Lympathic system/ immunity/ ears and eyes
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Questions and Answers

Fluid moves in the ............ direction as veins.

  • same (correct)
  • opposite
  • horizontal
  • random

The first function of the lymphatic system is to drain ................... containing fluid to ................

protein, blood

The lymphatic circulation is a drainage system and its job in maintaining fluid balance to collect excess ...................... and return it to the .................

  • interstitial (correct)
  • blood (correct)
  • protein
  • plasma

Lymph capillaries are ............. to blood capillaries.

<p>parallel (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following has a closed-ended tube?

<p>Lymph capillaries (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has an open ended tube?

<p>Blood Capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has a larger lumen? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>Lymph Capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has a smaller lumen size? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>blood capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has a regular lumen? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>blood capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has an irregular lumen? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>Lymph Capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is less permeable? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>blood capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is more permeable? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>Lymph capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has non overlapping endothelial cells? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>blood capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has overlapping cells? Blood Capillaries or Lymph Capillaries?

<p>Lymph Capillaries</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lymphatic capillaries or vessels are NOT found in?

<p>CNS (brain and spinal cord) (A), Avascular tissue (epidermis and cartilage) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which has thinner walls? Veins or Lymphatic vessels?

<p>lymphatic vessels</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lymphatic Vessels have a larger lumen than veins?

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Veins posses more valves than lymphatic vessels?

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the largest lymphatic vessels or ducts?

<p>Thoracic duct or Left Lymphatic (A), Right lymphatic duct (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Left Lymphatic or Thoracic duct drains to the left side of the body ............. to the ribs, and empties into junction of the ............... ................. ................ vein and the ......... ............ vein.

<p>inferior, left internal jugular, left subclavian</p> Signup and view all the answers

The right Lymphatic Duct drains the .............. ................. area, and empties into junction of the right ...................... ................ vein and the ................. ................ vein.

Signup and view all the answers

Lymphatic from the lower portion of the body converge to form a dilated lymph vessel called the .............. ................, of the abdominal cavity. At the level of the ................ thoracic vertebrae, it then narrows and becomes the ................ thoracic duct.

<p>cisterna chyli, 12th left thoracic duct</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lymphatic Vessels from all over the body, except the ............ .............. ............, drain into the ............. thoracic duct.

<p>right upper quadrant, left</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lymph is continually emptied into the blood where it mixes with?

<p>plasma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Maintenance of Lymph flow from tissue spaces to large lymphatic ducts to the subclavian veins is maintained by what 3 things?

<ol> <li>milking action of skeletal muscles</li> <li>valves</li> <li>respiratory movements</li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

In order to maintain Lymph Flow ............... ensure the movement of lymph toward the .................... veins

<p>valves, subclavian</p> Signup and view all the answers

Respiratory movements create a .............. between the two ends of the lymphatic system.

<p>pressure gradient (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lymph flows from the abdominal region where pressure is .............. to the thoracic region where it is ..............

<p>high, low</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lymph flows from the ............... region where the pressure is high, to the .................... region where it is low.

<p>abdominal, thoracic</p> Signup and view all the answers

The second function of the Lymphatic system is the absorption of ............ and ............... soluble vitamins from the ........ .......... to the venous .................

<p>fats, fat, Gi tract, blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

The GI tract possesses .......... which aid in absorption.

<p>villi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does villi aid in the GI tract?

<p>Absorption (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within the villus, which two structures are responsible for absorbing vitamins?

<p>Blood capillaries (A), Lymphatic capillaries (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within the Villus, which capillaries absorb nutrients excluding fat and fat-soluble vitamins?

<p>Blood capillaries (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within the villus, which capillaries absorb fat and fat-soluble vitamins?

<p>Lacteals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lacteals have a milky appearance due to what in the lymphatic capillaries?

<p>High fat content (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The third function of the Lymphatic system is defense against .................. and ....................

<p>microorganisms and disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 7 components that lymphatic system and immune system?

<ol> <li>Thymus Gland</li> <li>Spleen</li> <li>Lymph Nodes</li> <li>Lymph Nodules</li> <li>WBC</li> <li>Antibodies</li> <li>Antimicrobial Chemicals</li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is less organized than lymph nodes and found under mucous membranes?

<p>Lymph nodules (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 4 antimicrobial chemicals that is one of the component's to the immune and lymphatic system?

<p>complement, immunoglobulins. interferon, interleukins</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the main three functions of the lymphatic system? (Select all that apply)

<p>Draining interstitial fluid to the blood (A), Absorption of fats from GI to venous blood (B), Defense against microorganisms and disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the location of the thymus gland?

<p>neck and thorax anterior to heart (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the thymus gland during puberty?

<p>it atrophies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the thymus during childhood?

<p>enlarges and reaches maximal size (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The thymus gland is a component of which two systems?

<p>Endocrine and immune systems (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The endocrine system of the Thymus produces thymic hormones called:

<p>cytokines (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The endocrine portion of the Thymus produces cytokines, these are responsible for ............. T Cell production.

<p>Regulating (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The immune system portion of the thymus is responsible for ................ T Cells.

<p>producing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main structures of the Thymus?

<p>Cortex and Medulla (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure of the Thymus contains many tightly packed lymphocytes?

<p>Cortex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure of the Thymus produces new T lymphocytes?

<p>Cortex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The thymus generates no new immune response of its own but rather ............ .............. with an immune potential.

<p>supplies cells (A), trains lymphocytes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Medulla structure of the Thymus contains oval structures called ............. ................. which are unique and the function is unclear.

<p>Hassall's Corpuscles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure of the Thymus does NOT produce T lymphocytes?

<p>Medulla (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The goal of the Thymus is to produce what?

<p>T lymphocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

T Lymphocytes are found in ............. ............ in red bone marrow and then travel to the thymus gland for differentiation.

<p>stem cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After T Lymphocytes exit the thymus gland via ................. lymphatic vessels they enter the blood as ............. .... cells.

<p>efferent, mature T (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The thymus has no ..................... lymphatics because lymph does not enter the gland.

<p>afferent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 4 major location of Lymph Nodes?

<ol> <li>Abdominal Nodes</li> <li>Neck (cervical Nodes</li> <li>Axillary Noes</li> <li>Inguinal Nodes</li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 7 structures of the Lymph node?

<p>1, Afferent Lymphatic Vessels 2. Efferent Lymphatic Vessels 3. Fibrous Capsule 4. Trabeculae 5, Hilum 6. Cortex 7. Medulla</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many afferent lymphatic vessels are there?

<p>Several (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many efferent lymphatic vessels are there?

<p>1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Afferent Lymphatic vessels are motor or sensory?

<p>Sensory</p> Signup and view all the answers

Efferent Lymphatic vessels are motor or sensory?

<p>motor</p> Signup and view all the answers

Nodes are typically small in size but when the body is exposed to infection the T Lymphocytes differentiate and ............ the node.

<p>enlarge (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the thick covering of a lymph node called?

<p>Fibrous Capsule (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the inward pointing divisions of the lymphatic capsule?

<p>Trabeculae (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the blood vessels entering a lymph node typically located?

<p>At the hilum of the node (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tissues contains densely packed lymphocytes arranged in masses called lymphatic nodules?

<p>cortex (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The cortex is populated with many:

<p>Lymphocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure of the lymph node has lymphocytes arranged in strands called medullary cords, which contain macrophages attached to reticular cells?

<p>Medulla (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure consists of small masses of lymph tissue that produce lymphocytes?

<p>Lymph nodules (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are lymph nodules found?

<p>moist epithelial membranes in the respiratory tract, intestine, urinary tract (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What 3 moist places are lymph nodes mostly found in?

<p>Respiratory tract, intestine, urinary tract (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are examples of lymph nodules?

<p>Peyer’s patches on small intestine, 3 types of tonsils, vermiform appendix on cecum of large intestine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered to be the largest of the lymphatic organs?

<p>Spleen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The spleen is ........... in blood, Lymph nodes filter lymph. as opposed to the spleen filtering............

<p>rich, blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main functions of the spleen?

<p>Immune Function (A), Filtration Function (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the spleen, the immune function removes blood __________ __________.

<p>borne antigens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The filtration function of the spleen removes and destructs ........... ............ blood cells.

<p>aged defective (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Just like the thymus, the spleen possesses only which type of vessels?

<p>efferent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The anterior surface of the spleen is covered with:

<p>peritoneum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The spleen is enclosed in a fibroelastic capsule that dips into the organ, forming ...............

<p>trabeculae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Splenic vessels (large in size) enter the concave portion of the spleen called the ....................?

<p>hilus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

These large vessels will divide into smaller splenic vessels that run inside the trabeculae. These vessels are enclosed by a thick sleeve of lymphoid tissue called the .............. of the spleen.

<p>white pulp (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two types of splenic pulp?

<p>White Pulp and Red Pulp (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which kind of pulp is associated with thick lymphoid tissue where blood-borne antigens enter and are destroyed during an immune response?

<p>White pulp (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the lymphoid tissue (White Pulp), you will find a large number of which of the following cells?

<p>B-cells, T-cells, and macrophages (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the splenic pulp that is suffused with blood?

<p>Red pulp (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Between the spleen sinuses there are splenic cords known as ............ of ........... which contain macrophages, function primarily to remove red blood cells and filtration function.

<p>Cords of Bilroth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cords of Bilroth contain macrophages which function primarily to remove .......... cells.

<p>RBC (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for the surgical removal of the spleen?

<p>Splenectomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are the 3 types of tonsils?

<p>Pharyngeal Tonsils (Adenoids) (A), Palatine Tonsils (2) (B), Lingual Tonsil (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the three tonsils is located in the nasopharynx?

<p>Pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tonsils is located at the base of the tongue?

<p>Lingual tonsils (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the 3 tonsils is commonly removed by a tonsillectomy?

<p>Palatine tonsils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Functionally, what do the tonsils produce?

<p>Lymphocytes and antibodies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are antibodies called immunoglobulins?

<p>They are part of a protein class called globulins and because they conduct an immune response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Antibodies are found in what two places?

<p>Blood and Lymph (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are 5 Classes of Immunoglobulins (Antibodies)

<p>IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the 5 immunoglobulins is found in all body fluids, is the most common type, is very important in fighting bacterial and viral infections, and is the only one that can pass across the placenta?

<p>IgG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following immunoglobulins is found in areas that are exposed to outside foreign substances, such as the nose and breathing passageways, digestive tract, ears, eyes, saliva, blood, tears, and breastmilk?

<p>IgA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is found in blood and lymph fluid and is the first type of antibody made during infection?

<p>IgM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin is found in the lungs, skin, and mucous membranes, and has high levels in people with allergies due to its reaction with pollen, spores, and animal dander?

<p>IgE (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibody is found in small amounts under the belly and chest, and whose function is unclear?

<p>IgD (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Many (not all) leukocytes cannot reproduce, so they are manufactured by what?

<p>Red bone marrow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

All blood cells (erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes) develop from ................ in red bone marrow.

<p>stem cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main classes of leukocytes?

<p>Granulocytes and Agranulocytes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cells contain granules?

<p>granulocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of white blood cells do not contain granules?

<p>Agranulocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are the three classes of granulocytes?

<p>Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell is associated with allergic reactions and parasites?

<p>Basophils (A), Eosinophils (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of leukocyte in the human body?

<p>Neutrophils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following granulocytes is attracted to bacteria, foreign material, and inflammation, performing chemotaxis and phagocytosis?

<p>Neutrophils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of white blood cells are less common than neutrophils?

<p>Eosinophils (A), Basophils (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of white blood cell is named because its granules stain red with the dye eosin and is attracted to:

  1. parasites in the skin and lungs
  2. allergic conditions (hay fever, asthma, etc.) because they secrete histamine?

<p>Eosinophils (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the 2 classes of agranulocytes?

<p>Lymphocytes and Monocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two primary classes of lymphocytes?

<p>T cells and B cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

B cells mature in the:

<p>Bone marrow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cells mature in the thymus?

<p>T cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the cells located in the skin that are also known as Langerhans cells?

<p>Monocytes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered the second line of defense in the immune system?

<p>Chemicals (“Complement” and Interferon) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are groups of serum proteins normally found in blood?

<p>Complement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What protein is secreted when a virus is present?

<p>Interferon (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a form of cancer that is curable, usually arising in lymph nodes, the cause of which is unknown?

<p>Hodgkin's Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of neutrophils during an acute infection?

<p>To phagocytize bacteria and then die (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of inflammation?

<p>Loss of appetite (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of macrophages compared to neutrophils?

<p>Macrophages can survive longer than neutrophils (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does fever contribute to the immune response?

<p>It enhances the activity of immune cells and slows down pathogen replication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes cellular immunity from humoral immunity?

<p>Cellular immunity targets infected cells directly, whereas humoral immunity targets pathogens in body fluids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of T-cell inhibits the function of both B-cells and T-cells?

<p>Suppressor T-cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of antibodies produced by plasma cells?

<p>Neutralize and opsonize antigens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin class is the first type produced during an infection?

<p>IgM (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to memory T-cells upon reintroduction of a specific antigen?

<p>They clone itself to generate a faster response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are antibodies referred to as immunoglobulins?

<p>They belong to a class of proteins called globulins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of immune response is characterized by the action of T-cells and does not involve antibodies?

<p>Cell-mediated immunity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin class is specifically associated with allergic reactions and asthma?

<p>IgE (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of Helper T-cells in the immune response?

<p>To secrete substances that activate B-cells and other T-cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of pyrogens in relation to fever?

<p>To inhibit the growth of pathogens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes acquired natural active immunity from acquired natural passive immunity?

<p>Passive immunity is established through maternal transfer of antibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic of specific defense resistance refers to the system's ability to remember previous pathogens?

<p>Memory (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary symptom associated with inflammation?

<p>Increased local temperature (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of immunity is developed through the introduction of a vaccine?

<p>Acquired Artificial Active Immunity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the hypothalamus in relation to fever?

<p>To elevate body temperature (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes antibody-mediated immunity?

<p>It involves the production of antibodies by B cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of specific defense resistance?

<p>Cross-reactivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can trigger an increase in body temperature during fever?

<p>Release of pyrogens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of acquired immunity is obtained through the transfer of antibodies during breastfeeding?

<p>Acquired Natural Passive Immunity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the skin in the immune defense system?

<p>To provide a barrier that prevents pathogens from entering (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immune response is characterized by the production of antibodies?

<p>Humoral immunity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a major nonspecific defense mechanism in the immune system?

<p>Antibody production (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes inflammation as a response to infection or injury?

<p>Increase in blood flow and vascular permeability (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a symptom of fever?

<p>Increased metabolism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is responsible for the body's nonspecific immune response?

<p>Phagocytes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do mucous membranes play in immune defense?

<p>Trap and expel foreign particles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of acquired immunity is developed after exposure to pathogens?

<p>Natural active immunity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary benefit of fever during an infection?

<p>Inhibits the growth of pathogens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between cellular immunity and humoral immunity?

<p>Cellular immunity involves T cells, while humoral involves antibodies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does complement play in the immune response?

<p>It enhances phagocytosis and promotes inflammation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of interferon in the presence of a viral infection?

<p>It inhibits viral replication in neighboring cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes phagocytosis?

<p>The ingestion of pathogens by immune cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the activation of complement proteins?

<p>Activation occurs upon contact with foreign substances. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cells are primarily involved in the process of phagocytosis?

<p>Neutrophils and macrophages. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of humoral immunity?

<p>It primarily uses antibodies to target pathogens. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the immune response mediated by interferon?

<p>It enhances communication between infected and neighboring cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of immunity is characterized by the production of antibodies after exposure to an antigen?

<p>Acquired immunity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of complement activation on the immune response?

<p>It enhances inflammation and promotes phagocytosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does interferon increase resistance to viral infection?

<p>By inducing neighboring cells to produce antiviral proteins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of T-cell directly eliminates cells that harbor an offending antigen?

<p>Killer T-cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of immunity primarily involves the production of antibodies by plasma cells?

<p>Humoral immunity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of immunoglobulin is known for being the most prevalent in the body and for its ability to cross the placenta?

<p>IgG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of T-cell serves to inhibit the actions of B-cells and T-cells?

<p>Suppressor T-cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin is primarily associated with allergic reactions and is found in elevated levels in allergic individuals?

<p>IgE (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the nonspecific defense mechanisms of the immune system?

<p>They act against all pathogens and foreign substances indiscriminately. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a barrier in the first line of defense of the immune system?

<p>Antibodies produced by B cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of lysozymes found in tears and saliva in the immune system?

<p>They inhibit bacterial growth by breaking down their cell walls. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the barriers provided by the skin contributes to its defense against pathogens?

<p>Presence of tightly packed keratinized cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism among the following is primarily involved in the process of immune surveillance?

<p>Phagocytosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of mucous membranes in the immune system?

<p>They trap foreign particles entering the body. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fluid in the body is known to have antibacterial properties and serves as a defense mechanism?

<p>Urine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about inflammation is accurate?

<p>It is a nonspecific response that aims to repair tissue after injury. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of neutrophils during an infection?

<p>To perform chemotaxis and phagocytosis on foreign material (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type is primarily responsible for clearing away cellular debris and dead neutrophils?

<p>Macrophages (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes pus in the context of an infection?

<p>An accumulation of dead neutrophils and cellular debris (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom of inflammation?

<p>Redness and warmth (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do natural killer cells contribute to immune surveillance?

<p>By releasing substances that lyse cancerous cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the lifespan of neutrophils after performing their function during an infection?

<p>Usually less than one day (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process increases blood flow and the movement of immune cells to an infection site?

<p>Vasodilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about macrophages is true?

<p>They are primarily agranular leukocytes. (B), They develop additional lysosomes after leaving the bloodstream. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which inflammatory response is caused by increased capillary permeability?

<p>Swelling at the infection site (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of immune surveillance in the body?

<p>To detect and destroy abnormal cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary triggering factor for the activation of complement proteins?

<p>Contact with foreign substances (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of interferon?

<p>Inhibiting bacterial growth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of leukocyte is predominantly responsible for phagocytosis during immune responses?

<p>Neutrophils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does interferon protect neighboring cells from viral infections?

<p>By diffusing into neighboring cells to block replication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do macrophages play in relation to complement proteins?

<p>They secrete the inactive complement proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the relationship between complement proteins and antibodies?

<p>Complement proteins enhance the action of antibodies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following processes is directly enhanced by complement proteins?

<p>Phagocytosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which phase does a cell produce interferon after being infected by a virus?

<p>After it has replicated the virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are two primary types of phagocytes involved in the immune response?

<p>Neutrophils and macrophages (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to a cell that is producing interferon?

<p>It does not protect itself but aids neighboring cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of pyrogens in relation to body temperature?

<p>To instruct the hypothalamus to increase body temperature (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of immunity is acquired naturally through infections?

<p>Acquired Natural Active Immunity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an example of innate immunity present at birth?

<p>Skin resistance provided by keratin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic of specific defense resistance involves the ability to recognize previously encountered antigens?

<p>Memory (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition should medical attention be sought regarding a fever?

<p>If fever exceeds 104 degrees F (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes acquired artificial active immunity?

<p>Immunity developed through vaccinations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does fever play in the body's defense mechanism?

<p>To increase metabolism and speed up healing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of immunity is obtained through the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus?

<p>Acquired Natural Passive Immunity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one example of a pyrogen that can cause fever?

<p>Bacteria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a characteristic of specific defense resistance?

<p>Generalization (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of glaucoma related to aqueous humor?

<p>Insufficient drainage of aqueous humor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is commonly indicated for diabetic retinopathy?

<p>Laser coagulation of leaky vessels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is commonly linked to macular degeneration?

<p>Poor diet and smoking (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of tonometry in eye care?

<p>To measure intraocular pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of rod cells in the retina?

<p>Responsible for black and white vision in dim light (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the retina contains only cone cells and is responsible for visual acuity?

<p>Fovea Centralis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the eye is responsible for converting light into electrical impulses?

<p>Retina (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the optic disk in the retina?

<p>It is where the optic nerve exits the eye and contains no photoreceptors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes the blind spot in the visual field?

<p>Absence of photoreceptor cells at the optic disk (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the aqueous humor in the eye?

<p>To maintain intraocular pressure and help with drainage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which protein is a key component of rhodopsin, crucial for vision in low light?

<p>Scotopsin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the lens of the eye adjust for focus?

<p>Through muscles in the ciliary body that change its shape (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the medial rectus muscle in the eye?

<p>Moves the eye towards the nose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the eye is responsible for light perception?

<p>Retina (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does rhodopsin respond to light exposure?

<p>It decomposes into all-trans retinal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pigment does a red-sensitive cone cell contain?

<p>Photopsin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscles are innervated by the trochlear nerve?

<p>Superior oblique and inferior oblique (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the conjunctiva serve for the eyeball?

<p>Keeps the eye moist (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell in the retina is responsible for color vision?

<p>Cones (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What chemical change occurs in the 11-cis-retinal when it interacts with light?

<p>It converts to all-trans retinal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the movement of the eye away from the nose?

<p>Abducens nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the inferior rectus muscle?

<p>Lowers the eye (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes a person with 20/10 vision?

<p>They can see at 20 feet what normal vision sees at 10 feet. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason that hawks have more acute vision than humans?

<p>They have more cone sensors per unit area. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by seeing near objects clearly but struggling with distant objects?

<p>Myopia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What optical device is used to correct nearsightedness?

<p>Concave lens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to light rays when they encounter a concave lens?

<p>They diverge away from the center. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during the development of cataracts?

<p>The lens becomes opaque. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is likely a risk factor for developing cataracts?

<p>Overexposure to UV light (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical feature of the eye is responsible for focusing images onto the retina?

<p>Lens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do light rays become focused in front of the retina?

<p>When the eyeball is too long. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of cones in the retina?

<p>Color vision. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is responsible for the bending of light as it enters the eye?

<p>Cornea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do the ciliary body and iris play in the functioning of the eye?

<p>Control lens shape and pupil size (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the eye is primarily responsible for the immune privilege that allows corneal transplants?

<p>Cornea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tunic of the eye is known as the 'white part of the eye'?

<p>Sclera (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tears secreted by the lacrimal glands serve which primary purpose in eye protection?

<p>Provide lubrication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What determines the color of a person's iris?

<p>Amount of pigment and connective tissue (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle in the iris is responsible for making the pupil larger?

<p>Dilator muscle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the eye contains blood vessels that supply nutrients to the eye structures?

<p>Choroid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the retina within the eye?

<p>Convert light into neural signals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function is NOT a role of the eye's protective structures, such as eyelashes and eyelids?

<p>Enhance visual acuity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the ear drum is responsible for its vibration when sound waves hit it?

<p>Middle layer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major function of the ossicles found in the middle ear?

<p>To amplify pressure changes sensed by the eardrum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the tensor tympani muscle contribute to ear protection?

<p>It pulls the eardrum in to dampen sound (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs when the eardrum vibrates with high pitch sounds?

<p>It moves at a faster rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between sound intensity and eardrum movement?

<p>Loud sounds cause greater eardrum distance movement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical property of the eardrum is crucial for its function during sound detection?

<p>Tautness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscles are involved in the reflex action to protect the ears from low pitched sounds?

<p>Tensor tympani and stapedius (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the eardrum as sound waves of greater intensity are received?

<p>Moves a greater distance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures is connected to the eardrum and plays a role in its functionality?

<p>Incus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the hairs located in the Organ of Corti?

<p>To convert sound vibrations into action potentials (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures is responsible for sensing acceleration and deceleration?

<p>Vestibular apparatus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes nerve deafness?

<p>Damage or death to the hairs in the cochlea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which chamber of the cochlea contains the Organ of Corti?

<p>Middle chamber (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is vertigo commonly associated with?

<p>A spinning sensation unrelated to body position (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the Pinna (Auricle) play in hearing?

<p>Catches sound waves and directs them to the ear canal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What fluid is found in the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?

<p>Perilymph (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is frequency characterized in sound?

<p>Measured in Hertz (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the cochlea and the middle ear differ in sound conduction?

<p>Cochlea requires amplification of sound pressure, middle ear does not (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the ear is responsible for sensing sound vibrations?

<p>Cochlea in the inner ear (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the vestibular apparatus is NOT one of the three semicircular canals?

<p>Horizontal canal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of motion do the sensory components of the vestibular apparatus primarily evaluate?

<p>Linear acceleration and deceleration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of cerumen in the external auditory meatus?

<p>Keeps the ear drum pliable and waterproofs the canal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by a ringing sensation in the ears?

<p>Tinnitus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What determines the loudness of a sound?

<p>The wave's amplitude (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the ear is an air-filled cavity containing ossicles?

<p>Middle ear (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What limits the directionality of sound catchment in humans compared to canines?

<p>The shape of the pinnae in canines allows rotation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what range of Hertz can humans typically hear sound?

<p>20 - 20,000 Hertz (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the tympanic membrane in the auditory system?

<p>Transmits sound vibrations to the ossicles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physical property of sound waves is associated with pitch?

<p>Frequency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Antigen

Any substance that triggers an immune response

Killer T-cells

Destroy cells with foreign antigens

Helper T-cells

Activate other immune cells (B-cells and T-cells)

Suppressor T-cells

Inhibit immune response

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Memory T-cells

Recall past encounters with antigens.

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Plasma Cells

Cells that produce antibodies

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Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)

Proteins that bind to antigens.

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IgG

Most common antibody, crosses the placenta

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Fever Cause

Fever, a rise in body temperature above 98.6°F, is triggered by pyrogens, substances like viruses, bacteria, or toxins.

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Fever's Role

A fever helps inhibit pathogens (disease-causing organisms) and speeds up healing by increasing metabolism.

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Specific Defense

Specific defenses in the body recognize and target specific pathogens, and have a memory of past encounters to quickly defend against future exposure.

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Innate Immunity

Immunity present at birth, providing a first line of defense, such as skin and stomach acid.

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Acquired Immunity

Immunity developed after exposure to a specific agent (e.g., vaccine or infection).

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Acquired Natural Passive Immunity

Immunity a baby receives from its mother, through the placenta and breast milk.

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Acquired Artificial Active Immunity

Immunity from vaccines or immunizations.

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Specificity (Specific Defense)

The ability of specific defenses to target specific antigens (invading substances).

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Memory (Specific Defense)

The ability of the immune system to remember past encounters with specific antigens allowing faster response upon re-exposure.

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Acquired Natural Active Immunity

Immunity gained from infections and the body's response to them.

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Complement system

A group of serum proteins that enhance the immune response, functioning in phagocytosis, inflammation, and cell lysis, not antigen-specific.

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Complement activation

The process by which complement proteins become active when in contact with foreign substances, not antigens.

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Phagocytosis

The process of engulfing and destroying pathogens by immune cells like macrophages and neutrophils.

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Macrophages

White blood cells (WBCs) that play a role in phagocytosis and complement activation.

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Interferon

A protein produced by cells in response to a viral infection that protects uninfected cells from viral replication, and activates other immune cells.

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Viral Protection (Interferon)

Interferon's method of protecting cells from viral replication by stimulating an antiviral proteins production in neighboring cells.

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Neutrophils

A type of granulocytic leukocyte, the most abundant type of white blood cell, that performs phagocytosis and chemotaxis.

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Chemotaxis

The movement of neutrophils and other cells toward a chemical signal, like bacteria.

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Inflammation

The body's response to harmful stimuli, characterized by redness, swelling, heat and pain that aids the immune system.

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Natural Killer cells

A type of immune cell that directly kills infected cells, stimulated by interferon.

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Immune System Function 1

Prevents infection or inflammation by creating a physical barrier to invaders like bacteria, viruses, and parasites.

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Immune System Function 2

Detects and eliminates invaders before they multiply.

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Immune System Function 3

Eliminates invaders, whether they have multiplied or not.

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Nonspecific Resistance

Defense mechanisms that target all pathogens, regardless of type.

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Skin Barrier

The outermost layer of skin, composed of tightly packed cells with keratin, that prevents pathogen entry.

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Mucous Membranes

Protective lining in respiratory and digestive tracts that trap pathogens before entering tissues.

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Lysozymes

Antibacterial enzymes found in fluids like tears, saliva, and nasal passages.

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First Line of Defense

Barriers like skin and mucous membranes that prevent pathogens from entering the body.

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Resistance (Body)

The body's ability to disable pathogens and other harmful substances.

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Barriers (Specific defenses)

First line of defense against pathogens; examples include skin, mucous membranes, and fluids.

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Neutrophils' Role

Neutrophils are the first immune cells to arrive at an infection site and engulf bacteria (phagocytosis).

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Macrophage Function

Macrophages clean up cellular debris and dead neutrophils after neutrophils arrive, they also clean lymph and blood.

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Inflammation

Inflammation is the body's response to injury or infection, characterized by swelling, redness, warmth, and pain. It brings nutrients and fluid to the site to help heal.

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Immune Surveillance (NK Cells)

Natural killer (NK) cells detect and destroy abnormal cells such as cancer cells.

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Pus Composition

Pus is a mixture of dead neutrophils, cellular debris, and bacteria.

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Immune System Function 1

Prevents infection or inflammation by creating a physical barrier to invaders, like bacteria, viruses, and parasites.

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Immune System Function 2

Detects and eliminates invaders before they multiply.

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Immune System Function 3

Eliminates invaders, whether they have multiplied or not.

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Nonspecific Resistance

Defense mechanisms that target all pathogens, regardless of type.

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Skin Barrier

The outermost layer of skin, composed of tightly packed cells with keratin, that prevents pathogen entry.

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Mucous Membranes

Protective lining in respiratory and digestive tracts that trap pathogens before entering tissues.

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Barriers (Nonspecific Defense)

First line of defense against pathogens; examples include skin, mucous membranes, and fluids.

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Lysozymes

Antibacterial enzymes found in fluids like tears, saliva, and nasal passages.

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Complement System

A group of proteins in blood that enhance the immune response, working with antibodies to fight foreign substances.

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Complement Activation

The process where complement proteins become active when encountering foreign substances.

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Phagocytosis

The process where cells like macrophages engulf and destroy pathogens.

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Macrophage

A type of white blood cell that's involved in phagocytosis and complement activation.

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Interferon

A protein produced by cells to protect uninfected cells from viruses by blocking viral replication.

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Viral Protection (Interferon)

Interferon blocks viral replication in nearby uninfected cells, thus stopping viral spread

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Neutrophil

A type of white blood cell that arrives first to an infection site and engulfs pathogens.

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Chemotaxis

Neutrophils move towards chemicals released by pathogens.

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Inflammation

Body response to tissue damage that brings fluid, nutrients and immune cells to the area to help heal.

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2nd Line of Defense

Body's defense after the first line (skin), involving chemicals like Complement and Interferon.

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Neutrophil Function

First responders to infection; engulf and destroy bacteria via phagocytosis.

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Macrophage Role

Clean up cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and invaders after neutrophils.

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Inflammation's Purpose

Body's response to injury/infection, brings nutrients and fluid to help heal.

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Pus Composition

Dead neutrophils, cellular debris, and bacteria.

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Chemotaxis

Movement of immune cells (like neutrophils) to a chemical signal (e.g., bacteria).

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Phagocytosis

Engulfing and destroying pathogens by immune cells (e.g., neutrophils, macrophages).

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Immune Surveillance

Natural Killer (NK) cells detect and destroy abnormal cells (e.g., cancer).

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Natural Killer (NK) cells

Immune cells that directly kill abnormal cells (e.g. infected, cancer)

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Inflammation Symptoms

Redness, warmth, swelling, and pain.

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Acute Infection

Increase in neutrophil count.

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Fever Cause

Fever, a rise in body temperature above 98.6°F, is triggered by pyrogens, substances like viruses, bacteria, or toxins.

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Fever's Role

A fever helps inhibit pathogens (disease-causing organisms) and speeds up healing by increasing metabolism.

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Specific Defense

Specific defenses in the body recognize and target specific pathogens, and have a memory of past encounters to quickly defend against future exposure.

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Innate Immunity

Immunity present at birth, providing a first line of defense, such as skin and stomach acid.

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Acquired Immunity

Immunity developed after exposure to a specific agent (e.g., vaccine or infection).

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Acquired Natural Passive Immunity

Immunity a baby receives from its mother, through the placenta and breast milk.

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Acquired Artificial Active Immunity

Immunity from vaccines or immunizations.

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Specificity (Specific Defense)

The ability of specific defenses to target specific antigens (invading substances).

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Memory (Specific Defense)

The ability of the immune system to remember past encounters with specific antigens allowing faster response upon re-exposure.

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Acquired Natural Active Immunity

Immunity gained from infections and the body's response to them.

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Antigen

Any substance that triggers an immune response, such as bacteria, viruses, or toxins.

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T-cells

A type of white blood cell that plays a key role in cell-mediated immunity, a type of acquired immunity.

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Antibody (Immunoglobulin)

A protein produced by plasma cells that defends the body against antigens by binding to them.

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IgG

The most abundant antibody type, found in body fluids and important for fighting infections.

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Helper T-cells

A type of T-cell that activates both T and B cells, crucial in the immune response by secretion of substances to stimulate them

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Retina

The innermost nervous layer of the eye, lined with melanin to reduce light reflection, and containing photoreceptive cells.

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Rod cells

Specialized eye cells responsible for black and white vision in low light.

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Cone cells

Eye cells responsible for color vision and detail in bright light.

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Macula

Central region of the retina responsible for sharp, detailed vision.

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Fovea Centralis

Area within the macula that contains only cone cells, responsible for the sharpest vision.

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Rhodopsin

Light-sensitive pigment in rod cells, converting light into electrical signals.

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Optic nerve

Bundle of nerve fibers transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain.

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Optic disk

Area where the optic nerve exits the retina, creating a blind spot.

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Conjunctiva

The mucous membrane that covers the inside surface of the eyelids and sclera, keeping the eye moist.

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Conjunctivitis

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, often called "pink eye".

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Eye Muscles

Six muscles attached to the sclera that move the eye.

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Medial Rectus

Eye muscle that moves the eye towards the nose.

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Lateral Rectus

Eye muscle that moves the eye away from the nose.

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Retina

The light-sensing layer in the eye that contains rods and cones.

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Rods and Cones

Specialized light-sensitive cells in the retina, responsible for vision.

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Rhodopsin

Light-sensitive pigment in rod cells.

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Cone Pigments

Chemicals in cone cells that detect color.

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Color Vision

The ability of the eye to perceive colors.

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20/10 vision

A person with 20/10 vision can see at 20 feet what a normal person can see at 10 feet.

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Hawk's acute vision

Hawks have much better eyesight than humans due to more cones in their smaller eyes.

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Refraction

Light bending when it passes from one material to another with a different density.

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Convex lens

A lens that bends light rays inward toward a central point.

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Concave lens

A lens that bends light rays outward away from a central point.

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Nearsightedness (myopia)

A condition where light focuses in front of the retina, making distant objects blurry.

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Farsightedness (hyperopia)

A condition where light focuses behind the retina, making near objects blurry.

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Cataracts

A condition causing the lens of the eye to become cloudy, reducing transparency.

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Cataract causes

Smoking, sunlight exposure (especially UV), and diabetes.

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Correcting nearsightedness

Using a concave lens to spread out light rays before they enter the eye.

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Cataract Repair

Surgical removal of the lens and replacement with a prosthetic implant.

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Glaucoma Cause

Aqueous humor drainage failure, leading to increased intraocular pressure.

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Nyctalopia (Night Blindness)

A condition due to vitamin A deficiency, often treatable with vitamin A therapy.

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Diabetic Retinopathy Treatment

Laser coagulation of leaky vessels in the retina, aiming for blood glucose control.

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Macular Degeneration (SMD) Causes

Leading cause of blindness in adults; often associated with poor diet, smoking, and connective tissue disorders.

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Eye Size and Location

The human eye is approximately 1 inch deep, 1 inch wide, and 1 inch tall, situated within the orbital cavity of the face, protected by bone.

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Eye Protection (Fat)

Fat surrounding the eye acts as a cushion, protecting it from impact.

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Eyelid Function

Eyelids protect the eye from foreign particles through blinking.

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Tears and Flow

Tears are secreted by lacrimal glands and flow through excretory ducts, canals, and sac to the nasal cavity, explaining the runny nose during crying.

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Sclera Layer

The outermost layer of the eye, maintaining its shape and commonly known as the "white of the eye".

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Cornea and Light Bending

The transparent, avascular extension of the sclera, bending light as it enters the eye.

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Choroid (Uveal Tract)

The middle layer of the eye containing blood vessels that supply the eye with nutrients.

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Pupil Size Control

Pupil size is regulated by the dilator muscle (making it larger) and sphincter muscle (making it smaller) in response to light levels.

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Iris Color

The color of the iris is determined by the amount of pigment in the connective tissue and pigment cells.

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Ciliary Body

The muscular structure attached to the lens that alters the lens shape for focusing.

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Sound Production

Sound is created when matter vibrates, causing fluctuations in atmospheric air pressure.

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High Pitch Sound

A high-frequency sound wave characterized by rapid fluctuations in air pressure.

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Low Pitch Sound

A low-frequency sound wave with slow fluctuations in air pressure.

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Sound Frequency

The number of sound wave cycles per second, measured in Hertz (Hz).

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Human Hearing Range

The range of sound frequencies humans can perceive, typically between 20 and 20,000 Hz.

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Pinna (Auricle)

The external, visible part of the ear that collects sound waves.

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External Auditory Meatus

The ear canal, a tube leading from the pinna to the eardrum.

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Ear Drum (Tympanic Membrane)

A thin membrane that vibrates in response to sound waves, transmitting vibrations to the middle ear.

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Sound Wave Amplitude

The height of a sound wave, determining its loudness.

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Middle Ear Ossicles

Three tiny bones (malleus, incus, stapes) in the middle ear that transmit vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.

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Ear Drum Structure

The ear drum is comprised of outer (skin), middle (fiber), and inner (mucous membrane) layers.

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Air Pressure Regulation

Equal air pressure on both sides of the eardrum allows it to vibrate freely in response to sound.

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Ossicles Function

The ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes) amplify sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.

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Loud Sound Effect

Loud sounds cause the eardrum to vibrate over a larger distance.

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Ossicles (Malleus, Incus, Stapes)

Three tiny bones in the middle ear that amplify sound waves.

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Ear Drum Vibration (Pitch)

High-pitched sounds cause faster eardrum vibrations; low-pitched sounds cause slower vibrations.

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Eustachian Tube

Tube connecting the middle ear to the throat, helping equalize air pressure.

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Middle Ear Muscles (Reflex)

Muscles in the middle ear contract to dampen loud sounds. (e.g. gunshot)

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Tensor Tympani Muscle

Muscle attached to the eardrum, pulling it inward for optimal tautness.

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Sound Wave Effect on Ear Drum

Soft or low sounds cause smaller eardrum movement; High-pitched sounds cause faster movement.

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Cochlea Function

The cochlea amplifies pressure changes in sound waves to be detected by the inner ear fluid (perilymph).

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Organ of Corti

Located in the cochlea, it contains hair cells that translate vibrations into nerve signals.

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Vestibular Apparatus Location

The vestibular apparatus is positioned next to the cochlea in the inner ear.

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Vestibular Apparatus Function

Senses acceleration and deceleration, not constant movement.

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Nerve Deafness

Damage to hair cells in the cochlea due to injury, or death.

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Tinnitus Cause

Damage to cells in the inner ear, causing ringing in the ears.

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Vertigo Definition

A spinning sensation that is not related to the body's position.

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Dizziness Definition

A spinning sensation that is related to the body's position.

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3 semicircular canals

Part of the vestibular apparatus that senses rotational motion of the head.

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Perilymph

Fluid surrounding the Organ of Corti in the inner ear labyrinth.

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