Canine and Feline Vaccinations Guide
316 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What age is appropriate to apply Frontline Plus on dogs?

  • 12 weeks
  • 10 weeks (correct)
  • 6 weeks
  • 8 weeks

    • Which of the following statements about Advantage is true?

  • It is water resistant. (correct)
  • It is safe for rabbits.
  • It treats all life stages of fleas.
  • It is effective against ticks.

    • Which treatment is suitable for adult fleas and ticks in both dogs and cats from 8 weeks of age?

  • Advantix
  • Fipronil
  • Frontline Plus (correct)
  • Advantage

    • What is the active ingredient in Advantage that targets flea central nervous systems?

    <p>Imidacloprid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long does Frontline Plus provide protection against fleas for dogs?

    <p>90 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which product is not indicated for use on rabbits?

    <p>Frontline Plus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of lufenuron in flea prevention?

    <p>It inhibits the hatching of flea eggs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which product acts as an insect growth regulator?

    <p>Frontline Plus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done before administering a heartworm treatment?

    <p>Test for microfilaria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following products is specifically indicated for both heartworm and flea prevention?

    <p>Canine Sentinel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ingredient in flea prevention products primarily targets the central nervous system of fleas?

    <p>Fipronil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of lufenuron regarding its application?

    <p>It collects in oils of the skin and hair follicles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which flea preventive is noted to be waterproof?

    <p>Feline Frontline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which product is inappropriate for food trials due to its formulation?

    <p>Lufenuron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which weight class is the Canine Interceptor approved?

    <p>11-25 lb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential misconception about the use of Capstar?

    <p>It provides lasting protection against fleas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended first vaccination age for the Rhinotracheitis virus in felines?

    <p>8-10 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the frequency of revaccination for Calicivirus after the initial vaccines?

    <p>Once every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age should the second dose of the initial Calicivirus vaccination be given?

    <p>3-4 weeks after the first dose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine requires a one-year booster following its primary vaccinations?

    <p>Calicivirus (MLV, killed)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should MLV vaccines not be administered to pregnant queens?

    <p>They may harm the developing kittens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the initial vaccination for adult cats is true?

    <p>Two doses are administered 3-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After receiving the initial vaccines, how often should the Rhinotracheitis virus revaccination be done?

    <p>Once every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum recommended age to start administering the Calicivirus vaccine?

    <p>8 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of the E Program (lufenuron) in managing flea populations?

    <p>It inhibits the development of chitin in flea exoskeletons.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes Capstar (nitenpyram)?

    <p>It acts on the central nervous system to kill adult fleas within minutes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important finding when performing circulating microfilaria tests in cats?

    <p>Microfilaria is less commonly found, appearing less than 20% of the time.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following treatments is safe for use in pregnant or nursing dogs?

    <p>Both E Program and Capstar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a noted limitation of antibody testing for heartworm disease?

    <p>It indicates past or present exposure but not susceptibility to infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate method to assess for microfilaria in fresh blood?

    <p>Direct smear for fresh blood assessment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What unique feature distinguishes lufenuron's administration?

    <p>It can be provided as a subcutaneous injection for cats.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic technique can indicate microfilaria in circulation?

    <p>Buffy coat examination via spun hematocrit tube.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible systemic side effect of immiticide treatment?

    <p>Lethargy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a contraindication for administering immiticide?

    <p>Advanced renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended procedure if a microfilarial concentration test is positive after treatment?

    <p>Repeat treatment for microfilaria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect is essential for minimizing cardiopulmonary complications during immiticide treatment?

    <p>Restrict exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long should a follow-up test for adult heartworms be conducted after the last dose of immiticide?

    <p>100 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the injection options for administering immiticide?

    <p>Two injections administered intramuscularly 24 hours apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might occur at the injection site after administering immiticide?

    <p>Edema and mild swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with the dosage of Heartgard for microfilaricidal use?

    <p>Increase the dose significantly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action for Capstar in dealing with adult fleas?

    <p>Disrupts flea central nervous system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true concerning the safety of lufenuron in use?

    <p>Approved for use in pregnant or nursing dogs and cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long does the effect of Capstar last after application?

    <p>One day</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of cats have circulating microfilaria present at any time?

    <p>Less than 20%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is utilized for detecting microfilaria in fresh blood?

    <p>Buffy coat examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When assessing for microfilaria, which concentration technique is considered effective?

    <p>Modified Knott test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key limitation of antibody testing for heartworm disease?

    <p>It does not indicate whether L4 will develop into heartworm infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of E.Program (lufenuron)?

    <p>It is a chitin synthesis inhibitor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary reason puppies under 16 weeks of age are considered the principal target for vaccination?

    <p>They have the highest rates and most severe cases of disease.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For cats that spend time outdoors, which vaccine should be considered core?

    <p>Feline leukemia virus vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What vaccination protocol challenge is associated with differences in patient conditions?

    <p>Individual factors like age and health create variation in vaccine recommendations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a noncore vaccine for dogs?

    <p>Bordetella</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of vaccination does the American Association of Feline Practitioners emphasize?

    <p>Vets should provide clients with detailed information about vaccine options.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a noncore vaccine for cats?

    <p>It is only necessary in certain situations based on risk exposure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common misconception exists regarding canine vaccination protocols?

    <p>All dogs need the same vaccination schedule.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does maternal antibody influence vaccination in puppies?

    <p>It requires a series of periodically spaced vaccinations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence may arise from the presence of dead heartworms in the pulmonary arteries?

    <p>Intensification of the host's immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the behavior of adult heartworms in infected dogs?

    <p>They predominantly inhabit the pulmonary arteries.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What impact does pulmonary arteriolar thromboembolism have on lung tissue?

    <p>It causes leakage of plasma and inflammatory cells into surrounding tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what way do pulmonary vascular changes lead to right-sided heart disease in heartworm-infected animals?

    <p>Through increased resistance causing higher perfusion pressures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the likely outcome of prolonged dilation of pulmonary arteries due to increased vascular resistance?

    <p>Progressive decline in pulmonary function.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can result from the cycle of endothelial cell and heartworm interaction?

    <p>Changes in pulmonary arteries leading to disease progression.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism leads to the development of pulmonary edema in heartworm disease?

    <p>Increased filtration of fluid into lung tissues due to vascular changes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of heartworm treatment is emphasized for effective management?

    <p>Long-term prophylactic dosing is essential for protecting against life stages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended administration frequency for treating severe flea infestations?

    <p>Twice weekly until fleas are no longer observed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is prerenal azotemia commonly caused in dogs with complicated infections?

    <p>Right-sided congestive heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition might cause hypoalbuminemia in dogs with severe heartworm infections?

    <p>Chronic heartworm disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary diagnostic method recommended for screening adult heartworm disease?

    <p>Adult heartworm antigen tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect can antigen-antibody complex deposition have on kidney function?

    <p>Lead to proteinuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation might azotemia result from conditions like immune complex disease and amyloidosis?

    <p>Primary azotemia from glomerulopathies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one significant test recommended by the American Heartworm Society for heartworm prevention?

    <p>Yearly heartworm testing regardless of preventive use</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of not administering heartworm preventive correctly?

    <p>Increased chance of chronic heartworm disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for administering immiticide?

    <p>Advanced renal failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential side effect of immiticide treatment?

    <p>Tachycardia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What instruction should be followed after giving immiticide injections to minimize complications?

    <p>Restrict exercise for 30 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure is recommended if a microfilarial concentration test remains positive after treatment?

    <p>Repeat treatment for microfilaria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long after the last dose of immiticide should adult heartworm testing be conducted?

    <p>100 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the notable advantage of melarsomine over other treatments?

    <p>Less hepatotoxicity and improved efficacy against both sexes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What method is used to ensure proper injection for immiticide?

    <p>Use a needle appropriate for the dog's size</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following can be a side effect at the injection site after immiticide administration?

    <p>Mild swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age should the first dose of Borrelia burgdorferi vaccine be administered?

    <p>9-12 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How far apart should the two doses of the Borrelia burgdorferi vaccine be given?

    <p>2-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended revaccination frequency for the killed Rabies vaccine after the initial dose?

    <p>Every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccines is classified as non-core?

    <p>Borrelia burgdorferi vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the earliest age a dog can receive the Rabies vaccine?

    <p>12 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What administration schedule is recommended for the Giardia lamblia vaccine?

    <p>Two doses 2-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended interval for updating the Borrelia burgdorferi vaccine?

    <p>Annual update</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is generally not recommended due to the rarity of clinical disease?

    <p>Canine coronavirus vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine should be administered to dogs at 6-8 weeks of age as the initial vaccination?

    <p>Canine distemper virus (MLV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended interval between the two doses of the initial adult dog vaccine for Canine distemper virus?

    <p>3-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where should a vaccine containing rabies virus antigen be administered?

    <p>Right hind limb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the revaccination recommendation for the Canine distemper virus (rCDV)?

    <p>Once every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a heartworm preventative that works effectively against L3 and L4 stages?

    <p>Selamectin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a vaccine containing antigens limited to Rhinotracheitis-Calicivirus-Chlamydia-Panleukopenia target in cats?

    <p>Respiratory illnesses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is not indicated for administration to dogs over 12 weeks of age?

    <p>Distemper-measles virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for administering the initial puppy vaccination against Canine distemper virus?

    <p>To ensure systemic immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential outcome if a heartworm test is conducted before 100 days?

    <p>Higher likelihood of false-positives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered when deciding to repeat adulticide therapy after a positive heartworm test?

    <p>The presence of clinical symptoms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended response if a patient tests weakly positive for heartworms?

    <p>Repeat the test in 1 to 3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of cats receiving adulticide therapy may experience a life-threatening crisis during treatment?

    <p>30%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What approach is recommended for asymptomatic cats regarding heartworm infection?

    <p>Continue heartworm preventative without treatment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is important to avoid when surgically removing a heartworm from a cat?

    <p>Breaking the worm during extraction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment plan for a cat showing clinical signs of heartworm disease?

    <p>Follow treatment based on exhibited clinical signs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence may arise from not adhering to the correct treatment protocols for heartworm in cats?

    <p>Under-treatment leading to health complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most significant complication caused by heartworm disease as it progresses?

    <p>Development of right-sided heart disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the life cycle of heartworms is accurate?

    <p>Worm fragments and thrombi can cause systemic embolization.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What contributes to the increased perfusion pressures in pulmonary arteries during heartworm infection?

    <p>Increased vascular resistance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do dead heartworms play in the disease process?

    <p>They cause an intense inflammatory response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following therapeutic considerations is crucial for treating heartworm disease?

    <p>Exercise restriction is required during treatment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately reflects the duration of effectiveness for Advantage in preventing fleas?

    <p>Works for up to 30 days against fleas only.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What changes occur in pulmonary arteries due to heartworm disease?

    <p>Tortuosity and proximal dilation of arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of heartworm treatment requires the longest duration for effect?

    <p>Decreasing the adult worm burden</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is safe for administration in breeding, pregnant, or lactating dogs?

    <p>Frontline Plus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential outcome of unresolved heartworm infection?

    <p>Chronic pulmonary hypertension leading to cor pulmonale</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical characteristic of imidacloprid when used for flea treatment?

    <p>Targets the flea's nervous system effectively.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age can both dogs and cats first be treated with specific flea prevention products?

    <p>8 weeks of age for both.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the proper method for applying flea treatment for larger animals over 20 pounds?

    <p>Evenly applied to three or four sites along the back.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a widely accepted guideline for the frequency of flea treatment application?

    <p>Once weekly as needed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which flea treatment option is known to include an insect growth regulator?

    <p>Frontline Plus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true concerning the treatments mentioned for cats?

    <p>Advantage has a water resistant feature.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism does lufenuron employ to control flea populations?

    <p>It inhibits chitin synthesis, preventing eggs from hatching.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature distinguishes lufenuron's application from other flea preventives?

    <p>It is waterproof and lasts for an extended period.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which product is indicated for controlling flea infestations while also targeting heartworm?

    <p>Canine Sentinel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which flea preventive product is primarily formulated for indoor use?

    <p>Program</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a unique characteristic of Capstar (nitenpyram) in its action against flea infestations?

    <p>It provides a rapid kill of adult fleas only.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the action of fipronil found in various flea treatments?

    <p>It disrupts the central nervous system of fleas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'waterproof' designation in topical flea treatments imply?

    <p>The treatment remains effective even after swimming.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following products is classified as non-systemic but effective against adult fleas?

    <p>Advantage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccines requires administration at 6-8 weeks of age followed by doses every 3-4 weeks until the age of 12 weeks?

    <p>Chlamydia psittaci (MLV, killed)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum age for administering the killed Rabies vaccine?

    <p>12 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is administered at 9 weeks of age and requires a second dose 3 weeks apart?

    <p>Leukemia virus (live canarypox vector)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which vaccine is annual revaccination considered protective?

    <p>Chlamydia psittaci (MLV, killed)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do state and local laws govern regarding Rabies vaccinations?

    <p>The type of Rabies vaccine allowed for pets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine should NOT be administered to pregnant queens?

    <p>Feline leukemia virus (live canarypox vector)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended age for administering the killed Leukemia virus vaccine?

    <p>8-10 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the revaccination schedule for the killed Rabies vaccine?

    <p>Booster every 3 years after the first revaccination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors should NOT be considered when implementing a vaccination protocol?

    <p>Animal’s breed popularity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines core vaccines in companion animals?

    <p>Vaccines appropriate for all animals to protect against severe diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is NOT considered a core vaccine for dogs?

    <p>Leptospirosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are noncore vaccinations primarily determined?

    <p>By the prevalence of pathogens in the area</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of vaccinations for companion animals?

    <p>They enhance animal health and decrease infectious diseases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about feline leukemia vaccinations is true?

    <p>They are given in the left hindlimb to minimize injection site tumors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant characteristic of noncore vaccines compared to core vaccines?

    <p>They target diseases that pose minimal risk based on individual circumstances.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of vaccinations, what factor is least likely to impact a pet's vaccination protocol?

    <p>Owner’s financial status</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A PCV of 30% or less classifies the condition into which category?

    <p>Environment Class 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended frequency for treating severe flea infestations until they are resolved?

    <p>Twice a week</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding dogs weighing less than 2 lb?

    <p>They should not be administered certain flea treatments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended administration schedule for the Canine parainfluenza virus vaccine?

    <p>One dose at 8 weeks, then every 3-4 weeks until 12-14 weeks old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of azotemia may result from dehydration or congestive heart failure in dogs?

    <p>Prerenal azotemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding the Leptospira interrogans vaccine?

    <p>It is given in two doses, 2-4 weeks apart, starting at 12 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which finding may indicate complications related to heartworm infections in dogs?

    <p>Hypoalbuminemia and hyperglobulinemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference in administration between the killed Bordetella bronchiseptica and the live avirulent bacteria version?

    <p>The live version can be given as early as 3 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following laboratory findings is often present in dogs with heartworm disease?

    <p>Proteinuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine requires a specific timing of administration concerning potential exposure?

    <p>Bordetella bronchiseptica (killed)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary recommended diagnostic test for screening adult heartworm disease?

    <p>Heartworm antigen test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After the initial vaccination for Leptospira interrogans, what is the frequency of revaccination?

    <p>Every three years is considered protective</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the administration of lufenuron is accurate?

    <p>It acts as an insect growth regulator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classification is the Bordetella bronchiseptica vaccine that is given as a single dose?

    <p>Noncore vaccine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the booster requirements for Canine parainfluenza virus?

    <p>A one-year booster is given after the initial series, then every three years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many doses are necessary for the killed Bordetella bronchiseptica vaccination in puppies?

    <p>Two doses, 4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the frequency for administering the first series of Canine parvovirus vaccines?

    <p>Every 3-4 weeks until 12-14 weeks old</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the killed version of Canine adenovirus-2 not recommended?

    <p>It does not provide cross-protection against CAV-1.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended revaccination interval after the initial Canine adenovirus-2 vaccination series?

    <p>Once every three years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the first booster for the Canine parvovirus recommended following the initial vaccination series?

    <p>At 15 months of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered a core vaccine for canines?

    <p>Canine parvovirus (MLV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate age to administer the first Borrelia burgdorferi vaccine?

    <p>9-12 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many doses of the Giardia lamblia vaccine are typically recommended?

    <p>Two doses 2-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended revaccination period for Rabies after the initial 1-year vaccination?

    <p>Every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccines is categorized as a noncore vaccine?

    <p>Giardia lamblia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age should the second dose of the initial Borrelia burgdorferi vaccination be administered?

    <p>12 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine mentioned is not recommended for administration due to its low incidence of clinical disease?

    <p>Canine coronavirus (killed and MLV)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the booster vaccination interval for the Borrelia burgdorferi vaccine after the initial two doses?

    <p>Annually</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the core status of the Rabies vaccine in relation to state or local laws?

    <p>Core, subject to specific laws</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age should the first dose of the Microsporum canis vaccine be administered?

    <p>16 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended frequency for the second dose of the Microsporum canis vaccine?

    <p>12-16 days after the first dose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccinations is recommended for adult cats?

    <p>Bordetella bronchiseptica</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the second dose of the Giardia lamblia vaccine for adult cats?

    <p>To boost initial immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of vaccine is administered for Feline immunodeficiency?

    <p>Killed, parenteral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should the Giardia lamblia vaccine be updated for adult cats?

    <p>Annually</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate frequency of administration for severe flea infestations until cessation is observed?

    <p>Twice weekly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum age for administering the Bordetella bronchiseptica vaccine to kittens?

    <p>4 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic best describes hypoalbuminemia in dogs with severe infections?

    <p>Decreased serum protein levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine is not recommended due to the age limitations associated with it?

    <p>Giardia lamblia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which azotemia type may occur in dogs due to dehydration or right-sided congestive heart failure?

    <p>Prerenal azotemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of the dog population is likely to show the presence of circulating microfilaria at any time?

    <p>50%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common laboratory diagnostic finding in dogs suffering from chronic heartworm disease?

    <p>Hypoalbuminemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which testing method is primarily recommended for screening adult heartworm infections?

    <p>Adult heartworm antigen tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which heartworm disease characteristic is true regarding the document of its presence?

    <p>Found in 50 states of the USA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a contraindication for administering immiticide treatment?

    <p>Severe dehydration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What consequence arises from the increasing burden of heartworms in the pulmonary arteries?

    <p>Worms can move into the heart.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes how heartworm disease affects the pulmonary arteries?

    <p>It causes increased perfusion pressures due to vascular resistance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do dead heartworms contribute to the disease progression?

    <p>They incite a more intense host response.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the condition of the pulmonary arteries as heartworm disease progresses?

    <p>Tortuosity and proximal dilation of vessels increase.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant secondary condition that may arise from heartworm disease?

    <p>Chronic hepatic congestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does therapy with ivermectin play in the management of heartworm disease?

    <p>It is effective against late precardiac larvae and young adults.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is a contributor to the severity of parenchymal lung disease in heartworm-infected dogs?

    <p>Embolization from worm fragments and thrombi worsens the condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement describes the typical distribution of heartworms within a host?

    <p>Adult worms are predominantly situated in the caudal and intermediate lung lobes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of pulmonary hypertension in dogs associated with heartworm disease?

    <p>Worm invasion leading to endothelial damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the relationship between heartworm burden and its effects on pulmonary arteries?

    <p>More worms in pulmonary arteries correlate with severe vascular resistance and dilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor contributes to the exacerbation of pulmonary disease in heartworm-infected dogs?

    <p>Dilation of proximal vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication can arise due to the presence of dead heartworms in the pulmonary arteries?

    <p>Intensified inflammatory response from the host</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does ivermectin have on heartworms in dogs?

    <p>Targets late precardiac larvae and early adult heartworms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms is most likely associated with right-sided heart disease due to heartworm infection?

    <p>Chronic hepatic congestion and ascites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During heartworm treatment, which statement is accurate regarding the treatment timeline?

    <p>The infection may persist and disease could progress during treatment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which assessment is most critical when managing a dog with heartworm disease?

    <p>Assessing for pulmonary embolization and associated lung changes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Heartgard type is specifically not for use during food trials?

    <p>Heartgard Plus (ivermectin, pyrantel)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the microfilaricidal dose for Heartgard?

    <p>5 times the preventive dose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ingredient in Sentinel contributes to its effectiveness as a flea preventative?

    <p>Lufenuron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a unique feature of Ivomec's use in small animals?

    <p>It’s used off-label except for ferrets.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Interceptor can be used in both dogs and cats due to its microfilaricidal properties. What is one of its characteristics?

    <p>It microfilaricidal at a preventive dose.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the sizes available for Heartgard and its dosages?

    <p>Different sizes of Heartgard correspond to specific weight classes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the applications of Iverheart?

    <p>It is a generic version of Heartgard Plus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method of administration for Ivomec to ferrets for heartworm protection?

    <p>Combined with propylene glycol and administered monthly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the core requirement for the revaccination of the Rhinotracheitis virus after the initial vaccine in felines?

    <p>Once every 3 years after the initial booster</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age is the initial vaccination for Calicivirus administered to kittens?

    <p>6-8 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are modified live vaccines (MLV) not recommended for pregnant queens?

    <p>They may lead to fetal abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended interval for administering the second dose of the initial Calicivirus vaccination?

    <p>3-4 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the core characteristic of the Calicivirus vaccination schedule for felines?

    <p>Requires initial doses followed by revaccination every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the 12-week milestone in feline vaccinations according to the provided content?

    <p>It is the age when initial vaccinations are completed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines 'considered protective' for the vaccine mentioned in the content?

    <p>The vaccine is effective after revaccination every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended age to begin initial vaccination for the Rhinotracheitis virus in kittens?

    <p>8-10 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action for a cat that is asymptomatic for heartworm disease?

    <p>Begin or continue heartworm preventative.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if a cat is found to have clinical signs of heartworm disease?

    <p>Base treatment on the specific clinical signs exhibited.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be considered if an adult cat is receiving adulticide therapy?

    <p>30% of treated cats may experience a life-threatening crisis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After testing for heartworm, what is a recommended course of action if the result is positive?

    <p>Make a decision to either repeat treatment or wait based on patient factors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What precaution is necessary when performing surgical removal of heartworms in cats?

    <p>It is critical to avoid breaking the worm to prevent severe reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When considering treatment choices for heartworm disease in cats, what protocol stands out?

    <p>Treatment options vary widely based on patient condition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be performed again if a heartworm test is weakly positive?

    <p>The test should be repeated within 1 to 3 months.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which situation can lead to false-positive results in heartworm testing?

    <p>Presence of circulating antigens prior to 100 days.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the average number of adult heartworms typically found in dogs infected with Dirofilaria immitis?

    <p>20-30</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of heartworm infection is associated with right ventricular enlargement and mild anemia?

    <p>Class 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is specifically noted in cats with heartworm infection?

    <p>Vomiting and diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which class of heartworm infection would you expect to see caval syndrome?

    <p>Class 4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long does it typically take for heartworm larvae (L3) to develop into adult heartworms (L6) in dogs?

    <p>6 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which organ is the greatest pathology associated with heartworm infection typically found in dogs?

    <p>Lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the longevity of heartworm infection in cats compared to dogs?

    <p>2-3 years in cats, 5-7 years in dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the immune response to heartworm infection in cats?

    <p>Infections usually resolve spontaneously</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a testing method used for detecting heartworm in dogs?

    <p>Occult heartworm test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature distinguishes heartworm infection in cats from that in dogs?

    <p>Common ectopic infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which Heartgard product is designed to be flavored and is not suitable for food trials?

    <p>Heartgard Plus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of Interceptor in comparison to other heartworm preventatives?

    <p>Microfilaricidal at preventive dose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which product’s dosage size for small dogs (0-10 lb) is specified?

    <p>Interceptor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an indication of Heartgard?

    <p>Treatment of adult heartworm infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes Sentinel from other heartworm preventatives mentioned?

    <p>Combination of milbemycin and lufenuron</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a shared characteristic of both Heartgard and Iverheart?

    <p>Control hookworm infestation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Ivomec is accurate?

    <p>Can be safely administered to ferrets with modification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true regarding the sizes available for Heartgard products?

    <p>Sizes vary based on whether the product treats cats or dogs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary method by which Advantage affects fleas?

    <p>Attacking the flea’s central nervous system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the duration of efficacy is true for both dogs and cats using Frontline Plus?

    <p>Flea protection lasts for different durations based on species</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does imidacloprid function in flea treatments?

    <p>It blocks flea neuromuscular transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following products cannot be applied to pets younger than 8 weeks of age?

    <p>Capstar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential side effect may occur after administering immiticide?

    <p>Injection site swelling or irritation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of a positive microfilaria test after heartworm treatment?

    <p>It means additional heartworm treatments are necessary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes the use of methoprene in flea treatment?

    <p>It is an insect growth regulator preventing flea maturation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical factor to consider when applying treatments with pyrethrin?

    <p>Individuals with greater sensitivity must be monitored</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccines should be classified as core vaccines for indoor cats?

    <p>Panleukopenia, rhinotracheitis, and calicivirus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for recommending a series of vaccinations in puppies under 16 weeks of age?

    <p>They have robust maternal immunity that requires boosting.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents noncore vaccines for cats?

    <p>Feline infectious peritonitis and bordetellosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is leptospirosis classified in relation to canine vaccines?

    <p>It is either core or noncore, based on regional exposure risk.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organization created guidelines for feline vaccination protocols?

    <p>American Association of Feline Practitioners</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical consideration when deciding on vaccination protocols for pets?

    <p>Potential side effects and health condition of the pet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which of the following vaccines is it crucial to provide clients with adequate information?

    <p>All vaccines, core and noncore</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable characteristic of the target population for vaccination regarding young dogs?

    <p>They experience the highest rates of severe disease cases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of E.Program (lufenuron) regarding its effects on fleas?

    <p>It halts the development of flea eggs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Capstar (nitenpyram) is false?

    <p>It provides lasting protection against fleas.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic method is less effective for assessing circulating microfilaria in cats?

    <p>Direct smear of fresh blood.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What limitation is associated with antibody testing for heartworm disease?

    <p>It indicates whether L4 will develop into an adult heartworm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an important consideration when using lufenuron in flea prevention programs?

    <p>It does not eliminate existing flea infestations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the presence of microfilaria in cats is accurate?

    <p>The circulating microfilaria are usually detectable in less than 20% of cases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key distinction of Capstar (nitenpyram) compared to other flea treatments?

    <p>It has a rapid onset of action but no lasting effects.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is specifically contraindicated for use in cats?

    <p>Immiticide.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of administering immiticide treatment to a dog with advanced renal failure?

    <p>Increased risk of systemic side effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be confirmed before starting heartworm preventive treatment after a positive microfilarial concentration test?

    <p>The concentration level of microfilaria in the blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is exercise restriction emphasized after immiticide treatment?

    <p>To minimize risks of cardiopulmonary complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key characteristic of the immiticide (melarsomine) compared to other treatments?

    <p>Improved efficacy against male adult worms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is often observed as a side effect at the injection site of immiticide treatment?

    <p>Soreness and mild swelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended timeframe for testing for adult heartworms after the last dose of immiticide?

    <p>4 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is necessary to ensure minimized discomfort at the injection site when administering immiticide?

    <p>Deep injection with an appropriate needle size</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action is recommended if the microfilarial concentration test is negative after treatment?

    <p>Immediately start heartworm preventative</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct timing for administering the initial dose of the intranasal Panleukopenia vaccine in kittens?

    <p>6-8 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should adult cats be revaccinated for the Rhinotracheitis virus after the initial dose?

    <p>Every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the re-vaccination protocol for kittens receiving the MLV Panleukopenia vaccine?

    <p>After the primary vaccinations, revaccination occurs once every 3 years.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a necessary consideration when administering MLV vaccines to pregnant queens?

    <p>MLV vaccines are not recommended for pregnant queens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For kittens, how long should the interval be between doses of the MLV or killed Panleukopenia vaccines?

    <p>3-4 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended age to administer the Borrelia burgdorferi vaccine?

    <p>9-12 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many doses are required for the Giardia lamblia vaccine, and how far apart should they be given?

    <p>Two doses, 2-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the revaccination interval after administering the initial rabies vaccine?

    <p>Every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following vaccines is considered a core vaccine for dogs?

    <p>Rabies 1 yr (killed)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What classifies the Canine coronavirus vaccine as not recommended?

    <p>The risk of clinical disease is low</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How soon can a Rabies vaccine be administered?

    <p>As early as 12 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended action after an initial Borrelia burgdorferi vaccination?

    <p>Booster with a second dose 2-4 weeks later</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vaccine requires an annual update but is not considered core?

    <p>Borrelia burgdorferi (killed whole bacterin)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best explains the duration of flea prevention for dogs using Frontline Plus?

    <p>Provides flea prevention for up to 90 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical aspect of Advantage regarding its application on dogs and cats?

    <p>Requires application to the skin in one location</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true about the age restrictions for applying Frontline Plus on cats?

    <p>Suitable for cats as young as 12 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does imidacloprid function in flea prevention?

    <p>Attacks the central nervous system of fleas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable safety feature of Advantix in flea and tick prevention?

    <p>It has been shown to be water resistant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ingredient in flea prevention products is classified as an insect growth regulator?

    <p>Methoprene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the suggested application frequency for flea treatment using Advantage?

    <p>Shall not treat more than once weekly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the lifespan of flea treatment efficacy in cats using Frontline Plus?

    <p>Lasts for at least 6 weeks against adult fleas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended interval for revaccination of the Rhinotracheitis virus in feline vaccinations?

    <p>Once every 3 years after the initial dose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age should the initial vaccination for the Calicivirus (MLV) be administered to kittens?

    <p>6-8 weeks of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes how the Calicivirus (killed) vaccine should be administered to adult cats?

    <p>Two doses are given 3-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are modified live virus (MLV) vaccines not suitable for pregnant queens?

    <p>They may cause fetal abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the suggested revaccination schedule for the Calicivirus (MLV) after the primary immunization in cats?

    <p>Once every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of administering a one-year booster for the Rhinotracheitis virus vaccine?

    <p>To maintain long-term immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many total doses are required for the initial vaccination series of the Rhinotracheitis virus?

    <p>Two doses spaced 3-4 weeks apart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common comment made regarding the administration of Calicivirus (killed) vaccine?

    <p>It is considered core vaccination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if a heartworm test is weakly positive?

    <p>Wait for 1 to 3 months before retesting.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential consequence of breaking a heartworm during surgical removal?

    <p>It may lead to acute anaphylactic reactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If an adult cat is asymptomatic for heartworm disease, what is the most appropriate action?

    <p>Do nothing and continue preventative measures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of heartworm disease in cats, what percentage of cats receiving adulticide therapy may experience serious side effects?

    <p>30%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor may lead to false-positive results if testing occurs prior to 100 days post-infection?

    <p>Persistent circulating antigen presence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When deciding on adulticide therapy for heartworm, what is a key consideration based on female drug-resistant worms?

    <p>Wait 6 to 12 months before starting therapy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant challenge related to the timing of heartworm treatment and retesting?

    <p>Antigen testing is only valid after 100 days.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred method of administering adulticide therapy for treating heartworm disease?

    <p>Three injections spaced out over several weeks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Canine and Feline Vaccinations

    • Initial Kitten Vaccination - Rhinotracheitis virus (killed), parenteral: Administer at 8-10 weeks of age, repeat in 3-4 weeks
    • Initial Adult Cat Vaccination - Rhinotracheitis virus (killed), parenteral: Two doses 3-4 weeks apart
    • Revaccination - Rhinotracheitis virus (killed), parenteral: One-year booster after primary vaccinations, then revaccination once every 3 years considered protective
    • Initial Kitten Vaccination - Calicivirus (MLV, killed), parenteral: Administer at 6-8 weeks of age, then every 3-4 weeks until 12 weeks old
    • Initial Adult Cat Vaccination - Calicivirus (MLV, killed), parenteral: Two doses 3-4 weeks apart
    • Revaccination - Calicivirus (MLV, killed), parenteral: One-year booster after primary vaccinations, then revaccination once every 3 years considered protective
    • Initial Kitten Vaccination - Calicivirus (MLV), intrasural: Administer at 6-8 weeks of age, then every 3-4 weeks until 12 weeks old
    • Initial Adult Cat Vaccination - Calicivirus (MLV), intrasural: One dose
    • Revaccination - Calicivirus (MLV), intrasural: One-year booster after primary vaccinations, then revaccination once every 3 years considered protective

    Heartworm and Flea Preventives

    • Canine Filaribits - Treats heartworm
    • Canine Filaribits Plus - Treats heartworm, roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, and ear mites
    • Canine Heartgard (6 wk) - Treats heartworm
    • Canine Heartgard Plus (6 wk) - Treats heartworm, roundworms, and hookworms
    • Canine Interceptor (4 wk) - Treats heartworm, roundworms, hookworms, and whipworms
    • Canine Sentinel (4 wk) - Treats heartworm, fleas, roundworms, hookworms, and whipworms
    • Canine Revolution (6 wk) - Treats heartworm, fleas, ticks, and mosquitos
    • Canine Iverheart (6 wk) - Treats heartworm, roundworms, and hookworms
    • Canine Tri-Heart Plus (6 wk) - Treats heartworm, roundworms, and hookworms
    • Heartgard for Cats (6 wk) - Treats heartworm
    • Feline Interceptor (6 wk) - Treats heartworm, roundworms, and hookworms
    • Feline Revolution (8 wk) - Treats heartworm, fleas, ear mites, ticks, roundworms, and hookworms
    • Canine Frontline Top Spot (10 wk) - Treats fleas and ticks
    • Feline Frontline Top Spot (8 wk) - Treats fleas and ticks
    • Canine, Feline Frontline Plus (8 wk) - Treats fleas and ticks
    • Advantage (7 wk dog, 8 wk cat) - Treats fleas
    • Canine Advantix (4 wk dog, 6 wk cat) - Treats fleas, ticks, and mosquitos
    • Program (4 wk dog, 6 wk cat) - Treats fleas
    • Capstar (4 wk) - Treats fleas

    Flea Preventative Products

    • Frontline Top Spot (fipronil) - Treats all life stages of the flea, may be applied on dogs and cats as early as 8 weeks of age
    • Frontline Plus (fipronil, methoprene) - Treats all life stages of the flea, methoprene is an insect growth regulator, may be applied on dogs and cats as early as 8 weeks of age
    • Advantage (imidacloprid) - Flea preventative only, water resistant, topical application to skin in one location on the cat or a dog weighing 20 lb or less
    • Advantix (imidacloprid, pyrethrin) - Flea and tick adulticide, mosquito repellant, water resistant, only for use in dogs, toxic to cats
    • Program (lufenuron) - Inhibits development of chitin, main component of the flea's exoskeleton, does not kill adult fleas, comes in flavor tabs for dogs and cats, suspension for cats, 6-month subcutaneous injectable for cats, approved for pregnant or nursing dogs and cats
    • Capstar (nitenpyram) - Kills adult fleas by attacking the CNS, can dose as often as once daily, begins working within 30 minutes, application lasts one day, safe for pregnant or lactating bitches and queens, may be used with other products including heartworm preventatives, corticosteroids, antibiotics, vaccines, deworming medications, shampoos, and other flea products, does not have an effect on fleas in the pet's environment

    Heartworm Treatment

    • Immiticide (melarsomine) - Arsenical, less hepatotoxic and improved efficacy against both sexes of adult worms, soreness and mild swelling may occur at injection site for a few days, exercise restriction is essential for minimizing cardiopulmonary complications, two treatment options:
      • Two deep injections administered intramuscularly (IM), alternating sites, given 24 hours apart
      • Give one deep injection IM, wait and rest dog for 30 days, then give two deep injections IM
    • Heartgard (ivermectin) - Must dose 4 to 5 higher than preventative dose for microfilaricidal use

    Diagnostic Workup for Heartworm Disease

    • Packed cell volume (PCV)/Total solids (TS) - Contraindications: Hepatic failure, nephrotic syndrome, advanced renal failure, right-sided CHF, and azotemia or any life-threatening disorder
    • Microfilaria Testing - Direct smear assessing fresh blood for movement, Movement beneath buffy coat in spun hematocrit tube, Concentration techniques: Millipore filtration test, modified Knott test, Circulating microfilaria found less than 20% of the time in cats; if microfilaria present in the cat, will only last in circulation for up to 1 month
    • Antibody Testing (Table 23-3) - Detect both male and female L4 larval stage, Antibody testing only available for cats, Indicates exposure, current or past, Does not indicate whether L4 will develop into heartworm infection
    • Minimum Database - PCV/TS, occult heartworm test, microfilarial concentration test

    Feline Vaccination Protocols

    • The American Association of Feline Practitioners and the Academy of Feline Medicine have established core vaccine recommendations
    • Vaccines against panleukopenia, rhinotracheitis, and calicivirus are considered core vaccines for cats
    • Vaccines against feline leukemia virus are also considered core vaccines if the cat spends time outdoors or interacts with outside cats
    • Non-core vaccines for cats include chlamydiosis, feline infectious peritonitis, Microsporum canis, bordetellosis, giardia and feline immunodeficiency virus

    Canine Vaccination Protocols

    • Non-core vaccines for dogs include parainfluenza, Bordetella, coronavirus, Lyme, and Giardia
    • Leptospirosis may be considered a core vaccine or non-core vaccine based on geographic location and exposure risk

    Heartworm Disease

    • Heartworm disease is the most common cause of pulmonary hypertension (cor pulmonale) in dogs and is increasingly recognized in cats
    • The disease has been documented in all 50 United States
    • The American Heartworm Society recommends yearly testing even if preventative medication is given year-round, especially if there is a possibility of missing one dose
    • The American Heartworm Society recommends using adult heartworm antigen tests as the primary screening method

    Heartworm Diagnostic Testing

    • Microfilaria testing methods include direct smear, buffy coat evaluation, concentration techniques (Millipore filtration and modified Knott test)
    • Circulating microfilaria is found less than 20% of the time in cats
    • Antibody testing can detect both male and female L4 larval stages and indicates exposure, current or past, but it cannot confirm whether L4 will develop into heartworm infection
    • Antibody testing is only available for cats

    Minimum Cardiac Workup for Diagnosis

    • A packed cell volume (PCV) of 30% or less is considered the cutoff for classifying as class 2
    • Anemia can be absent, mild, or moderate depending on the chronicity and severity of the disease
    • Azotemia may occur in complicated infections
    • Prerenal azotemia can be due to dehydration or right-sided congestive heart failure
    • Primary azotemia can result from glomerulopathies, including immune complex disease and amyloidosis
    • Urinalysis can show proteinuria due to antigen-antibody complex deposition

    Heartworm Treatment

    • Exercise restriction and adulticide are necessary
    • Immiticide (melarsomine) is an arsenical drug that is less hepatotoxic and has improved efficacy against both sexes of adult worms
    • Heartgard (ivermectin) is a preventative measure against late precardiac larva and young adult heartworms
    • Ivermectin's adulticide effect may require longer than a year, up to 2 years, to fully eliminate adult worms
    • Immiticide requires two deep injections administered intramuscularly, 24 hours apart, or a single deep injection followed by two subsequent injections 30 days later

    Heartworm Disease Pathophysiology

    • Adults worms primarily reside in the pulmonary arteries, particularly the caudal and intermediate lung lobes
    • The adult worm burden increases and can migrate to the heart and even into the caudal vena cava
    • The interaction between endothelial cells and worms causes changes in the pulmonary arteries, mainly in the caudal and accessory lobar arteries
    • Pulmonary edema occurs due to changes within the pulmonary arteries
    • Dead worms incite a more intense host response
    • Worm fragments and thrombi cause embolization which worsens pulmonary disease
    • Vessels become tortuous and proximally dilated as the increased pulmonary vascular resistance demands higher perfusion pressures
    • Right-sided heart disease develops from these changes
    • Chronic hepatic congestion is a secondary condition

    ### Flea and Tick Control

    •  Program (lufenuron) is a chitin synthesis inhibitor that prevents flea development
    • Program does not kill adult fleas
    • Program is available as flavor tabs for cats and dogs, a suspension for cats, and a 6-month subcutaneous injection for cats
    • Program is approved for pregnant or nursing dogs and cats
    • Capstar (nitenpyram) is a flea adulticide that affects the central nervous system
    • Capstar can be dosed as often as once daily and starts working within 30 minutes
    • Capstar lasts for one day and is safe for pregnant or lactating animals
    • Capstar can be used with other products including heartworm preventatives, corticosteroids, antibiotics, vaccines, deworming medications, shampoos and other flea products
    • Treatment with Capstar should be administered once weekly until fleas are not observed and twice weekly for severe infestations
    • Capstar should not be administered to dogs or cats that weigh less than 2 lb
    • For dogs of 2-25lb and cats of 2-25lb, administer 11.4mg
    • For dogs of 25.1-125lb, administer 57mg

    Feline Vaccinations

    • Vaccines used in cats contain antigens limited to rhinotracheitis-calicivirus-chlamydia-panleukopenia (RCCP).
    • RCCP vaccines are administered subcutaneously on the right shoulder.
    • A vaccine containing rabies virus antigen is administered on the right hindlimb as distally as possible.

    Canine Vaccinations

    • Distemper, rabies, and adenovirus-1, are core vaccinations.
    • Bordetella, parvovirus, coronavirus, leptospirosis, and Lyme are non-core vaccines.
    • Core vaccination recommendations for puppies:
      • Distemper: Two doses 3-4 weeks apart, booster at 15 months, then every 3 years
        • Can be administered as early as 6-8 weeks old
      • Adenvirus-1: Administer 1 week of age, then repeat at 12 weeks
      • Rabies: Administer as early as 12 weeks of age, booster annually (1-year vaccine) or every 3 years (3-year vaccine)
    • Core vaccination recommendations for adult dogs:
      • Distemper: Two doses 3-4 weeks apart, booster at 15 months, then every 3 years
      • Rabies: One dose, annual booster (1-year vaccine) or booster one year following initial vaccine, then every 3 years (3-year vaccine)

    Flea Preventative

    • Frontline Plus (fipronil, methoprene):
      • Treats all life stages of the flea
      • Methoprene is an insect growth regulator
    • Advantage (imidacloprid):
      • Water resistant
      • Treats fleas only
      • Absorbed externally in the sebaceous glands surrounding the hair follicles
    • Advantix (imidacloprid, pyrethrin):
      • Water resistant
      • Treats fleas and ticks

    Heartworm Preventatives

    • Heartworm preventatives kill backwards in time.
    • Ivermectin, milbemycin oxime, moxidectin, and selamectin kill L3 and L4 up to 60 days back in time.
    • Ivermectin (Heartgard) is a continuous monthly administration of prophylactic doses highly effective against late precardiac larvae and young adult heartworms.

    Heartworm Disease

    • The most common cause of pulmonary hypertension (cor pulmonale) in dogs
    • Adult worms live in pulmonary arteries.
    • As worm burden increases, some worms move into the heart and caudal vena cava.
    • Chronic hepatic congestion can occur due to heart failure.
    • Pulmonary hypertension can lead to right-sided heart disease.

    Treating Heartworm Disease

    • Surgical removal of heartworms is not recommended.
    • Adulticide therapy can lead to a life-threatening crisis within 3 weeks in cats.
    • Recommendations vary depending on the stage of disease

    Diagnosing Heartworm

    • Immunoassays detect circulating heartworm antigen.
    • Tests can detect at least three adult female worms.
    • Microfilaria tests measure the number of circulating microscopic larvae.
    • Microfilaria tests are more sensitive than antigen tests.
    • False-positive test results can occur due to the presence of persistent circulating antigen.

    Key Points

    • Heartworm disease is a serious condition and treatment is often lengthy and expensive.
    • Preventative medication is a vital tool in protecting your dog from heartworm disease.
    • Consult your veterinarian for tailored advice and treatment options for your pet.

    Canine and Feline Vaccinations

    • Canine Core Vaccines: Distemper, parvovirus, adenovirus-2, and rabies
    • Canine Non-Core Vaccines: Canine parainfluenza virus, Leptospira interrogans (canicola, icterohaemorrhagiae), Bordetella bronchiseptica
    • Feline Core Vaccines: Leukemia virus (live canarypox vector or killed), rabies
    • Feline Non-Core Vaccines: Chlamydia psittaci, Feline infectious peritonitis

    Heartworm Disease (Dirofilaria immitis)

    • Diagnostic Testing: The American Heartworm Society (AHS) recommends yearly heartworm testing even if preventative is given year-round.
    • AHS Recommendations: AHS currently recommends that adult heartworm antigen tests be used as the primary method of screening.
    • Clinical Signs: Coughing, difficulty breathing, weight loss, lethargy, exercise intolerance
    • Diagnosis: Heartworm antigen test, microfilaria test, radiographs, echocardiogram 预防医学章节

    预防措施

    • 疫苗接种是预防医学实践的重要组成部分，为动物提供最佳的健康护理。
    • 疫苗接种本身是一种有效的医疗程序，与已知的益处和风险相关。 了解这些益处和风险对于实施有效的个人接种方案至关重要。
    • 应考虑暴露、易感性、疾病的严重程度、疫苗的有效性和安全性、潜在的公共卫生问题以及所有者的偏好。
    • 疫苗接种对我们伴侣动物的福祉做出了巨大贡献。 自第一批疫苗问世以来，患有传染病的患者数量显著减少。

    犬类和猫类接种

    • 犬类核心疫苗 犬瘟热、细小病毒、腺病毒 2 和狂犬病
    • 犬类非核心疫苗 犬副流感病毒、钩端螺旋体（犬型感染）、支气管败血杆菌
    • 猫类核心疫苗 白血病病毒（活的鸡痘病毒载体或灭活的）、狂犬病
    • 猫类非核心疫苗 鹦鹉热衣原体、猫传染性腹膜炎

    蠕虫病（犬心丝虫病）

    • 诊断测试 美国心脏虫协会（AHS）建议每年进行心脏虫检测，即使全年使用预防治疗。
    • AHS 建议 AHS 目前建议使用成虫心脏虫抗原检测作为筛查的主要方法。
    • 临床症状 咳嗽、呼吸困难、体重下降、嗜睡、运动耐受力下降
    • 诊断 心脏虫抗原检测、微丝蚴检测、X 射线、超声心动图

    Canine Vaccinations

    • Canine adenovirus-2 (CAV-2) modified live virus (MLV) vaccine is recommended for core vaccination.
    • CAV-2 MLV vaccine is administered at 6-8 weeks of age, with two doses 3-4 weeks apart.
    • A booster dose is given at 15 months of age.
    • Revaccination is recommended every 3 years.
    • Killed CAV-2 vaccine is not recommended and less effective.
    • Canine parvovirus (CPV) MLV vaccine is recommended for core vaccination.
    • CPV MLV vaccine is administered at 6-8 weeks of age, with two doses 3-4 weeks apart.
    • Booster dose is given at 15 months of age.
    • Revaccination every 3 years is recommended.
    • Killed CPV vaccine is not recommended and should be administered 1 week of age and then repeated at 12 weeks.
    • Canine coronavirus (CCV) killed vaccine is not recommended as clinical disease is rarely seen, typically self-limiting.
    • Rabies vaccine is recommended for core vaccination.
    • One-year rabies vaccine is administered at 12 weeks of age.
    • Three-year rabies vaccine is administered at 12 weeks of age.
    • Annual booster doses are required for one-year rabies vaccine.
    • Revaccination one year following the initial vaccine for the three-year rabies vaccine, followed by booster doses every 3 years.

    Feline Vaccinations

    • Bordetella bronchiseptica MLV vaccine is not recommended as its primarily an issue in very young kittens..
    • Giardia lamblia killed parental vaccine is not recommended.
    • Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) vaccine is not recommended.

    Heartworm Medication in Dogs

    • Heartgard (ivermectin) - available in flavored and non-flavored, microfilaricidal at 5x the dose, kills L3, early L4 and some L1 at the preventative dose, available in sizes for 0-25 lb, 26-50 lb, and 51-100 lb dogs.
    • Heartgard Plus (ivermectin, pyrantel) - beef flavored, controls roundworm and hookworm infections, available in sizes for 0-25 lb, 26-50 lb, and 51-100 lb dogs.
    • Interceptor (milbemycin oxime) - beef flavored, microfilaricidal at the preventative dose, can be used in cats too, kills L3, early L4 and L1, sizes for dogs: 2.3 mg (0-10 lb), 5.75 mg (11-25 lb), 11.5 mg (26-50 lb), 23 mg (51-100 lb), sizes for cats: 5.75 mg (1.5-6 lb), 11.5 mg (6.1-12 lb), 23 mg (12.1-25 lb).
    • Sentinel (milbemycin, lufenuron) - combines Interceptor and MLV, available in a parenteral and intranasal form.

    Heartworm Medication in Cats

    • Heartgard Chewable for Cats (ivermectin) - flavored, controls hookworm infestations, available in sizes of 55 mcg (0-5 lb), 165 mcg (5-15 lb).
    • Ivomec (liquid ivermectin) - off label use in small animals except for ferrets.
    • Iverheart (ivermectin, pyrantel) - generic Heartgard Plus.
    • Tri-Heart (ivermectin, pyrantel) - generic Heartgard Plus.
    • Ivomec (liquid ivermectin) - off-label use in small animals except for ferrets, for ferrets, combine 0.1 mL of Ivomec with 0.9 mL propylene glycol, administer 0.1 mL monthly for protection.

    Flea Preventatives

    • Frontline Top Spot (fipronil) - not for pregnant queens, administer after primary vaccines then every 3-4 weeks until 12 weeks old, revaccination every 3 years considered protective.

    Heartworm Testing

    • Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and immunochromatographic test systems are available for detecting circulating heartworm antigen.
    • Improved accuracy of test kits.
    • Simplicity of use.

    Heartworm Infection in Dogs

    • Canines are very susceptible to infection, almost guaranteeing infection if exposed.
    • L3 to L6 development takes around 6 months.
    • Average adult worm count is 20-30.
    • Microfilaria present in 80-90% of cases.
    • Ectopic infections uncommon.
    • Testing methods include occult heartworm test, millipore filtration test, and modified Knott's test.
    • Infection lasts 5-7 years.
    • Clinical signs include asymptomatic cases, coughing, exercise intolerance, dyspnea, signs of congestive heart failure.
    • Organ of greatest pathology is lungs and heart.

    Heartworm Infection in Cats

    • 61-90% of cats exposed become infected.
    • L3 to L6 development takes around 7-8 months.
    • Average adult worm count is 1-3.
    • Microfilaria present in 20% of cases, only lasting 1 month in circulation.
    • Ectopic infections are common.
    • Testing involves antibody testing and occult heartworm test.
    • Infection lasts 2-3 years.
    • Clinical signs include asymptomatic cases, coughing, signs of congestive heart failure, vomiting, diarrhea, neurologic signs, sudden death.
    • Cats spontaneously resolve infections.
    • Organ of the greatest pathology is lungs.

    Heartworm Treatment

    • Surgical removal is not recommended because of anaphylactic risk.
    • Adulticide treatment is an option, however, 30% of cats receiving this treatment experience a life-threatening crisis within 3 weeks.

    Heartworm Disease in Cats

    • If asymptomatic, no action is needed, begin or continue heartworm preventative.
    • If clinical signs develop, treatment is based on clinical signs.

    Pathophysiology of Dirofilarial Heartworm Disease

    • The most common cause of pulmonary hypertension in dogs, increasingly recognized in cats.
    • Adult heartworms live in pulmonary arteries, as the burden increases, some worms move into the heart, even entering the caudal vena cava.
    • Endothelial cell and worm interaction causes changes in pulmonary arteries, most severe in accessory and caudal lobar arteries.
    • Leads to pulmonary edema.
    • Dead worms cause an intense host response.
    • Worm fragments and thrombi cause embolization, worsening pulmonary disease.
    • Vessels become tortuous and proximally dilated, causing increased pulmonary vascular resistance, requiring higher perfusion pressures.
    • Leads to right-sided heart disease.
    • Chronic hepatic congestion secondary to heart disease.

    Classification of Heartworm Infection

    • Class 1 (Mild) - no clinical signs OR occasional cough, fatigue on exercise, mild loss of condition. No radiographic or clinicopathologic abnormalities.
    • Class 2 (Moderate) - no clinical signs OR occasional cough, fatigue on exercise, mild to moderate loss of condition. Right ventricular enlargement and/or pulmonary artery enlargement, perivascular and mixed alveolar or interstitial opacities. Mild anemia (PCV 20-30%), proteinuria (2+ on dipstick).
    • Class 3 (Severe) - general loss of condition or cachexia, fatigue on exercise or mild activity, occasional or persistent cough, dyspnea, right-sided heart failure. Right ventricular atrial enlargement, moderate to severe pulmonary artery enlargement, perivascular or diffuse mixed alveolar/interstitial opacities, evidence of thromboembolism. Anemia (PCV 30%), proteinuria (2+ on dipstick).
    • Class 4 (Very Severe) - caval syndrome.

    Treatment and Management of Heartworm Disease

    • Ivermectin (Heartgard) effectively prevents late precardiac larvae and young adult heartworms, exercise restriction is still required, continuous monthly administration is highly effective.
    • Adulticidal effect of Ivermectin may take longer than 1 year.
    • If tested prior to 100 days, false positives may occur due to persistent circulating antigen presence.
    • If positive, decide to repeat adulticidal therapy or wait 6-12 months, based on the possibility of young female drug-resistant worms being present.
    • If weakly positive, repeat testing in 1-3 months.

    Choosing Treatment Options

    • History of heartworm exposure and/or previous Positive test.

    • Physical examination.

    • Thoracic radiographs

    • Packed cell volume (PCV)

    • Total Solids (TS)

    • Chemistry profile

    • Urinalysis

    • Three-injection alternative is the preferred treatment of choice for the AHS, many universities, and private practitioners, regardless of disease stage.

    Heartworm Prevention and Treatment

    • Heartgard (ivermectin):

      • Available in non-flavored and flavored forms
      • Non-flavored form can be used with food trials
      • Microfilaricidal at 5 times the preventative dose
      • Kills L3, early L4, and some L1 at the preventative dose
      • Available in sizes for dogs weighing 0-25 lb, 26-50 lb, and 51-100 lb
      • Time-release mechanism provides protection for 6 or 12 months

    • Heartgard Chewable for Cats (ivermectin):

      • Flavored (not for food trials)
      • Controls hookworm infestations
      • Available in sizes for cats weighing 0-5 lb and 5-15 lb

    • Heartgard Plus (ivermectin, pyrantel):

      • Beef flavored (not for food trials)
      • Helps control roundworm and hookworm infections
      • Available in sizes for dogs weighing 0-25 lb, 26-50 lb, and 51-100 lb

    • Interceptor (milbemycin oxime):

      • Beef flavored (not for food trials)
      • Microfilaricidal at the preventative dose
      • Can be used in cats (same packaging)
      • Kills L3, early L4, and L1
      • Available in sizes for dogs weighing 0-10 lb, 11-25 lb, 26-50 lb, and 51-100 lb
      • Available in sizes for cats weighing 1.5-6 lb, 6.1-12 lb, and 12.1-25 lb

    • Sentinel (milbemycin, lufenuron):

      • Combination product of Interceptor and a routine part of animal care
      • Offers protection against intestinal and external parasites

    Heartworm Treatment

    • Immiticide (melarsomine):

      • Arsenical drug used to treat adult heartworms
      • Less hepatotoxic and improved efficacy against both sexes of adult worms
      • May cause soreness and mild swelling at the injection site for a few days
      • Exercise restriction is essential to minimize cardiopulmonary complications
      • Two treatment options available:
        • Two deep intramuscular injections given 24 hours apart
        • One deep intramuscular injection followed by two deep intramuscular injections 30 days later

    • Ivermectin (Heartgard):

      • Must be dosed 4-5 times higher than the preventative dose for microfilaricidal use
      • Can cause systemic side effects if not dosed correctly

    Heartworm Testing

    • Antigen Tests:

      • Detect circulating heartworm antigen from adult female reproductive tract
      • Consistently detect at least three adult female worms
      • Weak positive test results may need to be rechecked

    • Microfilaria Tests:

      • Direct smear assessing fresh blood for movement
      • Movement beneath buffy coat in a spun hematocrit tube
      • Concentration techniques: Millipore filtration test, modified Knott test
      • Circulating microfilaria found less than 20% of the time in cats
      • If microfilaria are present in a cat, they will only last in circulation for up to 1 month

    • Antibody Tests:

      • Detect both male and female L4 larval stage
      • Available only for cats
      • Indicate exposure to heartworm, current or past
      • Do not indicate whether L4 will develop into a heartworm infection

    Flea Preventative

    • Frontline Top Spot (fipronil):

      • Topical application to the skin
      • Absorbed externally in the sebaceous glands surrounding the hair follicles
      • Treats for adult fleas, ticks, and chewing lice
      • May be used on breeding, pregnant, or lactating bitches or queens
      • Apply at 10 weeks of age for dogs; provides protection against fleas for up to 90 days and ticks for up to 30 days
      • Apply at 12 weeks of age for cats; provides protection against fleas for up to 6 weeks and ticks for up to 30 days

    • Frontline Plus (fipronil, methoprene):

      • Treats all life stages of the flea
      • Methoprene is an insect growth regulator
      • Same factors as Frontline Top Spot apply, except may be applied on dogs and cats as early as 8 weeks of age

    • Advantage (imidacloprid):

      • Water resistant
      • Flea preventative only
      • Topical application to the skin in one location on the cat or a dog weighing 20 lb or less
      • For animals larger than 20 lb, apply evenly to three or four sites on the top of the back from the shoulder to the base of the tail
      • Imidacloprid attacks the flea’s CNS
      • Absorbed externally in the sebaceous glands surrounding the hair follicles
      • Do not treat more than once weekly
      • May be applied as early as 8 weeks of age in both dogs and cats

    • Advantix (imidacloprid, pyrethrin):

      • Water resistant
      • Flea and tick adulticide, mosquito repellant
      • Only for use in dogs, toxic to cats

    • Program (lufenuron):

      • Inhibits development of chitin, the main component of the flea's exoskeleton
      • Does not kill adult fleas
      • Available in flavor tabs for dogs and cats, suspension for cats, and a 6-month subcutaneous injectable for cats
      • Approved for pregnant or nursing dogs and cats

    • Capstar (nitenpyram):

      • Kills adult fleas by attacking the CNS
      • Can be dosed as often as once daily
      • Begins working within 30 minutes
      • Lasts for one day
      • Safe for pregnant or lactating bitches and queens
      • May be used with other products, including heartworm preventatives, corticosteroids, antibiotics, vaccines, deworming medications, shampoos, and other flea products
      • Does not have an effect on fleas in the pet's environment

    Canine Vaccines

    • Administer Canine Coronavirus (killed and MLV) vaccine parenterally at 12 weeks of age and repeat at 12 weeks of age
    • Clinical disease with Canine Coronavirus is rarely seen and typically self-limiting.
    • Administer Rabies vaccine (killed) at 12 weeks of age, then annually.
    • Administer Rabies vaccine (killed) at 12 weeks of age, then a single booster 1 year after the initial vaccine, then repeat every 3 years.
    • Administer Borrelia burgdorferi (killed whole bacterin) at 9-12 weeks of age, administer two doses 2-4 weeks apart, then annually.
    • Administer Borrelia burgdorferi(recombinant-outer surface protein A) at 9-12 weeks of age, administer two doses 2-4 weeks apart, then annually.
    • Administer Giardia lamblia (killed) at 8 weeks of age, administer two doses 2-4 weeks apart, and repeat in 2 - 4 weeks.
    • Giardia lamblia vaccine is not recommended since it does not prevent infection, only decreases the severity of disease.

    Feline Vaccines

    • Administer Panleukopenia (MLV, killed) vaccine parenterally at 6-8 weeks of age, administer two doses 3-4 weeks apart, then annually.
    • Administer Panleukopenia (MLV, killed) vaccine intranasally at 6-8 weeks of age, administer one dose, then annually.
    • Administer Rhinotracheitis virus (MLV) vaccine parenterally or intranasally at 6-8 weeks of age, administer one dose, then annually.
    • Administer Rhinotracheitis virus (killed) vaccine parenterally at 8-10 weeks of age, administer two doses 3-4 weeks apart, then annually.
    • Administer Calicivirus (MLV, killed) vaccine parenterally at 6-8 weeks of age, administer two doses 3-4 weeks apart, then annually.
    • Administer Calicivirus (MLV) vaccine intranasally at 6-8 weeks of age, administer one dose, then annually.

    Heartworm Prevention In Dogs

    • Administer heartworm preventative medication year-round.
    • Administer a heartworm preventative with activity against microfilaria and adult worms.
    • Administer a heartworm preventative with activity against microfilaria, adult worms, and ticks.
    • Administer a heartworm preventative with activity against microfilara, adult worms, fleas, and ticks.
    • Avoid heartworm prevention products that are only effective against microfilaria.
    • Heartworm prevention should be prescribed by a veterinarian.
    • Administer heartworm preventative medication 1 month before the first frost.

    Heartworm Diagnosis In Dogs

    • The gold standard for heartworm diagnosis is an adult worm antigen test.
    • Microfilaria tests are more sensitive than adult worm antigen tests but have false-positive results.
    • If the adult worm antigen test is positive, repeat the test to confirm.
    • Treatment for heartworm positive dogs depends on the stage of disease and the patient's health.
    • Adult worm antigen tests should be performed annually.
    • Perform a microfilaria test if the adult worm antigen test is questionable.

    Treatment of Heartworm In Dogs

    • Treatment of heartworm depends on stage of disease and patient health.
    • The "3-injection alternative" is the treatment of choice for heartworm positive dogs.
    • Treatment often includes adulticide therapy, antibiotics, and corticosteroids.

    Heartworm Prevention In Cats

    • Administer a heartworm preventative with activity against adult worms and microfilaria.
    • Administer heartworm preventative year-round.
    • Do not treat heartworm positive cats
    • Surgery to remove heartworms in cats is risky and should only be performed in the most extreme cases.
    • Administer heartworm preventative with activity against microfilara, adult worms, fleas, and ticks.
    • Cats are sensitive to certain heartworm preventatives, consult your veterinarian for more information.

    Heartworm Diagnosis In Cats

    • Diagnosing heartworm in cats is challenging.
    • Adult worm antigen tests are often inaccurate.
    • Immunoassays are used to detect circulating heartworm antigen from adult female reproductive tract.
    • Microfilaria tests are more sensitive than adult worm antigen tests but have false-positive results.
    • If a heartworm infection is suspected, consult your veterinarian.

    Treatment of Heartworm In Cats

    • Treatment of heartworm depends on stage of disease and patient health.
    • Do not break a heartworm during surgical removal because it can cause an anaphylactic reaction.
    • Treatment of heartworm in cats is risky and is often unsuccessful.
    • Do not administer adulticide therapy to heartworm-positive cats

    Flea and Tick Control

    • Apply a topical flea and tick preventative to the skin.
    • Administer an oral flea and tick preventative.
    • Certain treatments for fleas and ticks are not safe for cats.
    • Consult your veterinarian for more information on how to prevent fleas and ticks on your pet.
    • Some flea and tick preventatives have activity against heartworms as well.
    • Flea and tick prevention is important to protect your pet and yourself from diseases.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Related Documents

    Preventive Medicine PDF

    Description

    This quiz covers essential information on vaccinations for both kittens and adult cats. It includes details on specific vaccines, administration schedules, and revaccination protocols. Test your knowledge on feline vaccination practices and keep your pets healthy.

    More Like This

    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Open
    Browser
    Browser