Podcast
Questions and Answers
What does Wolff’s law state regarding bone tissue?
What does Wolff’s law state regarding bone tissue?
- Bones are only resorbed and not deposited.
- Bone strength remains constant regardless of mechanical stress.
- Bone does not respond to mechanical forces.
- Bone is deposited where it is required and resorbed where it is not. (correct)
Reduced mechanical stress on bones can lead to increased bone strength.
Reduced mechanical stress on bones can lead to increased bone strength.
False (B)
What is the primary consequence of the presence of a rigid implant after a fracture has healed?
What is the primary consequence of the presence of a rigid implant after a fracture has healed?
Bone atrophy and reduced strength.
The distal radial physis is particularly susceptible to __________ injury.
The distal radial physis is particularly susceptible to __________ injury.
Which of the following responses is NOT a basic cellular response of bone tissue?
Which of the following responses is NOT a basic cellular response of bone tissue?
Match the following terms with their correct definitions:
Match the following terms with their correct definitions:
Slipped epiphysis is a term used for complete separation through the growth plate.
Slipped epiphysis is a term used for complete separation through the growth plate.
What is the prognosis for a complete separation through the growth plate if the epiphyseal vasculature remains intact?
What is the prognosis for a complete separation through the growth plate if the epiphyseal vasculature remains intact?
What occurs when fracture ends are perfectly aligned and rigidly immobilized?
What occurs when fracture ends are perfectly aligned and rigidly immobilized?
Rigid fracture repair promotes contact healing.
Rigid fracture repair promotes contact healing.
Name the three common causes of impaired fracture repair.
Name the three common causes of impaired fracture repair.
The absence of _____ at the fracture site can lead to impaired healing.
The absence of _____ at the fracture site can lead to impaired healing.
Match the following terms with their definitions:
Match the following terms with their definitions:
What type of bone repair involves resorption canals being formed by osteoclasts?
What type of bone repair involves resorption canals being formed by osteoclasts?
Pseudoarthrosis can develop from excessive movement between bone ends.
Pseudoarthrosis can develop from excessive movement between bone ends.
What is the primary goal of the reparative phase in fracture healing?
What is the primary goal of the reparative phase in fracture healing?
The _____ type of chondrodysplasia in cattle often results in severe skeletal abnormalities.
The _____ type of chondrodysplasia in cattle often results in severe skeletal abnormalities.
What condition is characterized by abnormal curvature of the spinal column ventrally?
What condition is characterized by abnormal curvature of the spinal column ventrally?
Chondrodysplasias result in proportionate dwarfism.
Chondrodysplasias result in proportionate dwarfism.
What major factor can interfere with new bone formation during fracture healing?
What major factor can interfere with new bone formation during fracture healing?
_____ is a common hereditary chondrodysplasia in sheep.
_____ is a common hereditary chondrodysplasia in sheep.
What impact do corticosteroids have on fracture healing?
What impact do corticosteroids have on fracture healing?
Which condition may result from slipped epiphysis of the femoral head?
Which condition may result from slipped epiphysis of the femoral head?
Lead to formation of a bony bridge between the metaphysis and epiphysis can occur if fractures cross the physis with displacement of fragments.
Lead to formation of a bony bridge between the metaphysis and epiphysis can occur if fractures cross the physis with displacement of fragments.
What type of fracture is characterized by extension along the physis and out through the metaphysis?
What type of fracture is characterized by extension along the physis and out through the metaphysis?
A common cause of limb deformity in dogs is ________ of the distal ulna physis.
A common cause of limb deformity in dogs is ________ of the distal ulna physis.
Match the following types of fractures with their characteristics:
Match the following types of fractures with their characteristics:
What is often the first event in uncomplicated fracture repair?
What is often the first event in uncomplicated fracture repair?
Crushing injuries predominantly affect the metaphysis.
Crushing injuries predominantly affect the metaphysis.
Which forces can lead to angular limb deformities?
Which forces can lead to angular limb deformities?
In adults, residual changes at the fracture site, such as ______, may persist after healing.
In adults, residual changes at the fracture site, such as ______, may persist after healing.
What happens if the adjacent radius escapes injury after a fracture?
What happens if the adjacent radius escapes injury after a fracture?
The size of a fracture callus is inversely related to the movement between fractured bone ends.
The size of a fracture callus is inversely related to the movement between fractured bone ends.
What type of remodeling is more rapid in young animals than in adults?
What type of remodeling is more rapid in young animals than in adults?
The formation of ______ ultimately replaces the cartilage in the fracture callus during repair.
The formation of ______ ultimately replaces the cartilage in the fracture callus during repair.
Match the following types of deformities with their descriptions:
Match the following types of deformities with their descriptions:
What is a characteristic feature of spider lamb syndrome?
What is a characteristic feature of spider lamb syndrome?
Manganese deficiency in pregnant cows can lead to skeletal deformities in their calves.
Manganese deficiency in pregnant cows can lead to skeletal deformities in their calves.
What type of growth abnormality can severe malnutrition cause in bone growth?
What type of growth abnormality can severe malnutrition cause in bone growth?
Copper deficiency is associated with ___________ of collagen molecules which is important for bone strength.
Copper deficiency is associated with ___________ of collagen molecules which is important for bone strength.
Match the deficiency with its effect on bone health:
Match the deficiency with its effect on bone health:
Which of the following is a common facial deformity associated with spider lamb syndrome?
Which of the following is a common facial deformity associated with spider lamb syndrome?
Vitamin C deficiency is predominantly observed in species that can synthesize ascorbic acid.
Vitamin C deficiency is predominantly observed in species that can synthesize ascorbic acid.
What is a potential outcome of severe skeletal abnormality due to nutritional deficiency?
What is a potential outcome of severe skeletal abnormality due to nutritional deficiency?
Certain __________ agents can mimic genetic diseases in developing animals.
Certain __________ agents can mimic genetic diseases in developing animals.
Which nutrient deficiency is associated with osteochondrosis in deer?
Which nutrient deficiency is associated with osteochondrosis in deer?
Skeletal deformities due to zinc deficiency during gestation have been conclusively proven.
Skeletal deformities due to zinc deficiency during gestation have been conclusively proven.
What are growth arrest lines indicative of?
What are growth arrest lines indicative of?
Plant toxicities may influence skeletal __________ in young growing animals.
Plant toxicities may influence skeletal __________ in young growing animals.
Match the deficiency with the associated condition:
Match the deficiency with the associated condition:
What aspect of spider lamb syndrome typically develops within the first month of life?
What aspect of spider lamb syndrome typically develops within the first month of life?
Which of the following skeletal abnormalities are typically associated with consistent presentations due to genetic causes?
Which of the following skeletal abnormalities are typically associated with consistent presentations due to genetic causes?
Most cases of osteoporosis in animals are primarily caused by hormonal imbalances.
Most cases of osteoporosis in animals are primarily caused by hormonal imbalances.
What type of samples should be collected if a genetic aetiology is suspected in affected animals?
What type of samples should be collected if a genetic aetiology is suspected in affected animals?
Osteoporosis is characterized by a reduction in the ______ of bone, while the quality remains normal.
Osteoporosis is characterized by a reduction in the ______ of bone, while the quality remains normal.
Match the following metabolic bone diseases with their characteristics:
Match the following metabolic bone diseases with their characteristics:
What is a common outcome of starvation in young growing animals?
What is a common outcome of starvation in young growing animals?
Calcium deficiency is a common cause of osteoporosis in sheep and cattle.
Calcium deficiency is a common cause of osteoporosis in sheep and cattle.
What might be the first indication that an animal is suffering from osteoporosis?
What might be the first indication that an animal is suffering from osteoporosis?
The occurrence of fractures in farmed livestock may suggest increased bone ______.
The occurrence of fractures in farmed livestock may suggest increased bone ______.
Which nutrient deficiency is associated with osteoporosis in various animal species?
Which nutrient deficiency is associated with osteoporosis in various animal species?
Radiographic procedures are highly sensitive for detecting early stages of osteoporosis.
Radiographic procedures are highly sensitive for detecting early stages of osteoporosis.
What specific type of fracture is seen frequently in first calving dairy heifers in New Zealand?
What specific type of fracture is seen frequently in first calving dairy heifers in New Zealand?
_______ osteodystrophy is more likely to occur in rapidly growing pigs due to calcium deficiency.
_______ osteodystrophy is more likely to occur in rapidly growing pigs due to calcium deficiency.
Match the following animal conditions to their nutritional causes:
Match the following animal conditions to their nutritional causes:
What nutrient deficiencies are associated with disproportionate dwarfism in farm animals?
What nutrient deficiencies are associated with disproportionate dwarfism in farm animals?
Congenital skeletal abnormalities in farm animals are always caused by genetic factors.
Congenital skeletal abnormalities in farm animals are always caused by genetic factors.
What is one consequence of Cu deficiency in farm animals?
What is one consequence of Cu deficiency in farm animals?
A high incidence of skeletal disease in newborn animals often suggests a __________ aetiology.
A high incidence of skeletal disease in newborn animals often suggests a __________ aetiology.
Match the nutrient deficiency with its corresponding skeletal issue:
Match the nutrient deficiency with its corresponding skeletal issue:
Which situation may lead to a high percentage of skeletal deformities?
Which situation may lead to a high percentage of skeletal deformities?
Chondrodysplastic dwarfism can be confused with nutritional dwarfism.
Chondrodysplastic dwarfism can be confused with nutritional dwarfism.
What are the consequences of teratogenic virus infections during pregnancy?
What are the consequences of teratogenic virus infections during pregnancy?
Skeletal resilience should be evaluated for conditions like __________ and osteopetrosis.
Skeletal resilience should be evaluated for conditions like __________ and osteopetrosis.
Which of the following is an example of a skeletal disease with incomplete penetrance?
Which of the following is an example of a skeletal disease with incomplete penetrance?
Recessively inherited diseases affect 50% of the offspring of two heterozygous parents.
Recessively inherited diseases affect 50% of the offspring of two heterozygous parents.
In which part of the animal should the bone examination focus during post-mortem?
In which part of the animal should the bone examination focus during post-mortem?
A thorough __________ history is crucial to distinguishing genetic from non-genetic causes of skeletal abnormalities.
A thorough __________ history is crucial to distinguishing genetic from non-genetic causes of skeletal abnormalities.
What is a common outcome of exposure to teratogenic agents during early pregnancy?
What is a common outcome of exposure to teratogenic agents during early pregnancy?
Match the following conditions with their characteristics:
Match the following conditions with their characteristics:
Which of the following factors is NOT associated with osteoporosis in animals?
Which of the following factors is NOT associated with osteoporosis in animals?
Gastrointestinal parasitism is a well-known cause of osteoporosis in animals.
Gastrointestinal parasitism is a well-known cause of osteoporosis in animals.
What role do corticosteroids play in osteoporosis?
What role do corticosteroids play in osteoporosis?
Rickets occurs in _____ animals, while osteomalacia occurs only in _____ animals.
Rickets occurs in _____ animals, while osteomalacia occurs only in _____ animals.
Match the disease with its associated deficiency:
Match the disease with its associated deficiency:
What is a classic feature of rickets?
What is a classic feature of rickets?
Disuse osteoporosis is caused by increased weight-bearing activity.
Disuse osteoporosis is caused by increased weight-bearing activity.
Which animals are particularly susceptible to vitamin D deficiency?
Which animals are particularly susceptible to vitamin D deficiency?
Pathological fractures are commonly found in the _____ in human patients with osteoporosis.
Pathological fractures are commonly found in the _____ in human patients with osteoporosis.
Match the type of osteoporosis with its primary cause:
Match the type of osteoporosis with its primary cause:
What is the main reason for the occurrence of osteomalacia in adults?
What is the main reason for the occurrence of osteomalacia in adults?
Phosphorus deficiency is a common cause of rickets in animals grazing pastures low in phosphorus.
Phosphorus deficiency is a common cause of rickets in animals grazing pastures low in phosphorus.
What characterizes the gross lesions of osteoporosis?
What characterizes the gross lesions of osteoporosis?
Cancellous bone in the metaphyses and _____ of long bones may be reduced and more porous than normal.
Cancellous bone in the metaphyses and _____ of long bones may be reduced and more porous than normal.
What is the hallmark sign of rickets in long bones?
What is the hallmark sign of rickets in long bones?
Pathological fractures due to osteomalacia are limited to the limbs only.
Pathological fractures due to osteomalacia are limited to the limbs only.
What is a common cause of fibrous osteodystrophy in animals?
What is a common cause of fibrous osteodystrophy in animals?
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is commonly caused by chronic __________ disease or deficiencies in mineral intake.
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is commonly caused by chronic __________ disease or deficiencies in mineral intake.
Which animal is NOT commonly affected by fibrous osteodystrophy?
Which animal is NOT commonly affected by fibrous osteodystrophy?
Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism can occur from excessive phosphorus intake, even with normal calcium levels.
Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism can occur from excessive phosphorus intake, even with normal calcium levels.
What is the ideal calcium to phosphorus ratio for preventing skeletal abnormalities?
What is the ideal calcium to phosphorus ratio for preventing skeletal abnormalities?
The irregular thickening of the articular cartilage is seen in severe cases of __________.
The irregular thickening of the articular cartilage is seen in severe cases of __________.
Which skeletal manifestation is primarily associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?
Which skeletal manifestation is primarily associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?
Match the following conditions with their associated characteristics:
Match the following conditions with their associated characteristics:
Pathological changes in fibrous osteodystrophy are most pronounced in adult animals.
Pathological changes in fibrous osteodystrophy are most pronounced in adult animals.
What condition can result in the collapse of articular surfaces in severe cases?
What condition can result in the collapse of articular surfaces in severe cases?
The condition caused by prolonged feeding of diets high in grain is commonly referred to as __________ disease.
The condition caused by prolonged feeding of diets high in grain is commonly referred to as __________ disease.
What condition is most commonly associated with osteopenia in affected animals?
What condition is most commonly associated with osteopenia in affected animals?
Which of the following animal species is particularly sensitive to high phosphorus diets?
Which of the following animal species is particularly sensitive to high phosphorus diets?
What is a common symptom of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in dogs and cats?
What is a common symptom of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in dogs and cats?
Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs in reptiles due to diets high in calcium.
Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs in reptiles due to diets high in calcium.
What is the primary cause of fibrous osteodystrophy in animals?
What is the primary cause of fibrous osteodystrophy in animals?
The characteristic lesion of rickets is segmental thickening of the _____
The characteristic lesion of rickets is segmental thickening of the _____
Which breed of dog is particularly susceptible to Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
Which breed of dog is particularly susceptible to Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
The osteonecrosis in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is usually unilateral.
The osteonecrosis in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is usually unilateral.
What is often the critical bone to examine when investigating fracture outbreaks?
What is often the critical bone to examine when investigating fracture outbreaks?
Accelerated resorption of cancellous bones in the maxilla and mandibles can result in a condition known as _____ jaw.
Accelerated resorption of cancellous bones in the maxilla and mandibles can result in a condition known as _____ jaw.
Match the following bone diseases with their primary causes:
Match the following bone diseases with their primary causes:
What is commonly the first evident sign of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism in adult dogs?
What is commonly the first evident sign of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism in adult dogs?
Fracture outbreaks in livestock are often caused by metabolic bone disease such as osteoporosis.
Fracture outbreaks in livestock are often caused by metabolic bone disease such as osteoporosis.
What role does increased intracapsular pressure play in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
What role does increased intracapsular pressure play in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
Excessive movement between bone ends can lead to the development of _____ arthrosis.
Excessive movement between bone ends can lead to the development of _____ arthrosis.
What type of bone changes are indicative of fibrous osteodystrophy?
What type of bone changes are indicative of fibrous osteodystrophy?
What is a significant consequence of Legg-Calve-Perthes (LCP) disease?
What is a significant consequence of Legg-Calve-Perthes (LCP) disease?
Bacterial osteomyelitis in dogs is more commonly a result of fractures than in other animals.
Bacterial osteomyelitis in dogs is more commonly a result of fractures than in other animals.
What is a common cause of osteomyelitis in horses less than 4 months old?
What is a common cause of osteomyelitis in horses less than 4 months old?
The condition known as __________ occurs in ruminants and is primarily caused by Actinomyces bovis.
The condition known as __________ occurs in ruminants and is primarily caused by Actinomyces bovis.
Match the bacteria to their respective host species:
Match the bacteria to their respective host species:
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the transmission of infection from metaphysis to epiphysis?
Which of the following is NOT typically associated with the transmission of infection from metaphysis to epiphysis?
The capillaries in cartilage canals are fenestrated, allowing bacteria to escape into the bone marrow.
The capillaries in cartilage canals are fenestrated, allowing bacteria to escape into the bone marrow.
What anatomical feature restricts the spread of infection from the metaphysis to the epiphysis?
What anatomical feature restricts the spread of infection from the metaphysis to the epiphysis?
Bacterial infections of bones are most often centred on the __________ cavity.
Bacterial infections of bones are most often centred on the __________ cavity.
Match the following conditions with their description:
Match the following conditions with their description:
Which of the following conditions is characterized by pathological fractures due to vertebral osteomyelitis?
Which of the following conditions is characterized by pathological fractures due to vertebral osteomyelitis?
Infection localized in young skeletal systems can lead to significant clinical manifestations immediately.
Infection localized in young skeletal systems can lead to significant clinical manifestations immediately.
What is the primary cause of osteomyelitis in the long bones of young dogs?
What is the primary cause of osteomyelitis in the long bones of young dogs?
____________ are often the first event in the process of bacterial infections of bone.
____________ are often the first event in the process of bacterial infections of bone.
What is the classic lesion associated with actinomycosis in cattle?
What is the classic lesion associated with actinomycosis in cattle?
Actinomyces bovis is highly virulent and can invade bone without the need for prior tissue injury.
Actinomyces bovis is highly virulent and can invade bone without the need for prior tissue injury.
What appearance does the affected mandible have in cases of A. bovis infection?
What appearance does the affected mandible have in cases of A. bovis infection?
Lumpy jaw is specifically known as __________.
Lumpy jaw is specifically known as __________.
Which animal is most commonly affected by osteosarcoma?
Which animal is most commonly affected by osteosarcoma?
Osteosarcoma occurs with equal frequency in male and female dogs.
Osteosarcoma occurs with equal frequency in male and female dogs.
What is the mean age of occurrence for osteosarcoma in dogs?
What is the mean age of occurrence for osteosarcoma in dogs?
Osteosarcoma occurs predominantly in the __________ skeleton.
Osteosarcoma occurs predominantly in the __________ skeleton.
Match the following tumours with their characteristics:
Match the following tumours with their characteristics:
What is often found in the pus of affected tissue in actinomycosis?
What is often found in the pus of affected tissue in actinomycosis?
In cattle, the maxilla is most commonly involved in actinomycosis.
In cattle, the maxilla is most commonly involved in actinomycosis.
What is the most effective biopsy technique for bone lesions?
What is the most effective biopsy technique for bone lesions?
Chronic irritation and repair can lead to osteosarcoma occurring at sites of __________ injury.
Chronic irritation and repair can lead to osteosarcoma occurring at sites of __________ injury.
What is the primary cause of bacterial osteomyelitis in farm animals?
What is the primary cause of bacterial osteomyelitis in farm animals?
What is the primary consequence of Type III herniations of intervertebral disks in the spinal canal?
What is the primary consequence of Type III herniations of intervertebral disks in the spinal canal?
Ischaemic myelopathy is usually associated with Type I herniations of intervertebral disks.
Ischaemic myelopathy is usually associated with Type I herniations of intervertebral disks.
What condition can lead to ischaemic myelopathy caused by fibrocartilaginous embolism?
What condition can lead to ischaemic myelopathy caused by fibrocartilaginous embolism?
Cervical disk protrusions usually result in ______ neurological signs than thoracolumbar region protrusions.
Cervical disk protrusions usually result in ______ neurological signs than thoracolumbar region protrusions.
Match the following conditions with their associated characteristics:
Match the following conditions with their associated characteristics:
What is a common cause of a non-diagnostic bone biopsy sample?
What is a common cause of a non-diagnostic bone biopsy sample?
Using a Jamshidi biopsy needle carries no risk of pathologic fracture.
Using a Jamshidi biopsy needle carries no risk of pathologic fracture.
What is the main purpose of performing a wedge biopsy?
What is the main purpose of performing a wedge biopsy?
Cytological specimens may be obtained using a ____________ needle or catheter stylet for the diagnosis of primary bone tumors.
Cytological specimens may be obtained using a ____________ needle or catheter stylet for the diagnosis of primary bone tumors.
Match the sampling technique with its characteristic:
Match the sampling technique with its characteristic:
What is a characteristic feature of osteosarcoma as seen on radiographs?
What is a characteristic feature of osteosarcoma as seen on radiographs?
Reactive bone is more commonly found at the center of neoplastic bone lesions.
Reactive bone is more commonly found at the center of neoplastic bone lesions.
Which sampling technique showed increased diagnostic accuracy when both central and edge samples were taken?
Which sampling technique showed increased diagnostic accuracy when both central and edge samples were taken?
If the cortex is weakened, a ___________ may be sufficient for diagnosing a primary bone tumor.
If the cortex is weakened, a ___________ may be sufficient for diagnosing a primary bone tumor.
Match the characteristics of bone lesions with the corresponding factors:
Match the characteristics of bone lesions with the corresponding factors:
What is the primary characteristic of telangiectatic osteosarcomas?
What is the primary characteristic of telangiectatic osteosarcomas?
Osteosarcomas predominantly erode cortical bone but rarely invade the adjacent soft tissues.
Osteosarcomas predominantly erode cortical bone but rarely invade the adjacent soft tissues.
What is the likely effect of trauma or biomechanical factors on cartilage?
What is the likely effect of trauma or biomechanical factors on cartilage?
The aetiology and pathogenesis of osteochondrosis are well-understood.
The aetiology and pathogenesis of osteochondrosis are well-understood.
What increases the risk of misdiagnosis when a core biopsy is not performed?
What increases the risk of misdiagnosis when a core biopsy is not performed?
What structural change occurs in cartilage canals during bone development?
What structural change occurs in cartilage canals during bone development?
The technique of ultrasound can be useful in guiding sampling during cases of marked ____________.
The technique of ultrasound can be useful in guiding sampling during cases of marked ____________.
The epiphyseal cartilage of the articular-epiphyseal cartilage complex is dependent on the blood supply delivered by __________.
The epiphyseal cartilage of the articular-epiphyseal cartilage complex is dependent on the blood supply delivered by __________.
Match the following lesions with their associated species:
Match the following lesions with their associated species:
Which of the following factors has been suggested to play a role in osteochondrosis?
Which of the following factors has been suggested to play a role in osteochondrosis?
Osteochondrosis commonly affects females more than males in certain species.
Osteochondrosis commonly affects females more than males in certain species.
What is a significant consequence of local ischaemia in developing cartilage?
What is a significant consequence of local ischaemia in developing cartilage?
Copper deficiency is linked to a potential weakening of __________ molecules in articular cartilage.
Copper deficiency is linked to a potential weakening of __________ molecules in articular cartilage.
What can lead to the formation of loose bodies or 'joint mice' in joints?
What can lead to the formation of loose bodies or 'joint mice' in joints?
All species show a similar prevalence of osteochondrosis.
All species show a similar prevalence of osteochondrosis.
Which enzyme is copper a component of, that helps strengthen collagen?
Which enzyme is copper a component of, that helps strengthen collagen?
Match the types of cartilage lesions with their characteristics:
Match the types of cartilage lesions with their characteristics:
What nutritional factor is linked to osteochondrosis in very young deer?
What nutritional factor is linked to osteochondrosis in very young deer?
Small defects in cartilage lesions are likely to cause significant problems.
Small defects in cartilage lesions are likely to cause significant problems.
Which of the following is a common symptom of cervical vertebral malformation-malarticulation in horses?
Which of the following is a common symptom of cervical vertebral malformation-malarticulation in horses?
Hip dysplasia affects only large and giant dog breeds.
Hip dysplasia affects only large and giant dog breeds.
What is the primary lesion thought to be associated with osteochondrosis?
What is the primary lesion thought to be associated with osteochondrosis?
Cervical stenotic myelopathy is commonly referred to as __________ syndrome.
Cervical stenotic myelopathy is commonly referred to as __________ syndrome.
Match the following developmental orthopaedic diseases with their corresponding descriptions:
Match the following developmental orthopaedic diseases with their corresponding descriptions:
Which of the following breeds is most commonly affected by static cervical canal stenosis?
Which of the following breeds is most commonly affected by static cervical canal stenosis?
All skeletal diseases in horses are classified under developmental orthopaedic disease.
All skeletal diseases in horses are classified under developmental orthopaedic disease.
What nutritional deficiency has been linked to osteochondrosis in deer?
What nutritional deficiency has been linked to osteochondrosis in deer?
Rapid growth is a risk factor for __________ lesions in dogs.
Rapid growth is a risk factor for __________ lesions in dogs.
Match the following terms with their definitions:
Match the following terms with their definitions:
Which developmental disease includes conditions such as contractures and laxity in limbs?
Which developmental disease includes conditions such as contractures and laxity in limbs?
Degenerative joint disease implies an inflammatory origin.
Degenerative joint disease implies an inflammatory origin.
In horses, which age range is most commonly affected by dynamic cervical compression?
In horses, which age range is most commonly affected by dynamic cervical compression?
Developmental orthopaedic diseases may not be consistent over time due to their __________ nature.
Developmental orthopaedic diseases may not be consistent over time due to their __________ nature.
Which type of degenerative joint disease is associated with an underlying abnormality in the joint?
Which type of degenerative joint disease is associated with an underlying abnormality in the joint?
Fibrillation occurs as the first gross lesion in degenerative joint disease.
Fibrillation occurs as the first gross lesion in degenerative joint disease.
What is the term used when articular cartilage becomes completely ulcerated and exposed bone is smooth?
What is the term used when articular cartilage becomes completely ulcerated and exposed bone is smooth?
The nucleus pulposus in chondrodystrophic breeds starts to degenerate early in life, typically by _____ years of age.
The nucleus pulposus in chondrodystrophic breeds starts to degenerate early in life, typically by _____ years of age.
Match the type of intervertebral disk herniation with its characteristics:
Match the type of intervertebral disk herniation with its characteristics:
What is a consistent gross feature of degenerative joint disease?
What is a consistent gross feature of degenerative joint disease?
Most disk herniations occur in non-chondrodystrophic dog breeds.
Most disk herniations occur in non-chondrodystrophic dog breeds.
What major difference exists between intervertebral disk degeneration in chondrodystrophic and non-chondrodystrophic dog breeds?
What major difference exists between intervertebral disk degeneration in chondrodystrophic and non-chondrodystrophic dog breeds?
Degeneration of the annulus fibrosus in both chondrodystrophic and non-chondrodystrophic dogs begins at _____ of age.
Degeneration of the annulus fibrosus in both chondrodystrophic and non-chondrodystrophic dogs begins at _____ of age.
Match the breeds to their susceptibility to intervertebral disk disease:
Match the breeds to their susceptibility to intervertebral disk disease:
What is indicated by the activity of cytokines and collagenases in the context of degenerative joint disease?
What is indicated by the activity of cytokines and collagenases in the context of degenerative joint disease?
Type II herniations are more severe than Type I herniations.
Type II herniations are more severe than Type I herniations.
What can result from chronic instability in a joint?
What can result from chronic instability in a joint?
Formation of a thickened joint capsule occurs in animals with _____ joint disease.
Formation of a thickened joint capsule occurs in animals with _____ joint disease.
Which species is most commonly affected by plasma cell myeloma?
Which species is most commonly affected by plasma cell myeloma?
Plasma cell myeloma is more frequently found in female dogs than in males.
Plasma cell myeloma is more frequently found in female dogs than in males.
Name a common location for osteolytic lesions in dogs with plasma cell myeloma.
Name a common location for osteolytic lesions in dogs with plasma cell myeloma.
Osteochondrosis primarily affects _____, horses, and large breeds of dog.
Osteochondrosis primarily affects _____, horses, and large breeds of dog.
Match the following types of tumors with their characteristics:
Match the following types of tumors with their characteristics:
What is a common clinical feature of multiple plasma cell tumors?
What is a common clinical feature of multiple plasma cell tumors?
Malignant neoplasms originating in soft tissues rarely involve bone secondarily.
Malignant neoplasms originating in soft tissues rarely involve bone secondarily.
What type of bone tumor is characterized by lesions occurring away from the elbow and towards the knee?
What type of bone tumor is characterized by lesions occurring away from the elbow and towards the knee?
___ is a key feature of synovial myxoma.
___ is a key feature of synovial myxoma.
Which of the following conditions is often associated with hyperviscosity syndrome?
Which of the following conditions is often associated with hyperviscosity syndrome?
Pathological fractures can result from lytic bone lesions caused by plasma cell myeloma.
Pathological fractures can result from lytic bone lesions caused by plasma cell myeloma.
What is the prognosis for histiocytic sarcoma in dogs?
What is the prognosis for histiocytic sarcoma in dogs?
What is a key distinction in the occurrence of bone tumors in cats compared to dogs?
What is a key distinction in the occurrence of bone tumors in cats compared to dogs?
Synovial myxoma may be misdiagnosed as a malignant tumor due to its ability to invade _____.
Synovial myxoma may be misdiagnosed as a malignant tumor due to its ability to invade _____.
What is the common prognosis for dogs diagnosed with appendicular osteosarcomas?
What is the common prognosis for dogs diagnosed with appendicular osteosarcomas?
Cytology is always reliable for diagnosing osteosarcoma.
Cytology is always reliable for diagnosing osteosarcoma.
What special stain can assist in distinguishing osteoblasts from other mesenchymal cells?
What special stain can assist in distinguishing osteoblasts from other mesenchymal cells?
The most common site of metastasis for osteosarcoma is the __________.
The most common site of metastasis for osteosarcoma is the __________.
Match the following tumours with their characteristics:
Match the following tumours with their characteristics:
Which breed is NOT mentioned as commonly affected by chondrosarcoma?
Which breed is NOT mentioned as commonly affected by chondrosarcoma?
Chondrosarcomas typically metastasize earlier than osteosarcomas.
Chondrosarcomas typically metastasize earlier than osteosarcomas.
What is the median survival time for cats with appendicular osteosarcoma following treatment by amputation?
What is the median survival time for cats with appendicular osteosarcoma following treatment by amputation?
Increased ALP levels before surgery in dogs with appendicular osteosarcomas have been associated with __________ survival time post-surgery.
Increased ALP levels before surgery in dogs with appendicular osteosarcomas have been associated with __________ survival time post-surgery.
Match the following types of bone tumours with their descriptions:
Match the following types of bone tumours with their descriptions:
Which characteristic about chondrosarcoma is true?
Which characteristic about chondrosarcoma is true?
Chondrosarcomas are reported more frequently in small breeds than large breeds.
Chondrosarcomas are reported more frequently in small breeds than large breeds.
What is a common effect of haemangiosarcoma in affected animals?
What is a common effect of haemangiosarcoma in affected animals?
Chondrosarcomas may produce lytic lesions similar to __________.
Chondrosarcomas may produce lytic lesions similar to __________.
Which type of intervertebral disk disease is characterized by sudden onset?
Which type of intervertebral disk disease is characterized by sudden onset?
Spondylosis is characterized by the formation of osteophytes at the dorsal margins of vertebral bodies.
Spondylosis is characterized by the formation of osteophytes at the dorsal margins of vertebral bodies.
What common condition is often seen in dogs that is related to the lumbar vertebrae?
What common condition is often seen in dogs that is related to the lumbar vertebrae?
Inflammation of tendon sheaths accompanying synovial joint inflammation is known as __________.
Inflammation of tendon sheaths accompanying synovial joint inflammation is known as __________.
Match the following animal species with the type of vertebral condition they most frequently experience:
Match the following animal species with the type of vertebral condition they most frequently experience:
What is the primary cause of infectious arthritis in young farmed livestock?
What is the primary cause of infectious arthritis in young farmed livestock?
Non-infectious arthritis is most commonly seen in larger livestock such as cattle and horses.
Non-infectious arthritis is most commonly seen in larger livestock such as cattle and horses.
What lesion is associated with degenerative joint disease (DJD)?
What lesion is associated with degenerative joint disease (DJD)?
Which of the following bacteria is commonly associated with polyarthritis in horses?
Which of the following bacteria is commonly associated with polyarthritis in horses?
True or False: Diskospondylitis is commonly caused by fungal infections.
True or False: Diskospondylitis is commonly caused by fungal infections.
What is the predominant cause of bacterial arthritis in dogs?
What is the predominant cause of bacterial arthritis in dogs?
In young animals, the infection often spreads from the synovial membrane to the __________ due to their close vascular relationship.
In young animals, the infection often spreads from the synovial membrane to the __________ due to their close vascular relationship.
Match the following bacteria with their associated conditions:
Match the following bacteria with their associated conditions:
Which of the following statements correctly describes immune-mediated arthritis?
Which of the following statements correctly describes immune-mediated arthritis?
True or False: The viscosity of normal synovial fluid is low.
True or False: The viscosity of normal synovial fluid is low.
What condition can develop in conjunction with septic arthritis in young animals?
What condition can develop in conjunction with septic arthritis in young animals?
The __________ is the inflamed joint space filled with excess synovial fluid due to infection.
The __________ is the inflamed joint space filled with excess synovial fluid due to infection.
Which of these joints is most commonly affected by septic arthritis in larger animals?
Which of these joints is most commonly affected by septic arthritis in larger animals?
True or False: Immune-mediated arthritis is typically mono-arthritis.
True or False: Immune-mediated arthritis is typically mono-arthritis.
What is a typical clinical sign of joint infection in neonatal animals?
What is a typical clinical sign of joint infection in neonatal animals?
The presence of __________ in synovial fluid is indicative of inflammation.
The presence of __________ in synovial fluid is indicative of inflammation.
Match the animal species with their common bacterial arthritis causes:
Match the animal species with their common bacterial arthritis causes:
What are synovial fossae primarily known for in cattle, horses, and pigs?
What are synovial fossae primarily known for in cattle, horses, and pigs?
Synovial fossae are always indicators of severe joint damage.
Synovial fossae are always indicators of severe joint damage.
What condition is characterized by the presence of significant numbers of neutrophils in the synovial fluid?
What condition is characterized by the presence of significant numbers of neutrophils in the synovial fluid?
Fibrin clots in the joint fluid can become _________ within the synovial membrane.
Fibrin clots in the joint fluid can become _________ within the synovial membrane.
Match the types of arthritis to their characteristics:
Match the types of arthritis to their characteristics:
What can be a consequence of severe fibrinous arthritis?
What can be a consequence of severe fibrinous arthritis?
The presence of fibrin in synovial fluid indicates normal permeability of blood vessels.
The presence of fibrin in synovial fluid indicates normal permeability of blood vessels.
What is the major cell type infiltrating the synovial membrane in chronic stages of many forms of arthritis?
What is the major cell type infiltrating the synovial membrane in chronic stages of many forms of arthritis?
Septic arthritis can result in degeneration of articular cartilage caused by _________ from neutrophils.
Septic arthritis can result in degeneration of articular cartilage caused by _________ from neutrophils.
Which of the following may allow for infection to enter the subchondral bone?
Which of the following may allow for infection to enter the subchondral bone?
Granulation tissue can predispose to ankylosis in affected joints.
Granulation tissue can predispose to ankylosis in affected joints.
What is the typical appearance of synovial fluid in cases of purulent arthritis?
What is the typical appearance of synovial fluid in cases of purulent arthritis?
The ___________ classification of arthritis includes both fibrin and neutrophils.
The ___________ classification of arthritis includes both fibrin and neutrophils.
Match the joint conditions to their descriptions:
Match the joint conditions to their descriptions:
What can cause an increased total protein concentration in joint fluid?
What can cause an increased total protein concentration in joint fluid?
Neutrophils account for less than 5% of the cell population in normal synovial fluid.
Neutrophils account for less than 5% of the cell population in normal synovial fluid.
What type of cells may be present in increased numbers in joints following trauma?
What type of cells may be present in increased numbers in joints following trauma?
The presence of ______ indicates erosion of articular cartilage has extended into subchondral bone.
The presence of ______ indicates erosion of articular cartilage has extended into subchondral bone.
Match the following joint conditions with their descriptions:
Match the following joint conditions with their descriptions:
What is a common characteristic of histiocytic sarcoma?
What is a common characteristic of histiocytic sarcoma?
Bacteria are commonly seen in synovial fluid samples from septic joints.
Bacteria are commonly seen in synovial fluid samples from septic joints.
What cytological feature may complicate the diagnosis of septic arthritis in small animals?
What cytological feature may complicate the diagnosis of septic arthritis in small animals?
A benign but locally invasive tumor of joints is called ______.
A benign but locally invasive tumor of joints is called ______.
Match types of tumors with their characteristics:
Match types of tumors with their characteristics:
Which of the following may obscure cellular features in synovial fluid smears?
Which of the following may obscure cellular features in synovial fluid smears?
Immune-mediated arthritis typically affects a single joint in small animals.
Immune-mediated arthritis typically affects a single joint in small animals.
What is the best initial treatment option for a limb affected by histiocytic sarcoma?
What is the best initial treatment option for a limb affected by histiocytic sarcoma?
______ is the primary component of the granular background in normal joint fluid slides.
______ is the primary component of the granular background in normal joint fluid slides.
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Study Notes
Response of Bone to Mechanical Forces
- Bone tissue responds to mechanical forces and injury through processes like atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, neoplasia, degeneration, and necrosis.
- Wolff's law states that bone is deposited where needed and resorbed where not under mechanical stress.
- Immobilization during fracture repair increases resorption, leading to reduced bone strength and stiffness.
- Rigid metal implants share mechanical loads with bone but can cause atrophy and reduced strength; their removal post-healing is recommended to prevent complications like osteosarcoma.
Physeal Damage
- Growing animals' physes are vulnerable to traumatic injuries, particularly in the distal radial physis.
- Slipped epiphysis occurs when compressive or shearing forces cause complete separation at the growth plate, typically through the hypertrophic zone.
- Prognosis for slipped epiphysis is good if blood supply to the epiphyseal vasculature remains intact.
- Femoral head slipped epiphysis risks avascular necrosis, particularly in calves, foals, and puppies due to vascular damage.
- Angular limb deformities arise from physeal fractures; valgus deformity results in lateral deviation and varus deformity in medial deviation.
Fracture Repair
- Fractures occur when bones are subjected to excessive mechanical forces or pre-existing diseases weakening them.
- Initial fracture repair involves haematoma formation, leading to a cascade of inflammatory responses and new tissue formation.
- The repair progresses through stages: haematoma and inflammation, callus formation, and remodeling to restore original bone shape.
- Secondary healing features a callus composed mainly of hyaline cartilage, which transitions to woven bone through endochondral ossification.
- Fracture callus size correlates with movement between fracture ends; rigid immobilization can lead to primary bone repair with minimal callus formation.
Complications of Fracture Repair
- Common complications (3 I's):
- Infection can delay healing and lead to osteomyelitis if not controlled early.
- Instability from excessive movement or soft tissue interference may result in pseudoarthrosis.
- Inadequate blood supply due to necrotic bone fragments impairs healing and may require removal of sequestrae.
Skeletal Dysplasias
- Genetic abnormalities affecting bone formation or remodeling are classified as skeletal dysplasias, often presenting as short stature and bone fragility.
- Environmental factors like toxins and nutritional deficiencies can cause skeletal abnormalities that mimic genetic defects.
Chondrodysplasias
- Characterized by disproportionate dwarfism, notably in breeds such as Dachshund and Basset Hound.
- Bulldog chondrodysplasia affects miniature cattle breeds like Dexter and leads to severe skeletal deformities.
- Spider Lamb syndrome in sheep results in disproportionate long limbs and various skeletal deformities.
Nutritional Imbalances and Toxins
- Severe malnutrition or starvation can lead to growth plate abnormalities and growth arrest lines due to retarded longitudinal bone growth.
- Manganese deficiency affects cartilage formation, resulting in limb deformities in calves and lambs.
- Copper deficiency impacts collagen cross-linking, increasing bone fragility and being linked to osteochondrosis.
- Vitamin C deficiency disrupts collagen synthesis, leading to fragile bones, particularly in guinea pigs, resulting in sub-periosteal hemorrhages.
- Certain plant species can have teratogenic effects, causing skeletal abnormalities during fetal development or influencing postnatal bone remodeling.### Nutritional Deficiencies and Their Effects
- Starvation leads to growth arrest lines and serious atrophy of fat.
- Manganese and zinc deficiency causes disproportionate dwarfism and enlarged joints.
- Copper deficiency results in osteoporosis, fractures, and osteochondrosis.
- Vitamin C deficiency is associated with subperiosteal hemorrhage and fractures.
Congenital Skeletal Diseases in Farm Animals
- Skeletal abnormalities represent a significant portion of congenital issues in lambs; one study found 52% of lamb abnormalities related to the skeletal system.
- Deformities may be sporadic or outbreak-related and can stem from genetic, teratogenic factors, or nutritional deficiencies during gestation.
- Accurate clinical history is crucial for distinguishing between genetic and non-genetic causes of abnormalities.
- Chondrodysplastic dwarfism in cattle can be confused with nutritional deficiencies affecting bone growth; clinical features may not reveal the exact cause.
- High incidence of skeletal diseases in newborns typically indicates non-genetic origins unless linked to a new dominant mutation.
- Genetic disorders with recessive patterns affect only 25% of offspring from heterozygous parents.
Teratogenic Effects and Nutritional Deficiencies
- Early pregnancy drought conditions and inappropriate diets contribute to varying degrees of skeletal deformities.
- Insults during embryogenesis are more detrimental, leading to significant developmental defects.
- If nutritional deficiencies or teratogenic agents are identified, recovery may occur with a normal diet post-birth, contrasting with genetic causes.
- Infection during pregnancy from teratogenic viruses can lead to widespread congenital abnormalities.
Diagnostic Evaluation and Sample Collection
- Comprehensive examination of affected animals is vital for understanding lesions.
- Post-mortem examinations should focus on rapidly growing bones to assess conditions.
- Radiography provides insight into bone structure but is not definitive in early osteoporosis detection.
- Trace element status of affected animals aids in understanding underlying causes of skeletal abnormalities.
Metabolic Bone Diseases
- Metabolic bone diseases arise from imbalances in bone homeostasis and can be classified into rickets, osteomalacia, fibrous osteodystrophy, and osteoporosis.
- Osteoporosis is characterized by a reduction in bone quantity without compromising bone quality.
- Mild cases of osteoporosis may go undiagnosed; clinical signs often only emerge after fractures occur.
- Nutritional deficiencies such as calcium can lead to osteoporosis, especially in young, growing animals.
- Starvation impacts skeletons more in younger animals, leading to observable growth arrest lines.
Rickets and Osteomalacia
- Rickets affects developing skeletons in young animals while osteomalacia occurs in adults, both due to mineralization defects.
- Primary aetiology includes dietary deficiencies of vitamin D and phosphorus.
- Rickets is more prevalent in herding species like sheep; vitamin D deficiency can also affect housed animals.
- Common lesions include stiffness, lameness, and observable abnormal bone growth patterns.
Fibrous Osteodystrophy (FOD)
- Characterized by extensive bone resorption leading to fibroplastic changes; linked to hyperparathyroidism.
- Susceptibility varies among species; more common in pigs, dogs, and reptiles but rare in sheep and cattle.
- Primary hyperparathyroidism arises from adenomas in the parathyroid glands but less common overall.
- Persistent hypercalcemia associated with untreated primary hyperparathyroidism results in soft tissue mineralization.### Pseudohyperparathyroidism
- Caused by tumors producing parathyroid-related hormone, notably malignant lymphoma and apocrine gland adenocarcinoma.
- Bone lesions are typically mild and clinically/radiographically inconspicuous.
Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
- Most frequent cause of fibrous osteodystrophy; arises from chronic renal disease or calcium-phosphorus dietary imbalance.
- PTH secretion increases due to decreased plasma ionized calcium, leading to generalized bone resorption.
- Common in dogs, occasionally in cats, associated with chronic renal failure, especially in young animals with familial renal disease.
Pathogenesis of Renal Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
- Decreased glomerular filtration rate causes reduced phosphorus excretion ➔ increased serum phosphorus ➔ elevated FGF23 ➔ inhibits active vitamin D production ➔ decreased serum calcium ➔ stimulates PTH release ➔ activates osteoclasts ➔ osteoclastic bone resorption ➔ fibrous tissue and woven bone replace normal bone.
Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
- Results from dietary calcium deficiency or excess phosphorus, leading to inverse relationship between calcium and phosphorus.
- Pathogenesis involves low-normal dietary calcium and high-phosphorus intake ➔ increased serum phosphorus ➔ decreases serum calcium ➔ stimulates PTH release ➔ similar outcomes of osteoclastic resorption.
Gross Lesions in Specific Animals
- Horses and goats show bilateral skull swelling (“big-head”) due to high phosphorus diet, commonly grain-heavy.
- Fibrous osteodystrophy in horses also associated with certain tropical grasses or oxalate-rich diets that impair calcium absorption.
- Pigs and goats on unsupplemented grain diets may develop similar osteodystrophy.
Osteoporosis and Rickets
- Osteoporosis arises mainly from starvation or copper deficiency; characterized by porous bones with thinner cortices.
- Rickets typically results from vitamin D or phosphorus deficiency; hallmark lesion is segmental thickening of the physis.
Investigating Fracture Outbreaks
- Often linked to metabolic bone diseases like osteoporosis, rickets, or osteogenesis imperfecta.
- Post-mortem examinations with bone sampling critical for diagnosis; costochondral junctions are particularly informative.
- Collect additional samples for serum Ca and P tests; dietary history plays a vital role.
Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease
- Avascular necrosis of the femoral head primarily affects small dog breeds, especially miniature poodles.
- Insidious onset occurs between 4-8 months of age; bilateral cases in 15% of instances.
- Pathogenesis linked to ischemia from increased intra-articular pressure, leading to potential femoral head collapse.
Bacterial Osteomyelitis
- Common in young horses and ruminants, primarily from hematogenous routes and localized in metaphyses and epiphyses of long bones.
- Clinical signs may develop months post-infection due to bone lesions causing pain and potential fractures.
Common Bacterial Agents
- Equine infections often involve Escherichia coli, Streptococcus spp, Klebsiella spp, and Rhodococcus equi.
- Ruminants frequently see Salmonella spp and Trueperella pyogenes; dogs and cats less commonly affected but related to compound fractures.
Vertebral Osteomyelitis/Diskospondylitis
- Occurs due to hematogenous infections, often in neonates with inadequate passive immunity.
- Can cause pathological fractures and neurological signs from spinal cord compression due to secondary infections.
Mandibular Osteomyelitis
- Primarily affects cattle (Actinomyces bovis), marked by a “honeycomb” appearance in jawbone.
- Bacterial infection often follows prior tissue injury; osteomyelitis may also occur in other species.
Tumours & Tumour-like Lesions
- Bone tumors prevalent in dogs and lesser extent in cats, often arising from mesenchymal tissues.
- Osteosarcoma is the most common primary bone tumor in dogs (80% of cases) and cats (70%).
- Typically aggressive, with early metastasis to lungs; most frequent in large breeds. Common sites include distal radius, proximal humerus, and distal femur.
Spondylosis
- Common degenerative disease of the vertebral column characterized by osteophyte formation at vertebral margins.
- Initial degeneration in the ventral annulus fibrosus may result from trauma, leading to displacement and ligament stretching.
- Progression results in extensive osteophyte formation and bony bridging of intervertebral spaces.
- Most frequently observed in bulls, pigs, and dogs, particularly in the thoracolumbar region for bulls and first two lumbar vertebrae for dogs.
- Cats may experience cervical vertebral ankylosis linked to vitamin A toxicity.
- Key lesions include fibrillation, eburnation, bone sclerosis, and joint capsule thickening.
- Intervertebral disk disease is classified into type I (sudden, chondrodystrophic) and type II (slow, less severe, non-chondrodystrophic).
Inflammatory Diseases of Joints
- Arthritis or synovitis refers to inflammation of joints, often accompanied by tenosynovitis in adjacent tendon sheaths.
- Infectious arthritis commonly occurs in livestock and young animals post-neonatal bacteraemia, while dogs and cats more often exhibit immune-mediated arthritis.
- Non-articulating depressions known as synovial fossae are common in cattle, horses, and pigs; these are acquired postnatally and of minimal clinical significance.
- Fibrinous arthritis indicates increased vascular permeability, often seen in bacterial infections; presence of fibrin in synovial fluid suggests acute inflammation.
- Synovial fluid in fibrinous arthritis may be turbid and the synovial membrane can be hyperaemic with prominent villi.
- Purulent arthritis is marked by high neutrophil counts and poses a risk of cartilage and joint structure destruction.
- Erosive and non-erosive classifications exist for immune-mediated arthritis; both forms typically display extensive inflammation.
Bacterial Arthritis
- Commonly occurs in horses and ruminants as a result of neonatal conditions or infections in various body systems.
- Infection in joints often co-occurs with osteomyelitis, especially in young animals, leading to polyarthritis.
- Key bacteria involved include Streptococcus spp, E. coli, and Staphylococcus aureus, with Mycoplasma bovis emerging as a concern in cattle.
- In dogs and cats, bacterial arthritis often follows direct implantation from penetrating wounds, usually monoarticular and associated with opportunistic bacterial infections.
Diskospondylitis
- Inflammation of intervertebral disks that can lead to contiguous vertebral osteomyelitis.
- Typically bacterial in origin, especially following primary bacteraemia; fungi may be involved in canine cases.
- Most prevalent in large male dogs, often in the lumbosacral spine.
- Staphylococcus aureus is the predominant pathogen identified.
Immune-mediated Arthritis
- Classified as non-infectious inflammatory diseases in joints associated with antigen persistence or immune complex deposition.
- Typically manifests as polyarthritis, more common in dogs and cats; distinguished as erosive or non-erosive forms.
Synovial Fluid Assessment
- Analysis reveals joint lesion causes and lesion duration; involves assessing color, turbidity, protein concentration, and total nucleated cell count.
- Normal synovial fluid is typically clear and colorless, varying slightly in horses.
- Viscosity is important for joint function; decreased viscosity often indicates disease involvement.
- Increased protein concentration suggests inflammation due to fibrinogen and immunoglobulin effusion.
- Cytological evaluation may reveal neutrophils, significant in differentiating between septic and immune-mediated arthritis.
Tumours & Tumour-like Lesions of Joints
- Tumours around joints arise from synovioblastic cells or supporting structures.
- Histiocytic sarcoma is an aggressive canine tumour, particularly in flat-coated and golden retrievers; presents as soft tissue swellings and may metastasize.
- Synovial myxoma, while benign, can invade bone and mimic malignancy on radiographs; misdiagnosis is possible without biopsy.
- Differentiation between myxoma and myxosarcoma is crucial, with histology providing essential information for diagnosis.
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