Biology Macromolecules Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which type of carbohydrate is formed by linking two monosaccharides together?

  • Monosaccharide
  • Disaccharide (correct)
  • Polysaccharide
  • Oligosaccharide

What is the primary role of polysaccharides like glycogen in the body?

  • Transmitting signals
  • Storing energy (correct)
  • Forming the cell membrane
  • Cell attachment

Which statement best describes triglycerides?

  • They are nonpolar molecules formed from three fatty acid chains and glycerol. (correct)
  • They are involved in forming glycoproteins.
  • They are the building blocks of proteins.
  • They have a complex structure that includes a phosphate group.

Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in the body?

<p>Facilitating the formation of nucleic acids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is characteristic of steroids?

<p>A basic 4-ring structure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of sugar is glucose categorized as?

<p>Monosaccharide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of glycoproteins and glycolipids in cellular functions?

<p>They enable cell differentiation and migration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is glycogen primarily stored in the human body?

<p>In the liver and muscles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of thrombin in the blood clotting process?

<p>To convert fibrinogen to fibrin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of hemostasis involves the formation of a platelet plug?

<p>Primary hemostasis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does prostacyclin play in blood clotting?

<p>Inhibits platelet aggregation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade initiate?

<p>Through contact with collagen or glass (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the process of fibrinolysis?

<p>Release of tissue-plasminogen activator (t-PA) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protein is crucial for the stabilization of the platelet plug?

<p>Fibrinogen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the clotting cascade, what is the result of the positive feedback mechanism initiated by thrombin?

<p>Increased platelet activation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two molecules are produced by healthy endothelial cells to inhibit platelet activation?

<p>Nitric oxide and prostacyclin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an essential requirement for the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade?

<p>Presence of FXII and FVIII (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which conditions can result from dysfunctional blood clotting mechanisms?

<p>Haemophilia and deep vein thrombosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary function of enzymes in biological reactions?

<p>To catalyze substrate conversion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary structural arrangement of phospholipids in the cell membrane?

<p>Lipid bilayer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the 'induced fit' model of enzyme action differ from the 'lock and key' model?

<p>Induced fit allows for a change in enzyme shape upon binding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of interaction do enzymes predominantly utilize for substrate binding?

<p>Weak non-covalent interactions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of transport does the sodium-potassium pump exemplify?

<p>Active transport (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

<p>Helicase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In DNA replication, what is the function of RNA primers?

<p>To initiate the addition of nucleotides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes the segments of the lagging strand in DNA replication?

<p>Okazaki fragments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the semi-conservative model of DNA replication?

<p>Each new molecule contains one parental and one new strand. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During transcription, the enzyme responsible for synthesizing mRNA is?

<p>RNA polymerase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What signifies the start of transcription in a DNA sequence?

<p>Promoter region (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules play in translation?

<p>They link amino acids together in the correct sequence. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of the triplet code used in mRNA?

<p>Each triplet is known as a codon. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the triplet code is true?

<p>Aug is the only start codon. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term degeneracy of the genetic code imply?

<p>Some amino acids are coded by multiple codons. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bulk transport involves the incorporation of substances into the cell?

<p>Endocytosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do transport proteins primarily facilitate in cellular processes?

<p>Movement of selected molecules across cell membranes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the environment in enzyme active sites?

<p>They can change the pKa of charged amino-acid sidechains. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of catalysis is primarily involved in acid/base reactions by enzymes?

<p>Acid/base catalysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Km interpreted as in enzyme kinetics?

<p>The concentration of substrate at which the rate is half of Vmax (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do cofactors play in enzyme activity?

<p>They can enhance enzymatic reactions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is NOT an example of one that uses acyl-substitution reactions?

<p>Carbonic anhydrase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary feature of the Michaelis-Menten curve?

<p>It describes the saturation of enzyme active sites. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following influences enzyme activity?

<p>Enzyme concentration and substrate concentration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary limitation of the Lineweaver-Burk Plot?

<p>It is less accurate than other methods. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the ratio kcat/Km indicate?

<p>The efficiency of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of kinetics occurs at low substrate concentrations?

<p>First-order kinetics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Vmax in enzyme kinetics?

<p>The maximum rate of enzyme-catalyzed reaction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of enzyme?

<p>Catalytase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by enzyme saturation?

<p>All active sites are occupied by substrate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What assumption is made in the steady-state model of enzyme kinetics?

<p>The enzyme-substrate complex concentration remains constant. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase play in protein synthesis?

<p>It links tRNA to its corresponding amino acid. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of ribosomes is responsible for the formation of peptide bonds?

<p>Peptidyl transferase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary structure of a protein defined by?

<p>The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes an alpha-helix in protein structure?

<p>It has 3.6 amino acids per turn with hydrogen bonding between residues. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about beta-sheets is true?

<p>They are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between adjacent chains. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the termination of the translation process?

<p>The binding of a release factor to a codon. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bond is formed between two cysteine residues to stabilize protein structure?

<p>Disulphide bridge (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What influences the stability of tertiary and quaternary protein structures?

<p>Non-covalent interactions and some covalent bonds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do hydrogen bonds contribute to protein structure?

<p>They stabilize secondary structures like alpha-helices and beta-sheets. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which correct statement describes the ribosome composition in eukaryotic cells?

<p>They are composed of rRNA and proteins forming 60S and 40S subunits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily disrupted by agents like heat and pH extremes regarding proteins?

<p>The three-dimensional protein folding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates that an amino acid is chiral?

<p>Existence of two enantiomers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the process of elongation in translation?

<p>The movement of the ribosome along the mRNA to access new codons. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor affects the speed of translation in bacteria?

<p>The mRNA length and structure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes an antagonist in receptor pharmacology?

<p>It binds to receptors without causing a response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between reversible and irreversible antagonism?

<p>Reversible antagonism allows agonists to displace it. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for inhibitory signaling in the CNS?

<p>GABA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Schild plot help to quantify?

<p>Antagonism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of which of the following is NOT a criterion for identifying a neurotransmitter?

<p>Ability to cross the blood-brain barrier (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does synaptic integration occur?

<p>Through temporal and spatial summation of potentials (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft?

<p>To degrade acetylcholine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic terminal?

<p>Calcium influx (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which receptors does acetylcholine act upon?

<p>Both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of excitatory synapses in the brain?

<p>To generate excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term '-ergic' imply about a neuron?

<p>It releases a specific neurotransmitter. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the action potential?

<p>It is a brief and all-or-nothing event. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter acts predominantly through GABA receptors?

<p>GABA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical action potential threshold for a neuron?

<p>-55 mV (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of voltage-gated ion channels during an action potential?

<p>They initiate and terminate action potentials. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the action potential involves the rapid change of membrane potential to a positive value?

<p>Depolarisation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens during the absolute refractory period of an action potential?

<p>Action potentials cannot be generated regardless of stimulus strength. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does saltatory conduction enhance the speed of action potential propagation?

<p>By allowing the action potential to jump between nodes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ion is primarily responsible for the depolarization phase of an action potential?

<p>Na+ (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is caused by the destruction of myelin-producing cells?

<p>Multiple Sclerosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical resting membrane potential of neurons?

<p>-70 mV (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism does the sodium-potassium pump primarily use to maintain membrane potential?

<p>Active transport (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the hyperpolarisation phase, what happens to the membrane potential?

<p>It becomes more negative than the resting membrane potential. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of neuron is characterized by having only one process that splits into two branches?

<p>Unipolar neuron (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does demyelination have on sensory and motor nerve function?

<p>It can lead to weakness and abnormal sensations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor primarily influences the velocity of action potential propagation?

<p>Diameter of the axon and myelination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major difference between graded potentials and action potentials?

<p>Graded potentials vary in magnitude while action potentials are all-or-nothing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scientist was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1906 for discoveries related to neurons?

<p>Santiago Ramón y Cajal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the value of kcat calculated in the context of enzyme kinetics?

<p>3.29 min-1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of enzyme inhibition is characterized by a decrease in Km while Vmax remains unchanged?

<p>Competitive inhibition (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Ki in enzyme inhibition?

<p>It indicates the tightness of inhibitor binding. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true about non-competitive inhibition?

<p>It affects Vmax but not Km. (B), It cannot be reversed by increasing substrate concentration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the Lineweaver-Burk plot in enzyme kinetics?

<p>It helps visualize the effects of competitive and non-competitive inhibitors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is defined as the concentration of drug required for 50% reduction in activity?

<p>IC50 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is kcat/Km significant in enzyme kinetics?

<p>It provides insight into enzyme efficiency. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement describes a mechanism-based inhibitor?

<p>It irreversibly modifies the enzyme after behaving as a substrate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to Km and Vmax in uncompetitive inhibition?

<p>Both Km and Vmax decrease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes tight-binding inhibitors?

<p>They often have a slow onset and long half-life. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can pharmacology be defined?

<p>The science of drugs and their effects on biological systems. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of receptors in pharmacology?

<p>To relay signals into a cell and produce a response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which family of receptors opens in response to ligand binding?

<p>Ligand-Gated Ion Channels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common example of a drug that targets enzyme activity?

<p>Aspirin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can increase the potency of an inhibitor?

<p>Tighter binding indicated by a smaller Ki value. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to kinase-linked receptors upon ligand-receptor engagement?

<p>Their two halves come together to activate kinase activity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following receptors is associated with gene expression upon ligand binding?

<p>Nuclear Receptors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does EC50 represent in pharmacology?

<p>The concentration of an agonist required to elicit 50% of the maximal response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining characteristic of a partial agonist?

<p>It produces a limited response despite binding to the receptor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do reversible competitive antagonists affect the concentration-response curve?

<p>They cause a rightward shift in the curve, increasing EC50. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of modulation occurs when allosteric modulators bind to sites other than the orthosteric site?

<p>Non-competitive modulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The maximal response produced by an agonist is referred to as what?

<p>Emax (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes inverse agonists from regular agonists?

<p>They reduce the basal level of receptor activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What concept describes the phenomenon where different agonists produce different effects through the same receptor?

<p>Biased agonism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do irreversible competitive antagonists have on the Emax and EC50 of an agonist?

<p>Emax decreases, EC50 increases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best characterizes the role of receptor agonists?

<p>They bind to and activate receptors, driving a biological response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of a Schild Plot in pharmacology?

<p>To determine antagonist potency and type. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which parameter is essential for comparing the efficacy of different agonists?

<p>Emax (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between potency and EC50 values?

<p>Higher EC50 indicates lower potency. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do allosteric agonists do when they bind to receptors?

<p>They push the receptor into an active conformation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of α1 adrenoceptors?

<p>Vasoconstriction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which receptor subtype is primarily responsible for inhibiting the release of norepinephrine (NA)?

<p>α2 adrenoceptor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the sarcoplasmic reticulum play in skeletal muscle contraction?

<p>Release of calcium ions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a part of a reflex arc?

<p>Cranial nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle type is characterized by voluntary control?

<p>Skeletal muscle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle called?

<p>Sarcomere (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which adrenoceptor subtype is involved in bronchodilation?

<p>β2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological response is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

<p>Fight or flight response (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of receptors are involved in the sense of taste?

<p>Chemoreceptors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of slow-twitch muscle fibres?

<p>High fatigue resistance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological role do β3 adrenoceptors primarily regulate?

<p>Lipolysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What components are involved in proprioception?

<p>Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What neurotransmitter is primarily released at the neuromuscular junction to initiate muscle contraction?

<p>Acetylcholine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the oculomotor nerve in the pupil constriction reflex?

<p>Controls iris sphincter muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of smooth muscle cells compared to skeletal muscle cells?

<p>They are involuntary and have a fusiform shape. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do calcium ions contribute to smooth muscle contraction?

<p>By binding to calmodulin to initiate phosphorylation of myosin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes single unit smooth muscle from multi-unit smooth muscle?

<p>Single unit smooth muscle exhibits synchronous contraction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the intercalated discs in cardiac muscle?

<p>They facilitate electrical connection between cardiomyocytes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organ systems primarily utilize smooth muscle?

<p>Visceral organs and blood vessels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Interstitial cells of Cajal in the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>They propagate slow waves for rhythmic contractions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of smooth muscle contraction regulation?

<p>Contraction can occur independently of neural input. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of muscle has a fusiform shape and lacks visible striations?

<p>Smooth muscle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanisms are involved in smooth muscle relaxation?

<p>Dephosphorylation of myosin light chains by MLCP. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do neurotransmitters affect smooth muscle contraction?

<p>They alter cytosolic calcium levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural component is absent in smooth muscle cells that is found in skeletal muscle cells?

<p>Z discs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature differentiates vascular smooth muscle cells from other smooth muscle types?

<p>They undergo phenotypic switching in disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which properties are associated with smooth muscle contraction?

<p>Phosphorylation of myosin light chain regulates contraction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of relationship do neurotransmitter receptors have with smooth muscle contraction?

<p>The response depends on the receptor subtype expressed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily composes thin filaments in skeletal muscle?

<p>Filamentous F-actin strands (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which troponin component binds to calcium to regulate muscle contraction?

<p>Troponin C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the neuromuscular junction?

<p>To facilitate the release of acetylcholine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural feature allows cardiac muscle cells to act as a functional syncytium?

<p>Intercalated discs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates contraction in cardiac muscle?

<p>Pacemaker cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is responsible for the strong structural support between cardiomyocytes?

<p>Desmosomes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does calcium release contribute to muscle contraction?

<p>By activating troponin and initiating cross-bridge cycling (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of muscle fibre is characterized by slower contraction rates and more aerobic metabolic properties?

<p>Type I fibres (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs when ATP binds to myosin in skeletal muscle?

<p>The actin-myosin cross-bridge is broken (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic of the pacemaker action potential?

<p>It occurs due to the opening of funny channels and calcium channels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of catecholamines in cardiac muscle function?

<p>To regulate heart rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by dilatation of the left ventricle due to genetic mutations?

<p>Dilated Cardiomyopathy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the sodium-calcium exchanger in cardiac muscle cells?

<p>To remove calcium from the cell (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What important biochemical event happens during the activation of muscle contraction?

<p>Release of ADP and Pi from myosin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily establishes the resting membrane potential in neurons?

<p>K+ leak channels and Na+/K+ pumps (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which equation is used to calculate the resting membrane potential?

<p>Goldman Equation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate equilibrium potential for K+ in a real neuron?

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What is the primary ion responsible for establishing the resting membrane potential in neurons?

<p>K+ (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which equation is used to calculate the equilibrium potential for any ion?

<p>Nernst equation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of the cerebral cortex is demonstrated through Brodmann's areas?

<p>Functional localization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is involved in the 'fight or flight' response of the sympathetic nervous system?

<p>Noradrenaline (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the prefrontal cortex in brain function?

<p>Executive functions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure receives sensory input that is mapped in a homunculus?

<p>Somatosensory cortex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter was first discovered by Otto Loewi?

<p>Vagustoff (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the adrenal glands in the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Secrete hormones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of receptors do adrenaline and noradrenaline primarily affect in the body?

<p>G-protein-coupled receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which part of the central nervous system does the thalamus play a key role?

<p>Relay station for sensory signals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for the 'rest and digest' response?

<p>Parasympathetic nervous system (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of postganglionic fibers in the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Connect preganglionic neurons to target organs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main distinction between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

<p>Functions they regulate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Goldman equation takes into account which of the following factors?

<p>Relative ion permeability and concentrations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Carbohydrates

A type of biological molecule that includes sugars, starches, and cellulose. They are composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms and serve as a source of energy, structural components, and signaling molecules.

Monosaccharides

The smallest unit of carbohydrates, also known as simple sugars. Examples include glucose and fructose. They are hydroxylated aldehydes or ketones that often exist in ring-closed forms and serve as building blocks for larger carbohydrates.

Disaccharides

Two monosaccharide units linked together by a glycosidic bond. Examples include sucrose (table sugar) and lactose (milk sugar).

Polysaccharides

Large polymers composed of many monosaccharide units linked together. Examples include glycogen (energy storage in animals) and starch (energy storage in plants).

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Lipids

A type of biological molecule characterized by their nonpolar nature, composed primarily of carbon and hydrogen atoms. They serve as a major component of cell membranes, a source of energy, and signaling molecules.

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Steroids

A type of lipid with a basic four-ring structure. They play diverse roles in the body, including as structural components of cell membranes, hormones, and signaling molecules. Examples include cholesterol, estrogen, and testosterone.

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Fatty acids

A type of lipid with a long hydrocarbon chain and a carboxyl group at one end. They serve as a major source of energy, and some act as signaling molecules.

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Triglycerides

Energy storage molecules in the body, composed of glycerol esterified with three fatty acids (which can be the same or different).

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What are phospholipids?

A type of lipid that has both a hydrophilic (water-loving) head and a hydrophobic (water-fearing) tail.

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Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetase

A molecule that links a specific amino acid to its corresponding tRNA, ensuring the correct amino acid is incorporated into the growing polypeptide chain during translation.

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What is a lipid bilayer?

The basic structure of cell membranes, composed of two layers of phospholipids with their hydrophilic heads facing outward towards the aqueous environment and their hydrophobic tails facing inward.

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What is diffusion?

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, until the concentration is equal throughout.

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Peptide Bond

The covalent bond that forms between two amino acids during protein synthesis, linking them into a polypeptide chain.

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Ribosomes in Eukaryotes

The cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis, composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins, with two subunits: the larger 60S subunit and the smaller 40S subunit.

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What is osmosis?

The special type of diffusion where water molecules move across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration.

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What are protein transporters?

These proteins facilitate the movement of molecules across cell membranes, either passively (down the concentration gradient) or actively (against the concentration gradient) using energy.

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Translation Process

The process of translating genetic information encoded in mRNA into a polypeptide chain.

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What is the Sodium-Potassium pump?

An example of active transport where ATP is used to move sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell against their concentration gradients.

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Initiation (Translation)

The first step in translation where the initiator tRNA binds to the small subunit of the ribosome and recognizes the AUG start codon on the mRNA.

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What is endocytosis?

The process of taking in large molecules or particles into the cell by enclosing them in a vesicle formed from the cell membrane.

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Elongation (Translation)

The second step in translation where the large ribosomal subunit binds and the tRNA carrying the next amino acid enters the A site, forming a peptide bond with the previous amino acid.

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What is exocytosis?

The process of releasing large molecules or particles from the cell by enclosing them in a vesicle that fuses with the cell membrane.

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Termination (Translation)

The final step in translation where the ribosome encounters a stop codon on the mRNA, causing the release of the completed polypeptide chain from the ribosome.

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What is transcription?

The process of copying DNA into mRNA.

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Protein Sequence

The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain, determining its primary structure.

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α-Helix

A type of secondary structure in proteins characterized by a helical arrangement of amino acids stabilized by hydrogen bonds between backbone atoms.

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What is translation?

The process of reading the mRNA sequence to assemble a protein.

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What is a codon?

A sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid.

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β-Sheet

A type of secondary structure in proteins characterized by extended polypeptide chains arranged in a pleated sheet conformation, stabilized by hydrogen bonds between backbone atoms.

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What is DNA replication?

The process of separating the two strands of DNA, each serving as a template for a new strand.

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Tertiary Structure

The overall three-dimensional shape of a protein, resulting from interactions between amino acid side chains and the polypeptide backbone.

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Quaternary Structure

The arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits) in a protein complex, stabilized by interactions between subunits.

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What is tRNA?

A special type of RNA that carries amino acids to the ribosome to be assembled into a protein.

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What is helicase?

The enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix during replication.

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Non-Covalent Interactions

The weak non-covalent interactions that contribute to protein structure, including hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, salt bridges, van der Waals forces, and disulphide bridges.

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What is DNA polymerase?

The enzyme that adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand during replication, following the base pairing rules.

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Disulphide Bridge

A covalent bond formed between the side chains of two cysteine residues, contributing to protein stability.

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Protein Structure Disruption

Factors that can disrupt protein structure, including heat, pH extremes, detergents, chaotropic agents, and chemical modifications.

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Blood clotting (Haemostasis)

A process that involves the activation of blood proteins in a cascade, leading to the formation of a fibrin network that stabilizes the platelet plug, ultimately converting blood into a gel.

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Primary Haemostasis

The initial phase of blood clotting that involves the formation of a platelet plug at the site of vessel damage.

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Secondary Haemostasis

The second phase of blood clotting that involves the activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of a fibrin network that strengthens and stabilizes the platelet plug.

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Platelet Plug Formation

The process by which platelets adhere to collagen fibers exposed at the site of vessel damage, activating a chain reaction that leads to platelet aggregation and plug formation.

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von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

A protein found in plasma that facilitates the adhesion of platelets to collagen fibers in damaged vessels, playing a critical role in platelet plug formation.

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Extrinsic Pathway

A pathway of the clotting cascade initiated by tissue factor, which is exposed on the outer surface of cells in subendothelial tissue, leading to thrombin activation and fibrin formation.

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Intrinsic Pathway

A pathway of the clotting cascade activated by contact with collagen or a glass surface in vitro, leading to the generation of small amounts of thrombin, which then amplifies the process.

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Thrombin

A crucial enzyme in the clotting cascade responsible for cleaving fibrinogen into fibrin, activating factor XIII, and amplifying thrombin generation.

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Enzyme

An enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of substrates to products, playing a vital role in biological processes by lowering the activation energy of reactions.

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Lock and Key Model

A model of enzyme catalysis where the enzyme's active site is pre-shaped to fit the substrate like a lock and key.

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Induced Fit Model

A model of enzyme catalysis where the enzyme's active site changes shape upon binding the substrate, facilitating a better fit.

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Enzyme Catalysis

The process of lowering the activation energy of a reaction, making it easier for the reaction to occur, a key function of enzymes.

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Thermodynamic Catalysis

A type of catalysis where enzymes use non-covalent interactions like hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions to bind to substrates and promote reaction.

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Chemical Catalysis

A type of catalysis where enzymes utilize interactions like holding reacting groups close together, orienting them correctly, and altering their shapes to promote a reaction.

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Gelation

The ability to convert a liquid solution into a gel-like state, as seen in blood clotting, where fibrin polymers form a mesh-like network.

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Agonist

A signaling molecule that binds to a receptor and activates it, triggering a cellular response.

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Affinity

The strength of a drug's binding to a receptor.

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Efficacy

The ability of a drug to activate a receptor and produce a biological effect.

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Concentration-response curve

A graph that shows the relationship between the concentration of a drug and its effect on a biological system.

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Emax

The maximum effect a drug can produce.

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EC50

The concentration of a drug needed to produce 50% of the maximum effect.

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Potency

The concentration of a drug required to produce a certain effect.

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Partial agonist

An agonist that does not produce a full response, even at high concentrations.

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Inverse agonist

A drug that reduces the activity of a receptor, even in the absence of an agonist.

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Biased agonism

Different agonists activating the same receptor, but producing different effects.

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Antagonist

A molecule that binds to a receptor but does not activate it.

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Competitive antagonist

A type of antagonist that competes with agonists for the same binding site on a receptor.

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Irreversible antagonist

A type of antagonist that binds irreversibly to the receptor, permanently reducing its activity.

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Allosteric modulator

A molecule that binds to a site other than the main binding site on a receptor, modifying its response to agonists.

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pA2 value

A measure of antagonist potency, with higher values indicating more potent antagonists.

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Km

The concentration of substrate at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax.

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kcat

The number of substrate molecules converted to product by one enzyme molecule per unit time, reflecting the efficiency of the enzyme.

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Enzyme Inhibitor

A substance that binds to an enzyme and inhibits its activity, which can be reversible or irreversible.

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Competitive Inhibition

A type of enzyme inhibition where the inhibitor competes with the substrate for the active site of the enzyme.

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Non-competitive Inhibition

A type of enzyme inhibition where the inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme other than the active site, changing the enzyme's conformation and reducing its activity.

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Uncompetitive Inhibition

A type of enzyme inhibition where the inhibitor binds to the enzyme-substrate complex, leading to a decrease in both Vmax and Km.

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Tight-binding Inhibition

A type of enzyme inhibition where the inhibitor binds tightly to the enzyme, often causing a prolonged inhibition.

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Irreversible Inhibition

A type of enzyme inhibition where the inhibitor permanently alters the enzyme's structure, leading to irreversible inactivation.

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Pharmacology

The study of drugs and their actions on living organisms.

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Receptor

A protein that binds to a specific ligand and initiates a cellular response.

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Ligand

A molecule that binds to a receptor, such as a neurotransmitter or hormone.

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Signal transduction

A chain of events that transduces a signal from the cell surface to the inside of the cell, leading to a specific cellular response.

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Reversible Antagonism

The ability of an antagonist to be overcome by a sufficiently high concentration of agonist.

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Schild Plot

A graph used to quantify the antagonism between a drug and its receptor.

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Synapse

The point of contact between two nerve cells, allowing electrical signals to transmit.

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Chemical Synapse

A synapse that uses chemicals, specifically neurotransmitters, to transmit signals.

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Electrical Synapse

A synapse that allows direct flow of ions and molecules through gap junctions, enabling rapid communication.

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Neurotransmitter

A chemical messenger released by a neuron that binds to receptors on another neuron or target cell.

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Neurotransmitter Release

The process by which neurotransmitters are packaged into vesicles and released into the synapse.

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Neurotransmitter Receptors

Two major types of neurotransmitter receptors: ionotropic and metabotropic.

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Ionotropic Receptors

A type of neurotransmitter receptor that directly opens an ion channel upon binding.

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Metabotropic Receptors

A type of neurotransmitter receptor that activates G proteins, triggering a cascade of intracellular signaling events.

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Neuromuscular Junction

The junction between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber, where acetylcholine is released to trigger muscle contraction.

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What are active sites?

Active sites are regions on enzymes where substrates bind and reactions occur. They are characterized by hydrophobic residues, the ability to alter the pKa of sidechains, and the exclusion of bulk solvent while allowing charged groups to participate.

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What are cofactors and coenzymes?

Enzymes use cofactors like metal ions and coenzymes like nucleotides to assist in catalysis. These cofactors often originate from vitamins and minerals and play crucial roles in enzyme function.

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What is enzyme stereospecificity?

Enzymes are highly specific in their actions, interacting with substrates in a chiral manner, meaning they only recognize and interact with specific orientations of molecules. This specificity helps to ensure high efficiency and control over chemical reactions.

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How do enzymes increase the rate of reactions?

Reducing the degrees of freedom of a substrate, by binding it tightly in the active site, can lead to a higher reaction rate. Enzymes use this principle to enhance reaction speeds.

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What types of chemistry are involved in enzyme reactions?

Enzymes often catalyze reactions using simple chemistry, involving common chemical transformations like carbonyl chemistry. They also play a critical role in controlling stereochemistry, ensuring the formation of the desired product

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What are the different types of enzymes and their functions?

Hydrolases break down molecules by adding water, nucleases break down nucleic acids, proteases break down proteins, kinases add phosphate groups, phosphatases remove phosphate groups, ATPases break down ATP, polymerases synthesize polymers, synthases synthesize molecules, oxidoreductases catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions, and isomerases rearrange molecules.

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Describe the acyl-substitution reaction mechanism.

Acyl-substitution reactions are common in enzyme catalysis. This mechanism involves activating a nucleophile in the active site, then performing acyl substitution using the nucleophile, and finally regenerating the enzyme through acyl substitution by water.

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How does chymotrypsin work?

Chymotrypsin is an example of an enzyme that uses the acyl-substitution mechanism. It involves activating a nucleophile, forming an acyl-enzyme intermediate, and finally hydrolyzing this intermediate to release the product and regenerate the enzyme.

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Explain the mechanisms by which enzymes lower activation energy.

Enzymes generally reduce the activation energy of a reaction, making it easier for the reaction to proceed. They achieve this by various strategies, including entropic effects, bond stretching and bending, acid/base catalysis, nucleophilic catalysis, and removing bulk solvent while utilizing ordered water molecules.

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What is enzyme kinetics?

Enzyme kinetics is about understanding the behavior of enzymes, determining their speed of action, and quantifying their properties. It involves studying how enzymes interact with substrates and their products.

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What is the Michaelis-Menten model?

The Michaelis-Menten model describes a simple enzyme system involving a single substrate and a rate-limiting step in the formation of the enzyme-substrate complex. This model is crucial for understanding basic enzyme behavior and quantifying their activity.

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What is the Michaelis-Menten curve?

The Michaelis-Menten curve illustrates the relationship between enzyme reaction rate and substrate concentration. Key parameters include Vmax, representing the maximum reaction rate, and Km, the substrate concentration at which the rate is half of Vmax.

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Why do enzyme reactions saturate?

Enzyme reactions saturate when all the active sites on the enzyme are occupied by substrate molecules. At this point, the reaction rate reaches its maximum value, known as Vmax, and adding more substrate won't increase the rate.

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What is the Michaelis-Menten equation?

The Michaelis-Menten equation relates the reaction rate (v) to substrate concentration (S), Vmax (maximum velocity), and Km (the substrate concentration at which v = 0.5 Vmax). This equation provides insights into how enzymes behave at different substrate levels.

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Describe enzyme kinetics at low and high substrate concentrations.

At low substrate concentrations, the reaction rate increases linearly with increasing substrate concentration (first-order kinetics). At high substrate concentrations, the rate plateaus and becomes independent of substrate concentration (zero-order kinetics).

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What are the assumptions of the steady-state model?

The steady-state model assumes that the enzyme concentration is much lower than the substrate concentration, the substrate concentration remains constant, the enzyme-substrate complex concentration remains constant, product binds weakly to the enzyme, and the rate of product conversion to substrate is negligible. These assumptions help simplify the analysis of enzyme kinetics and make it more manageable.

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Hypopolarisation

The initial increase of the membrane potential to the threshold potential, bringing the neuron closer to firing an action potential.

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Depolarisation

The rapid change in membrane potential from resting potential to a more positive value, driven by the influx of sodium ions.

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Overshoot

The peak of the action potential where the membrane potential becomes very positive, exceeding the resting membrane potential.

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Repolarisation

The return of the membrane potential from the positive peak back towards the resting potential, driven by the efflux of potassium ions.

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Hyperpolarisation/Undershoot

A brief period after repolarization where the membrane potential becomes even more negative than the resting potential, due to the continued efflux of potassium ions.

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Voltage-gated ion channels

Specialized proteins embedded in the cell membrane that open and close in response to changes in membrane potential, enabling the flow of ions across the membrane.

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Absolute refractory period

The period during which a neuron cannot generate another action potential, no matter how strong the stimulus.

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Relative refractory period

The period during which a neuron can generate another action potential, but only if the stimulus is strong enough to overcome the lingering hyperpolarization.

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Action potential propagation

The movement of an action potential down the axon, utilizing the local flow of electrical current between adjacent membrane patches.

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Saltatory conduction

The process of speeding up action potential conduction by 'jumping' from one node of Ranvier to the next, skipping over myelinated sections.

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Schwann cell

A specialized cell that produces and maintains the myelin sheath, a fatty layer that insulates axons and speeds up nerve impulse conduction.

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Demyelination

The process of losing the myelin sheath that insulates axons, leading to slower and less efficient nerve conduction.

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Graded potentials

Changes in membrane potential that vary in magnitude with the strength of the stimulus, and can be either excitatory (making the neuron more likely to fire) or inhibitory (making the neuron less likely to fire).

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Dendrite

The specialized structure of the neuron that receives signals from other neurons.

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Soma

The body of the neuron, containing the nucleus and other organelles.

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Axon

The long, slender extension of a neuron that transmits signals to other neurons or effector cells.

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Autonomic Nervous System

The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary bodily functions, such as heart rate, digestion, and breathing.

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Neurons

Specialized nerve cells that release chemicals called neurotransmitters to communicate with other cells.

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Norepinephrine

A type of neurotransmitter that is involved in the 'fight or flight' response.

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Acetylcholine

A type of neurotransmitter that is involved in the 'rest and digest' response.

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Muscarinic Receptor

A type of receptor that binds to acetylcholine.

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Adrenoceptor

A type of receptor that binds to norepinephrine.

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Flexor Reflex

A type of reflex that involves the withdrawal of a limb from a painful stimulus.

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Reflex Arc

The pathway that a reflex signal travels through, involving a receptor, afferent nerve, integration center, efferent nerve, and effector.

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Proprioception

The sense of body position and movement.

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Photoreceptor

A type of receptor that detects light.

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Skeletal Muscle

A type of muscle that is attached to bone and is responsible for voluntary movement.

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Sarcomere

The basic unit of contraction in skeletal muscle.

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Muscle Contraction

The process by which skeletal muscle contracts.

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What establishes the resting membrane potential?

The resting membrane potential is determined by the balance between the diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell and the influx of potassium ions from the sodium-potassium pumps.

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What are potassium leak channels?

It's the main component of the resting membrane potential, enabling potassium ions to leak out of the cell and contribute to the negative charge inside the neuron.

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What is the Nernst equation and what does it calculate?

The Nernst equation calculates the theoretical equilibrium potential for an ion based on its concentration gradient across the membrane.

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What is the Goldman equation and how does it differ from the Nernst equation?

The Goldman equation accounts for the relative permeability of the membrane to different ions, providing a more realistic calculation of the resting membrane potential.

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What are the major landmarks of the human brain?

The cerebral cortex, cerebellum, midbrain, and brainstem.

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What is the somatosensory cortex and what does it do?

It receives sensory input from the body, organized as a map of sensory areas known as the homunculus.

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What is the motor cortex and what does it do?

It sends motor commands to the spinal cord, also organized as a homunculus. It's responsible for voluntary movement.

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What are Wernicke's and Broca's areas and what roles they play?

They are involved in language processing. Wernicke's area is linked to language comprehension, while Broca's area is associated with speech production.

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What are neurotransmitters?

They are the chemical messengers that transmit signals between neurons at synapses.

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What is the sympathetic nervous system?

It is responsible for 'fight or flight' responses by activating the sympathetic nervous system.

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What is the parasympathetic nervous system?

It is responsible for 'rest and digest' responses by activating the parasympathetic nervous system.

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What are preganglionic and postganglionic fibers?

They are the connections between neurons in the autonomic nervous system, with preganglionic neurons originating from the CNS and postganglionic neurons projecting to target organs.

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What are preganglionic and postganglionic fibers?

They are the connections between neurons in the autonomic nervous system, with preganglionic neurons originating from the CNS and postganglionic neurons projecting to target organs.

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What is acetylcholine (ACh) and why is it important?

It's a neurotransmitter that plays a key role in the autonomic nervous system, involved in both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

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What are adrenoceptors and muscarinic receptors?

They are G-protein-coupled receptors that bind to neurotransmitters like Adrenaline (Adr) and Noradrenaline (NA), initiating various physiological effects.

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Sliding Filament Mechanism

The fundamental process of muscle contraction, involving the interaction of actin and myosin filaments, which slide past each other to generate force.

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Troponin C

A globular protein that binds to calcium, playing a crucial role in regulating muscle contraction.

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Troponin I

A protein that inhibits muscle contraction by blocking the binding site for myosin on actin.

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Troponin T

A protein that binds to tropomyosin, anchoring it to the actin filament.

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Tropomyosin

A protein that wraps around the actin filament, regulating the interaction between actin and myosin.

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Myosin

A protein that forms the thick filaments in muscle, responsible for generating force during contraction.

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Actin

A protein that forms the thin filaments in muscle, providing the binding site for myosin.

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Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ)

A specialized structure at the junction between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber, where nerve impulses are transmitted to the muscle.

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Acetylcholine (ACh)

A neurotransmitter released from nerve endings at the NMJ, triggering muscle contraction.

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Nicotinic Acetylcholine Receptor

A receptor protein on the muscle fiber that binds to ACh, initiating muscle contraction.

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Fast-Twitch Fiber

A type of skeletal muscle fiber that contracts rapidly and uses anaerobic metabolism for energy.

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Slow-Twitch Fiber

A type of skeletal muscle fiber that contracts slowly and uses aerobic metabolism for energy.

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Myosin Heavy Chain

The protein that is the primary component of thick filaments in muscle, responsible for the speed of muscle contraction.

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Cardiac Muscle

A type of muscle found in the heart, responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.

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Intercalated Discs

Specialized junctions between cardiac muscle cells that allow for the transmission of electrical and mechanical signals.

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What is the structure of cardiac muscle?

Cardiac muscle is composed of branched interconnecting cardiomyocytes that are electrically connected through intercalated discs. These cells have a striated appearance due to the organized arrangement of actin and myosin.

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What role do pacemaker cells play in the heart?

Pacemaker cells regulate heart rate by initiating electrical impulses that spread through the heart, causing contraction.

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Describe smooth muscle.

Smooth muscle is involuntary, not attached to bone, and its cells (myocytes) have a fusiform shape. It's found in various organs like airways and blood vessels.

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What is single-unit smooth muscle?

Single-unit smooth muscle is characterized by sheets or bundles of fibers interconnected by gap junctions, allowing for synchronous contraction as a syncytium. It is found in organs like the intestine and bladder.

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What is multi-unit smooth muscle?

Multi-unit smooth muscle has few or no gap junctions, enabling fine-grained control through neural or hormonal signals. It is found in large arteries and airways.

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How does smooth muscle contraction occur?

Smooth muscle contraction is initiated by calcium binding to calmodulin, which then activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) to phosphorylate myosin, leading to cross-bridge cycling.

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How is smooth muscle contraction terminated?

The termination of smooth muscle contraction is regulated by myosin light chain phosphatase (MLCP), which dephosphorylates myosin, and MLCK, which phosphorylates it when calcium levels are high.

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Where does calcium come from during smooth muscle contraction?

Smooth muscle cross-bridge cycling involves calcium from both the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) and extracellular influx through voltage-gated calcium channels.

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What factors regulate smooth muscle contraction?

Smooth muscle contraction can be influenced by various factors like spontaneous electrical activity, neurotransmitter release, hormones, and mechanical stretch.

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What role do interstitial cells of Cajal (ICCs) play in gastric motility?

Interstitial cells of Cajal (ICCs) are pacemaker cells in the digestive system that generate slow waves, propagating them to surrounding smooth muscle cells via gap junctions, leading to peristalsis.

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Describe peristalsis.

Peristalsis is a rhythmic contraction of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract, initiated by slow waves, that helps move food along the digestive tract.

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How is smooth muscle stimulated by nerves?

Neural stimulation of smooth muscle is mediated by varicosities, swellings of autonomic neurons that release neurotransmitters to either contract or relax smooth muscle.

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Describe the acetylcholine receptor family.

The acetylcholine receptor family includes nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are ion channels, while muscarinic receptors are G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) that activate phospholipase C.

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How is smooth muscle involved in lung diseases?

Smooth muscle and lung diseases like asthma and COPD are associated with bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy. Beta-adrenergic agonists are used as therapeutics in these conditions.

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How are vascular smooth muscle cells involved in atherosclerosis?

Vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMCs) play a significant role in atherosclerosis by invading early lesions and forming a protective fibrous cap. They undergo phenotypic switching during this process.

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Study Notes

Cell Membrane Structure and Function

  • Cell membranes are composed primarily of phospholipids forming a lipid bilayer, with polar head groups facing water and lipophilic tails facing each other.
  • Cholesterol and proteins are also embedded within the membrane, influencing its fluidity and function.
  • Membranes exhibit selective permeability, allowing some molecules to pass more easily than others, based on factors like size and charge.
  • Molecules move across membranes through diffusion, osmosis, protein transporters (passive and active), and vesicular transport (endocytosis/exocytosis).
  • Specific transport proteins, like the sodium-potassium pump, use energy (ATP) to move ions against their concentration gradients.

Biological Molecules

  • Biological molecules include nucleic acids (DNA, RNA), proteins (amino acids, polypeptides), lipids (fatty acids, triglycerides, steroids), and carbohydrates (monosaccharides, disaccharides, polysaccharides).
  • Carbohydrates are crucial for energy storage and cell structure. Monosaccharides (glucose, galactose) form disaccharides (sucrose) and polysaccharides (glycogen), storing glucose for energy.
  • Lipids, including triglycerides (stored in adipose tissue), phospholipids (major component of cell membranes), and steroids (e.g., cholesterol, hormones), have diverse functions.

DNA Replication

  • DNA replication is semi-conservative, with each new DNA molecule containing one original and one newly synthesized strand.
  • Helicase unwinds the DNA double helix.
  • Single-strand binding proteins prevent re-annealing.
  • Topoisomerase relieves the stress on the DNA molecule.
  • RNA primers are needed for DNA polymerase to begin adding nucleotides.
  • DNA polymerase builds new strands in the 5' to 3' direction.
  • The lagging strand is synthesized in Okazaki fragments.
  • DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments.
  • Proofreading mechanisms ensure high accuracy (1 in 1 billion base pairing errors).

DNA Functions: Replication, Transcription, and Translation

  • DNA stores genetic information and directs protein synthesis through transcription and translation
  • Transcription produces mRNA from a DNA template.
  • RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA in 5'→3'.
  • Transcription begins at promoters and ends at terminator sequences. RNA polymerase termination occurs when it encounters specific sequences like T-rich region or hairpin loops.
  • Translation uses mRNA to translate the code into a polypeptide chain in ribosomes.

Amino Acids and Protein Structure

  • Proteins are composed of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
  • The primary structure is the linear sequence of amino acids.
  • Secondary structures include α-helices and β-sheets, stabilized by hydrogen bonds.
  • Tertiary structure is the overall 3D arrangement of the polypeptide chain.
  • Quaternary structure involves the interaction of multiple polypeptide chains (subunits).
  • Protein structure is stabilized by multiple weak non-covalent interactions (hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, salt bridges, van der Waals) and occasionally covalent bonds (disulfide bridges).

Enzyme Function and Catalysis

  • Enzymes catalyze biochemical reactions by lowering activation energy.
  • Enzymes bind substrates in the active site (using induced fit and lock-and-key models).
  • Most enzymes use cofactors and/or coenzymes (derived from vitamins and minerals).
  • Enzymes are often stereospecific, meaning they catalyze reactions selectively.

Enzyme Kinetics

  • Enzyme kinetics describes how enzyme activity varies with substrate concentration.
  • The Michaelis-Menten equation describes the relationship between reaction rate and substrate concentration (factors Km and Vmax).
  • Vmax is the maximum reaction rate.
  • Km is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax.
  • kcat is the turnover number, or the maximum number of substrate molecules an enzyme can convert per unit time.
  • kcat/Km is a measure of enzyme efficiency.

Enzyme Inhibition

  • Inhibitors bind to enzymes and reduce their activity, affecting Km and/or Vmax.
  • Various types of inhibition exist (competitive, non-competitive, mixed, uncompetitive, irreversible).
  • Inhibitors, like drugs, can be used to treat various diseases.

Pharmacology and Receptors

  • Receptors are proteins that respond to external signals, initiating intracellular response.
  • Various receptor types exist (ligand-gated ion channels, G protein-coupled receptors, kinase-linked receptors, nuclear receptors).
  • Drugs target these receptors (and other proteins) to treat diseases.
  • Agonists activate receptors, and antagonists block them.
  • Different types of agonists (full, partial, inverse, biased) exhibit various effects.

Neurotransmission and Synapses

  • Neurotransmitters transmit signals between neurons at synapses.
  • Criteria for identifying neurotransmitters include presence, release, receptor specificity, and removal mechanisms.
  • Neurotransmitters are categorized (e.g., amines, amino acids).
  • Synapses are chemical or electrical, with chemical synapses using neurotransmitters.

Action Potentials and Graded Potentials

  • Neurons communicate through action potentials, which are rapid, transient changes in membrane voltage.
  • Action potentials follow the "all-or-none" law, requiring a threshold stimulus to occur.
  • Phases include depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization.
  • Refractory periods prevent rapid and repeated firing.
  • Propagation occurs through local current spread, affected by myelination and axon diameter.
  • Graded potentials are local changes in membrane potential, varying in magnitude.

Neuron Structure and Function

  • Neurons have distinct cellular structures (dendrites, soma, axon).
  • Different neuron types exist (multipolar, unipolar, bipolar, and anaxonic).
  • Neurons are electrically excitable, with a resting membrane potential.

Brain Anatomy and Function

  • The brain has distinct regions (cortex, cerebellum, midbrain, brainstem) with specialized functions.
  • Function localization is described by Brodmann's areas. Neural pathways connect brain regions.

Autonomic Nervous System

  • The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary functions, divided into sympathetic (fight-or-flight) and parasympathetic (rest-and-digest) divisions.
  • Different neurotransmitters and receptor types are involved (e.g., acetylcholine, adrenaline, noradrenaline; various subtypes of adrenergic & muscarinic receptors).

Reflexes and Senses

  • Reflexes involve a stimulus, a receptor, an afferent pathway, an integration center, an efferent pathway, and an effector.
  • Different sensory modalities exist (touch, sight, smell, taste).

Skeletal Muscle

  • Skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle attached to bone.
  • Its functional unit is the sarcomere, containing myosin and actin filaments, regulated by troponin-tropomyosin.
  • Sliding filament mechanism drives muscle contraction.
  • The neuromuscular junction is the site of synapse between motor neurons and muscle fibers.

Cardiac Muscle

  • Cardiac muscle is involuntary, branched, interconnected, and electrically coupled.
  • Cardiac myocytes are joined by intercalated discs.
  • Pacemaker cells in the SA node spontaneously generate action potentials.
  • Calcium-induced calcium release is a key component of cardiac excitation-contraction coupling.

Smooth Muscle

  • Smooth muscle is involuntary, found in various organs, and characterized by its fusiform shape.
  • Its contraction mechanism involves calcium, calmodulin, and myosin light-chain kinase.
  • Smooth muscle contraction and relaxation are regulated by various factors (neural input, hormones, stretch).

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Test your knowledge on carbohydrates, lipids, and their functions in the human body. This quiz covers key concepts such as the structure of triglycerides, the role of polysaccharides, and the functions of glycoproteins and glycolipids. Perfect for students studying biological macromolecules.

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