BDOC Flashcards

BDOC Flashcards Summary

• Desk is designated as a Controlled Area.
• Cipher lock combinations are only known to those listed on the EAL inside each door.
• Maximum of 5 people allowed in BDOC at once.
• On-duty desk sergeant must report 30 minutes prior to guardmount.
• Changeover for desk sergeant uses the BDOC changeover checklist.
• Essential items for relocation by desk sergeant include classified material, keys, and laptop; must sign off on telephone monitor.
• Police patrol loaner vehicles must be equipped with magnetic signs, Kojack lights, and SF signs.
• Daily checks of restricted area safeguards are the responsibility of the Desk Sergeant, Internal SRT, External SRT, and Flight Chief.
• PL4 designates roadways leading to aircraft parking ramps and the flight line.
• Notification of an In-Flight Emergency is received from Base Ops via Secondary crash phone.
• Time hack with WCP is scheduled between 0001-0100 on Mondays.
• Desk Sergeant is responsible for knowing and plotting the location of all PL designated aircraft.
• CCTV stands for Closed Circuit Television; VESS stands for Video Enhancement Surveillance System.
• In case of a security incident at WCP, BDOC contacts 163rd WCP if operational; otherwise contact HQ AFRC.
• MOC notifies BDOC of aircraft tows, taxi, movements, or engine run-ups.
• MOC, WCP, and Base Ops inform about areas being open or closed.
• There are 3 types of Court Martials: Summary, Special, and General.
• Integrity and ethics in the SF code of conduct ensure public confidence.
• BDOC is responsible for directing forces during routine and emergency operations.
• BDOC serves as the primary point of contact for the public, not the gate.
• A complete vehicle search involves dismantling it to its smallest parts.
• Military dependents aged 16 cannot sponsor visitors; must be 18 or older.
• DOT approved helmets are required for motorcycle operation on MARB.
• Standardized Air Force field sobriety test consists of one leg stand, walk and turn, and HGN (Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus).
• Report lost or damaged AF Form 1199 (RAB) to Unit CC/Designee or Unit Sec Manager.
• The term Flash indicates priority for messages delivered to WCP.
• Names of juveniles under the age of 18 will not appear in the AF Form 53 Blotter.
• Actual evacuation of BDOC requires initiation of a Security Incident due to it being a C3 Facility for PL resources.
• AFOSI is contacted first for Political Defectors or Asylum seekers.
• Authority to search is given by an Appointed Military Magistrate or Installation CC.
• Probable cause refers to circumstances leading a reasonable person to believe a specific offense occurred.
• Use of IDS negates the need for CBS.
• IVA's (Immediate Visual Assessment Sentries) are posted when CCTV fails or visibility is poor.
• A unit can request a technical deviation for an indefinite period.
• FPCAM is transmitted by AFOC or MAJCOM.
• In a withdrawal during an accident scene, vehicles should be parked 300 ft inside the cordon.
• During withdrawal, personnel should depart the scene by the fastest means possible.
• Apprehension in a private dwelling requires authorization from IC or an Appointed Magistrate.
• If a withdrawal is sounded, those in a cordon/TCP/ECP should take cover due to imminent danger.
• In the event of a bomb threat, if an unidentified object is found, BDOC is to initiate a Security Incident.
• Only Skill level 3 and certified personnel may be posted alone.
• Classified messages are logged by date and time by the desk sergeant in the blotter.
• Flight Chief can never relinquish their authority.
• Driving on the flight line stops when visibility is less than 1/8 mile.
• Transponder code 7500 during hi-jacking indicates an active hijacking situation.
• Transponder code 7700 signals a situation needing armed intervention.
• Full flaps down after landing during anti-hijacking procedures indicates a desperate need for armed intervention.
• Full flaps up after landing during anti-hijacking procedures indicates duress, do not intervene.
• On-base assembly areas are Primary: 356 MOC, Secondary: 1201 Maintenance.
• For a HAZMAT spill, the cordon size is 2000 feet with the ECP upstream.
• Legal search authorization permits searching only where items could reasonably be hidden.
• During a MARE, the SF representative's responsibilities do not include handling classified information.
• The FAA directs law enforcement during aircraft hi-jacking when in-flight, while the FBI directs when not in flight.
• For evidence that cannot be marked, a pre-test check must be conducted.
• Operational risk management aims to detect, assess, control risk, enhancing performance and combat capabilities.
• To protect witnesses and suspects, security forces may involve OSI and other law enforcement agencies.
• Entering a private dwelling to make an apprehension requires completing AF Form 3226.
• Checks for flightline VESS and CCTV are conducted at the beginning of each shift.
• Code 3 is the required response for known death in a major accident scenario.
• AFOSI serves as the executive agency for crime information center matters.
• A DD Form 2504 is used for abandon vehicle notices.
• Mutual aid agreements must be coordinated with the staff judge advocate.
• The 452 MSG/CC directs entry point checks.
• CLETS stands for California Law Enforcement Telecommunication System.
• Major components for disaster response planning include enemy attack, major peacetime accidents, and natural disasters.
• DD Form 2701 is used to inform victims or witnesses of their rights.
• For AWOL/deserters self-surrendering at March ARB, notify 452 MPF.
• The primary munitions route is through gate 51 with specific escort protocols.
• The ultimate munitions route involves multiple gates and requires escort management.
• The standard response code for emergencies is Code 3.
• AF Form 3545 (Incident Report) is mandatory for all reportable incidents under DIBRS.
• Certification and qualifications are overseen by supervisors and individuals.
• Security incidents and reports are classified under established criteria.
• Reports are sent to NIBRS (National Incident Based Reporting System).
• Security incidents must be initiated within 3 minutes.
• Cover wagon updates should occur every 30 minutes.
• Building checks look for signs of forced entry, including broken windows or open doors.
• NDA's (National Defense Areas) are established under specific emergency conditions.
• Alarm response priorities are set as AA&E, classified, and then funds.
• Initial cordon size for hazardous situations is 2000 ft with ECP position upwind.
• The desk sergeant's responsibilities encompass command communication, operations, and reporting.
• Oversized evidence should be secured in a container, initialed and dated.
• Taxiways and areas around aircraft are designated PL4.
• Emergency entry into restricted areas requires verification with BDOC and prior authorization.
• Desk sergeant’s role includes notebook management and security reporting.
• The alternate BDCO is located at the March Fire Department or Flight Chief vehicle.
• Transferring security for restricted area ramps begins with contact from 452 MOC to BDOC, followed by SRT checks.
• Crime scene management involves securing the area, recording details, and ensuring preservation of evidence.
• Preservation of a crime scene requires no disturbance of the original condition upon arrival.
• Protection Level Resources categorized from PL1 to PL4, each level reflects the criticality of the assets and required security measures.
• The authority to terminate Security Incident reports is exclusively held by the on-duty flight chief.
• Security forces may apprehend a person under the UCMJ upon establishing reasonable belief.
• SF members are responsible for reporting their status to senior officials during post checks.
• If the primary duress word is compromised, the desk sergeant must notify MOC & WCP.
• PL1 and PL2 restricted areas impose the strictest entry and internal controls due to the nature of resources contained.