaticity

The ability of a cell to spontaneously generate an electrical impulse.

Conductivity

The ability of a cell to transmit an electrical impulse to neighboring cells.

Rhythmicity

The regular pattern of electrical impulses generated by heart cells.

Excitability

The ability of a cell to respond to an electrical stimulus.

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Relative refractory period

A phase of repolarization where the cell can be re-excited if the stimulus is strong enough.

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Absolute refractory period

A phase of repolarization where the cell is completely unresponsive to any stimulus.

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Lusitropic

The process of the heart muscle relaxing after contraction.

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Inotropic

The ability of a cell to contract with increased force.

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Propranolol (Inderal)

A synthetic, noncardioselective beta-blocker with antianginal, antiarrhythmic, and antihypertensive properties. It is a racemic mixture of 2 enantiomers with the S(-)-enantiomer having a significantly higher affinity for beta-adrenergic receptors (β1: β2 affinity is equal).

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Propranolol for HOCM

Propranolol is effective in treating hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathies (HOCM), a condition where the heart muscle thickens.

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Propranolol's effect during stress

The effects of propranolol are most pronounced during exercise or stress. This is because beta-receptors are activated during increased physical demands.

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Propranolol's metabolism and half-life impact

Propranolol is metabolized in the liver, producing various metabolites, some of which remain active. The half-life of certain drugs, like amide local anesthetics, can be prolonged by propranolol.

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Propranolol dosing for heart rate

Propranolol is used in divided doses to achieve a resting heart rate of 55-60 beats per minute. It is administered intravenously in higher doses until this targeted heart rate is reached.

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Enhanced automaticity

The ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses.

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Triggered automaticity

When a cardiac cell generates an electrical impulse due to a previous stimulus, even if it should be in its resting state.

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Reentry

A reentrant circuit where an electrical impulse keeps looping around, causing a continuous rhythm disturbance.

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Class I antiarrhythmics

A type of antiarrhythmic drug that blocks the fast sodium channels, slowing down electrical impulses.

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Class IA antiarrhythmics

A subgroup of Class I antiarrhythmics that moderately slows down the heart muscle and extends the repolarization phase.

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Quinidine

A type of Class IA antiarrhythmic, known by its old name 'Cardioquin'.

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Class II antiarrhythmics

A type of antiarrhythmic drug that blocks the beta-adrenergic receptors, slowing down the heart rate.

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Class III antiarrhythmics

A type of antiarrhythmic drug that blocks the potassium channels, prolonging the repolarization phase.

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Class IV antiarrhythmics

A type of antiarrhythmic drug that blocks the slow calcium channels, decreasing the heart's contractility.

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Procainamide

A class IA antiarrhythmic that is an analog of procainamide and has similar properties but has different pharmacokinetic properties.

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Disopyramide

A class IA antiarrhythmic that has potent sodium-channel blocking and potassium-channel blocking properties.

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Class IB antiarrhythmics

A subgroup of Class I antiarrhythmics that have a weaker effect on sodium channels and a shorter action on repolarization.

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Lidocaine

A class IB antiarrhythmic known for its effectiveness against ventricular arrhythmias.

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Class IC antiarrhythmics

A subgroup of Class I antiarrhythmics that have a strong blocking effect on sodium channels with minimal effect on repolarization.

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Flecainide

A class IC antiarrhythmic that has a fast onset of action and a long duration of action.

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Dronedarone (MULTAQ)

A non-iodinated antiarrhythmic agent structurally similar to amiodarone. It exhibits properties of all four antiarrhythmic classes and is available only as an oral medication.

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Dronedarone MOA

Prolongs action potential duration by inhibiting sodium and potassium channels, leading to a longer refractory period, which helps stabilize heart rhythms.

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Torsades de Pointes

A type of ventricular tachycardia that occurs when the heart beat is unstable due to prolonged QT intervals.

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Sotalol (BETAPACE)

A long-acting, non-cardioselective beta blocker that prolongs the action potential of the ventricles, atria, and accessory bypass tracts. It also has class III antiarrhythmic properties at higher doses.

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Ibutilide (CORVERT)

A 'pure' class III antiarrhythmic drug used to convert recent onset atrial fibrillation or flutter to normal sinus rhythm.

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Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

A life-threatening condition characterized by inflammation of the lungs and accumulation of fluids.

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QTc Prolongation

A common side effect of dronedarone, sotalol, and amiodarone that can result in irregular heart rhythms and potential life-threatening conditions.

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Lusitropic Effect

The ability of the heart muscle to relax after contraction, an essential aspect of the cardiac cycle.

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Inotropic Effect

The ability of the heart muscle to contract with increased force. It is essential for efficient pumping of blood throughout the body.

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Cardiotoxicity

The tendency of some drugs to cause the heart muscle to relax and become less efficient at pumping blood.

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Dofetilide (Tikosyn)

A 'pure' potent potassium channel blocker indicated for chemical cardioversion and maintenance of normal sinus rhythm (NSR) from atrial fibrillation and flutter. It prolongs the action potential duration and effective refractory period of accessory pathways.

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Amiodarone

A long-acting, potent antiarrhythmic drug with multiple effects. It acts on potassium and sodium channels, prolonging the action potential duration and effective refractory period. It also blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate and contractility.

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Bretylium

A drug used for chemical cardioversion and increasing ventricular fibrillation (VF) threshold. It acts by prolonging the action potential duration and effective refractory period in Purkinje fibers and ventricular tissue.

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Verapamil (Calan)

A racemic mixture of calcium channel blockers that is used to terminate paroxysmal SVT and control ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation/flutter. It inhibits the flux of calcium ions, decreasing the rate of spontaneous phase 4 depolarization.

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Flecainide (Tambocor)

IV: 1-2 mg/kg over 10 minutes. Used to suppress ventricular tachycardia (VT) and premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), as well as atrial tachyarrhythmias.

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Propafenone (Rythmol SR)

A potent local anesthetic with a strong affinity for the sodium channels. It's used to prevent paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, PVCs, and atrial tachyarrhythmias.

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Esmolol (Brevibloc)

A short and rapid-acting beta-blocker specifically targeting the beta-1 receptors in the heart.

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Flecainide properties

A potent local anesthetic analog of procainamide that possesses local anesthetic and negative inotropic activity. Used in suppressing ventricular tachycardia, PVCs, atrial tachyarrhythmias, and Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome.

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Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Used in suppressing ventricular arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity, but less effective in VT from other causes.

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Phenytoin dosage

IV dose is 100 mg (1.5 mg/kg) every 5 minutes until arrhythmia is controlled to a maximum of 10-15 mg/kg (or 1000 mg).

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Tocainide (Tonocard) - No Longer Available

An amine analog of lidocaine used orally for suppression of chronic VT. Similar electrophysiologic function to lidocaine.

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Mexiletine (Mexitil)

An oral antiarrhythmic drug used to suppress chronic ventricular tachycardia. It blocks sodium channels and has similar electrophysiologic effects as lidocaine.

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Moricizine (Ethmozine) - No Longer Available

A phenothiazine derivative with potent local anesthetic properties. It blocks fast sodium channel conductance during Phase 0, decreasing inward sodium current, and also has properties of Class IB and IC.

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Propafenone (Rythmol SR) Properties

Effective in preventing paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia and PVCs, as well as atrial tachyarrhythmias. It also exhibits some beta-blocker effects.

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Phenytoin - Effectiveness

A drug that is effective in suppressing ventricular arrhythmias associated with digitalis toxicity. It's less effective in VT from other causes.

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Phenytoin & QTc Interval

May be effective in prolonged QTc interval induced torsades de pointes. It shortens the QTc interval more than any other antiarrhythmic drug.

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Propafenone - Beta-blocker Effects

Has beta-blocker effects, such as bradycardia and bronchospasm.

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Mexiletine - Synergistic Effects

Used in conjunction with other antiarrhythmics, it can diminish the dosage of all components.

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Study Notes

Myocardial Cells-Electricity

  • Properties include automaticity, conductivity, rhythmicity, and excitability
  • Pacemaker cells generate electrical impulses, transitional cells conduct impulses slowly, and Purkinje cells conduct impulses rapidly.

Cardiac Conduction System

  • Sino-atrial (SA) node initiates the heartbeat
  • Internodal and interatrial pathways connect the SA node to the AV node
  • Atrioventricular (AV) node delays the impulse
  • Bundle of His transmits the impulse to the ventricles
  • Right and left bundle branches distribute the impulse throughout the ventricles
  • Purkinje fibers rapidly conduct the impulse throughout the ventricles

Neural Modulation of Contractility

  • Chronotropic relates to heart rate
  • Dromotropic refers to impulse conduction
  • Inotropic relates to contraction strength
  • Lusitropic relates to relaxation

Cardiac Transplantation

  • The diagrams show different approaches to cardiac transplantation

Fluid & Electrolyte Balance

  • Nernst Equation calculates the electrical potential for ions
  • Goldman Hodgkin-Katz Equation calculates potential for multiple permeable ions

SA Node Pacemaker Cells

  • Pacemaker action potential has phases (0-4) with specific ion channel involvement (HCN, T-type Calcium, L-type Calcium, and Voltage-gated Potassium)
  • HRmax = 220 - age

Electrophysiology

  • Resting membrane potential, threshold potential, depolarization, and repolarization are part of the electrophysiological process
  • Action potentials of cardiac muscles have specific phases (0-4) involving ion fluxes

Electrophysiology-Phase Repolarization

  • Phase 0: Depolarization
  • Phase 1: Early repolarization
  • Phase 2: Plateau phase
  • Phase 3: Rapid repolarization
  • Phase 4: Repolarization

Refractory Periods of Repolarization

  • Absolute or effective refractory period: The cell cannot be re-stimulated.
  • Relative refractory period: The cell can be re-stimulated with a strong stimulus.
  • Supernormal or vulnerable period: The cell can be re-stimulated with a week stimulus.

Action Potentials

  • Atrial and ventricular myocytes, Purkinje fibers, and pacemaker cells each have unique action potentials

Cardiac Channelopathies

  • Information on various diseases related to cardiac ion channels

Calcium-Induced Calcium Release

  • Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is triggered by intracellular calcium and these steps in cardiac contraction
  • SERCA calcium channel is mentioned as important to returning intracellular calcium to the SR

Cardiomyocyte Contractile Cycle

  • The steps of the cardiomyocyte contractile cycle

Myocyte Relaxation

  • Repolarization occurs and calcium detaches from troponin and returns to sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • T-T complex reattaches to binding sites on actin to cause muscle relaxation

Why Arrhythmias Occur?

  • Enhanced automaticity, triggered automaticity, and reentrant (circus movement) are causes of arrhythmias

Electrolytes & EKG Changes

  • Information covering electrolytes and EKG changes.

Arrhythmias & Volatile Anesthetics

  • Volatile anesthetics interact with ion channels, potentially causing arrhythmias

Antiarrhythmic/Arrhythmic Classes

  • Different antiarrhythmic drugs and their mechanisms of action (including classes I-IV) are discussed

Drugs (and their Classes)

  • These notes cover various drugs and their classifications, mechanisms of action.
  • Class IA, IB, IC, II, III, and IV drugs are discussed.

Other Antiarrhythmic Drugs

  • Digoxin. Adenosine. Ranolanizine. and more specifics regarding the class I-IV antiarrythmic drugs
  • There is a focus on pharmacokinetics, dosages, indication, and contraindications

Electrophysiology: Phase Re-polarization;

  • Specific phases and periods.

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