BDOC Flashcards

Questions and Answers

The desk is designated as what type of area?

Controlled Area

Who are authorized the combination to the cipher lock on BDOC?

Only those listed on the EAL on the inside of each door.

How many people are allowed in BDOC at one time?

As many as necessary, but no more than 5.

The on duty desk sergeant will report for duty when?

30 min prior to guardmount. Signup and view all the answers

The on-coming desk sergeant will conduct a changeover using what form?

BDOC change over checklist. Signup and view all the answers

When relocating what 3 items must the desk sergeant take with him/her?

Classified material, keys, laptop. Signup and view all the answers

What SF use loaner vehicles for police patrol be equipped with?

Magnetic signs, Kojack light, and SF signs. Signup and view all the answers

Who is responsible for daily checks of restricted area safeguards?

Desk Sgt, Internal SRT, External SRT, Flight Chief. Signup and view all the answers

Roadways leading to aircraft parking ramps and Flightline are designated as what type of area?

PL4. Signup and view all the answers

As BDOC controller, how will you be notified of an In-Flight Emergency?

Base Ops via secondary crash phone. Signup and view all the answers

When is a time hack conducted with WCP?

Between the hours of 0001-0100 weekly on Mondays. Signup and view all the answers

Who is responsible for knowing/plotting the location of all PL designated aircraft?

Desk Sgt. Signup and view all the answers

What does CCTV and VESS stand for?

Closed Circuit Television and Video Enhancement Surveillance System. Signup and view all the answers

If a security incident occurs at WCP, who does BDOC contact?

163rd WCP, if in operation, if not contact HQ AFRC. Signup and view all the answers

During day/day operation who notifies BDOC of aircraft tows, taxi, movements or engine run-ups?

MOC, Daily Flight Schedule. Signup and view all the answers

Who contacts BDOC of transfer of owner/user flight line security responsibility?

MOC. Signup and view all the answers

What 3 agencies notify you of area open or closed?

MOC, WCP, Base Ops. Signup and view all the answers

How many types of Court Martials are there?

3: Summary, Special, General. Signup and view all the answers

The SF code of conduct tells us that integrity and ethics result in?

Public confidence. Signup and view all the answers

Directing forces during normal and emergency operations is the duty of whom?

BDOC. Signup and view all the answers

Who is the primary SFS point of contact (not the gate) for the public?

BDOC. Signup and view all the answers

The complete dismantling of a vehicle to its smallest part is what type of vehicle search?

Complete. Signup and view all the answers

Can a military dependent 16 years of age sponsor visitors?

False Signup and view all the answers

Wearing of a DOT approved helmet while operating a motorcycle on MARB is required?

True Signup and view all the answers

The standardized Air Force field sobriety test consists of what?

One leg stand, walk and turn, and HGN (Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus). Signup and view all the answers

Lost AF Form 1199 (RAB) that are indistinct &/or damaged are reported to whom?

Unit CC/Designee or Unit Sec Manager. Signup and view all the answers

What type of message, delivered to the WCP has priority?

Flash. Signup and view all the answers

Names of juveniles under the age of what will not be placed in the AF Form 53 Blotter?

<ol start="18"> <li></li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the actual evacuation of BDOC require, as a minimum, the initiation of a Security Incident?

C3 Facility in support of PL resources. Signup and view all the answers

If you have a Political Defector or Asylum, who would BDOC contact first?

AFOSI. Signup and view all the answers

Who gives authority to search?

Appointed Military Magistrate and Installation CC. Signup and view all the answers

What is probable cause?

Circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe a specific offense occurred, that a specific person committed the offense and fruits or instruments of the offense are in a specific location. Signup and view all the answers

When IDS is in use, CBS are not needed?

True Signup and view all the answers

IVA's (Immediate Visual Assessment sentries) are posted when?

When CCTV fails, MSCFO (Master Surveillance Control Facility Operator) alarm monitor has poor visibility, alarms go down. Signup and view all the answers

Who transmits the FPCAM?

AFOC or MAJCOM. Signup and view all the answers

If withdrawal is sounded while at an accident scene where containment is expected, where should vehicles used within the cordon area be parked?

Abandoned 300 ft inside the cordon. Signup and view all the answers

During withdrawal, personnel depart the scene how?

By the fastest means possible. Signup and view all the answers

Who authorizes the apprehension of a person in a private dwelling?

IC or Appointed Magistrate. Signup and view all the answers

If you are a member of a cordon/TCP/ECP & withdrawal is sounded you should?

Take cover, because there's imminent danger. Signup and view all the answers

If during a bomb threat, an unidentified object is located in a restricted area adjacent to priority resources, the OSC should direct BDOC to initiate a what?

Security Incident. Signup and view all the answers

Who may be posted alone?

Skill level 3 and certified personnel. Signup and view all the answers

The desk sergeant will annotate all classified messages where and how?

In the blotter by date and time group and secure then IAW with AFI 31-401 Information Security Program. Signup and view all the answers

When may the Flight Chief relinquish his/her duties?

Never. Signup and view all the answers

When do you stop driving on the flight line?

When visibility is 1/8 of a mile. Signup and view all the answers

During hijacking procedures, what does AC transponder code 7500 indicate?

I'm being hijacked. Signup and view all the answers

What does transponder 7700 mean?

Situation appears desperate need armed intervention. Signup and view all the answers

During aircraft anti-hijacking procedures, what does full flaps down after landing indicate?

Situation is desperate need armed intervention to keep plane on ground. Signup and view all the answers

During aircraft anti-hijacking procedures, what does full flaps retracted/up after landing indicate?

Duress, do not intervene. Signup and view all the answers

What are the on-base assembly areas?

Primary is 356 MOC, Secondary is 1201 Maintenance. Signup and view all the answers

During a HAZMAT spill, what is the cordon size and complacent of the ECP?

2000 feet, ECP upwind location. Signup and view all the answers

If you have legal search authorization: you may search?

Only those areas where the object could reasonably be hidden. Signup and view all the answers

During a major peacetime accident (MARE), the security forces representative is responsible for all of the following except?

Ensure classified information material is properly covered, direct all nonessential personnel to evacuate from the accident, determine cordon size and ECP location, contact local law-enforcement as the situation dictates. Signup and view all the answers

During hijacking, who is responsible for directing the law enforcement activity when aircraft is in flight?

FAA. Signup and view all the answers

During hijacking situations, which agency is responsible for directing law enforcement activity when aircraft is not in flight?

FBI. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following procedures must be accomplished if evidence cannot be marked?

Check pre-test. Signup and view all the answers

Operation risk management is a continuous process designed to?

Detect, assess, and control risk: while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities. Signup and view all the answers

To protect witnesses and suspects, security forces will seek the aid of whom?

OSI, Federal, state and local authorities. Signup and view all the answers

If you are entering a private dwelling to make an apprehension, what form would you complete and document the authority?

AF Form 3226. Signup and view all the answers

When our function checks for the flight line, when are VESS and CCTV conducted?

At the beginning of each shift. Signup and view all the answers

What code response is required for a major accident when there is a known death involved?

Code 3. Signup and view all the answers

Who is the Air Force executive agency for crime information center matters?

AFOSI. Signup and view all the answers

What is a DD form 2504 and when would you use it?

Abandon vehicle notice and you will use it for POVs considered abandoned or improperly unattended vehicles. Signup and view all the answers

Mutual aid agreements should be coordinated with whom?

Staff judge advocate. Signup and view all the answers

Who directs installation entry point checks to be done?

452MSG/CC. Signup and view all the answers

What does CLETS stand for?

California Law Enforcement Telecommunication System. Signup and view all the answers

What are major components in planning for a disaster response?

Enemy attack, major peacetime accident, natural accident. Signup and view all the answers

What form is used by security forces to advise victims or witnesses of their rights?

DD Form 2701. Signup and view all the answers

Who do you notify for AWOL/deserter who turns themselves in from March ARB?

452 MPF. Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary munitions route?

Through gate 51 meet TMO, through fire department gate wait for airfield management, CMA/alpha escort munitions bunkers or hot cargo overnight. Signup and view all the answers

What is the ultimate munitions route?

Riverside Gate meet TMO, left on Graber, through F-18 meet airfield management, escort across terminal to Alpha/CMA to munitions bunkers or hot cargo overnight. Signup and view all the answers

What is the standard response code for emergency?

Code 3. Signup and view all the answers

AF form 3545, incident report, is mandatory for all incidents which are reportable under what system?

DIBRS. Signup and view all the answers

Who is responsible for certification and qualifications?

Supervisor and individual. Signup and view all the answers

What are the duties and responsibilities of the desk sergeant?

Focal point for command control and communication for all LE functions, operate communication console and equipment, implement the security reporting and alerting system when required, plot the locations of all SF members & PL resources, accomplish required reports and other administration duties. Signup and view all the answers

How do you secure oversized evidence?

Place it in a container, initial and date it. Signup and view all the answers

What PL level is the taxiway and areas surrounding Aircraft Pl areas?

PL4. Signup and view all the answers

What are the initial actions at a crime scene?

Record the data, arrival time, weather conditions, provide first aid, apprehend any suspects, secure the scene. Signup and view all the answers

How do you preserve a crime scene?

Keep it in the same condition as it was the time of arrival. Do not allow any objects to be touched, stains/footprints to be walked on or tire marks to be destroyed. Do not permit the introduction of unrelated material such as cigarettes or chewing gum wrappers. Do not allow anyone to use the facilities within the crime scene such as telephones/toilets/sinks. Signup and view all the answers

What is a PL-1 Resource?

Assign PL1 to AF PPA's for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage or destruction results in unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the US or catastrophic consequences for the nation. Example: Nuclear weapons. Signup and view all the answers

What is a PL-2 Resource?

Assign PL2 to AF assets for which the loss, misuse, compromise, theft, damage or destruction results in significant mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US. Example: Non-nuclear Alert Forces. Signup and view all the answers

What is a PL-3 Resource?

Assign PL3 to AF assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage or destruction results in mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US. Example: Weapons systems capable of being on alert status. Signup and view all the answers

What is a PL-4 Resource?

Assign PL4 to AF operational or MSA's that directly or indirectly support PPA's and the war fighting mission which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage or destruction would adversely affect mission capability. PL4 resources are contained in controlled areas with owners/users being responsible for security. Example: Airfield ramps outside of the RA/POL storage/pharmacy vaults. Signup and view all the answers

Who is authorized to terminate Security Incident reports on MARB?

No lower than the on duty Flight Chief. Signup and view all the answers

When may SF apprehend a person subject to the UCMJ?

After establishing reasonable belief. Signup and view all the answers

SF members should report their post to who?

Senior members conducting the post visit/check. Signup and view all the answers

If the primary duress word has been compromised, who will the desk sergeant notify?

MOC & WCP. Signup and view all the answers

Restricted areas containing protection level resources require the most stringent entry and internal controls?

PL 1 & PL 2. Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

BDOC Flashcards Summary

Desk is designated as a Controlled Area.
Cipher lock combinations are only known to those listed on the EAL inside each door.
Maximum of 5 people allowed in BDOC at once.
On-duty desk sergeant must report 30 minutes prior to guardmount.
Changeover for desk sergeant uses the BDOC changeover checklist.
Essential items for relocation by desk sergeant include classified material, keys, and laptop; must sign off on telephone monitor.
Police patrol loaner vehicles must be equipped with magnetic signs, Kojack lights, and SF signs.
Daily checks of restricted area safeguards are the responsibility of the Desk Sergeant, Internal SRT, External SRT, and Flight Chief.
PL4 designates roadways leading to aircraft parking ramps and the flight line.
Notification of an In-Flight Emergency is received from Base Ops via Secondary crash phone.
Time hack with WCP is scheduled between 0001-0100 on Mondays.
Desk Sergeant is responsible for knowing and plotting the location of all PL designated aircraft.
CCTV stands for Closed Circuit Television; VESS stands for Video Enhancement Surveillance System.
In case of a security incident at WCP, BDOC contacts 163rd WCP if operational; otherwise contact HQ AFRC.
MOC notifies BDOC of aircraft tows, taxi, movements, or engine run-ups.
MOC, WCP, and Base Ops inform about areas being open or closed.
There are 3 types of Court Martials: Summary, Special, and General.
Integrity and ethics in the SF code of conduct ensure public confidence.
BDOC is responsible for directing forces during routine and emergency operations.
BDOC serves as the primary point of contact for the public, not the gate.
A complete vehicle search involves dismantling it to its smallest parts.
Military dependents aged 16 cannot sponsor visitors; must be 18 or older.
DOT approved helmets are required for motorcycle operation on MARB.
Standardized Air Force field sobriety test consists of one leg stand, walk and turn, and HGN (Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus).
Report lost or damaged AF Form 1199 (RAB) to Unit CC/Designee or Unit Sec Manager.
The term Flash indicates priority for messages delivered to WCP.
Names of juveniles under the age of 18 will not appear in the AF Form 53 Blotter.
Actual evacuation of BDOC requires initiation of a Security Incident due to it being a C3 Facility for PL resources.
AFOSI is contacted first for Political Defectors or Asylum seekers.
Authority to search is given by an Appointed Military Magistrate or Installation CC.
Probable cause refers to circumstances leading a reasonable person to believe a specific offense occurred.
Use of IDS negates the need for CBS.
IVA's (Immediate Visual Assessment Sentries) are posted when CCTV fails or visibility is poor.
A unit can request a technical deviation for an indefinite period.
FPCAM is transmitted by AFOC or MAJCOM.
In a withdrawal during an accident scene, vehicles should be parked 300 ft inside the cordon.
During withdrawal, personnel should depart the scene by the fastest means possible.
Apprehension in a private dwelling requires authorization from IC or an Appointed Magistrate.
If a withdrawal is sounded, those in a cordon/TCP/ECP should take cover due to imminent danger.
In the event of a bomb threat, if an unidentified object is found, BDOC is to initiate a Security Incident.
Only Skill level 3 and certified personnel may be posted alone.
Classified messages are logged by date and time by the desk sergeant in the blotter.
Flight Chief can never relinquish their authority.
Driving on the flight line stops when visibility is less than 1/8 mile.
Transponder code 7500 during hi-jacking indicates an active hijacking situation.
Transponder code 7700 signals a situation needing armed intervention.
Full flaps down after landing during anti-hijacking procedures indicates a desperate need for armed intervention.
Full flaps up after landing during anti-hijacking procedures indicates duress, do not intervene.
On-base assembly areas are Primary: 356 MOC, Secondary: 1201 Maintenance.
For a HAZMAT spill, the cordon size is 2000 feet with the ECP upstream.
Legal search authorization permits searching only where items could reasonably be hidden.
During a MARE, the SF representative's responsibilities do not include handling classified information.
The FAA directs law enforcement during aircraft hi-jacking when in-flight, while the FBI directs when not in flight.
For evidence that cannot be marked, a pre-test check must be conducted.
Operational risk management aims to detect, assess, control risk, enhancing performance and combat capabilities.
To protect witnesses and suspects, security forces may involve OSI and other law enforcement agencies.
Entering a private dwelling to make an apprehension requires completing AF Form 3226.
Checks for flightline VESS and CCTV are conducted at the beginning of each shift.
Code 3 is the required response for known death in a major accident scenario.
AFOSI serves as the executive agency for crime information center matters.
A DD Form 2504 is used for abandon vehicle notices.
Mutual aid agreements must be coordinated with the staff judge advocate.
The 452 MSG/CC directs entry point checks.
CLETS stands for California Law Enforcement Telecommunication System.
Major components for disaster response planning include enemy attack, major peacetime accidents, and natural disasters.
DD Form 2701 is used to inform victims or witnesses of their rights.
For AWOL/deserters self-surrendering at March ARB, notify 452 MPF.
The primary munitions route is through gate 51 with specific escort protocols.
The ultimate munitions route involves multiple gates and requires escort management.
The standard response code for emergencies is Code 3.
AF Form 3545 (Incident Report) is mandatory for all reportable incidents under DIBRS.
Certification and qualifications are overseen by supervisors and individuals.
Security incidents and reports are classified under established criteria.
Reports are sent to NIBRS (National Incident Based Reporting System).
Security incidents must be initiated within 3 minutes.
Cover wagon updates should occur every 30 minutes.
Building checks look for signs of forced entry, including broken windows or open doors.
NDA's (National Defense Areas) are established under specific emergency conditions.
Alarm response priorities are set as AA&E, classified, and then funds.
Initial cordon size for hazardous situations is 2000 ft with ECP position upwind.
The desk sergeant's responsibilities encompass command communication, operations, and reporting.
Oversized evidence should be secured in a container, initialed and dated.
Taxiways and areas around aircraft are designated PL4.
Emergency entry into restricted areas requires verification with BDOC and prior authorization.
Desk sergeant’s role includes notebook management and security reporting.
The alternate BDCO is located at the March Fire Department or Flight Chief vehicle.
Transferring security for restricted area ramps begins with contact from 452 MOC to BDOC, followed by SRT checks.
Crime scene management involves securing the area, recording details, and ensuring preservation of evidence.
Preservation of a crime scene requires no disturbance of the original condition upon arrival.
Protection Level Resources categorized from PL1 to PL4, each level reflects the criticality of the assets and required security measures.
The authority to terminate Security Incident reports is exclusively held by the on-duty flight chief.
Security forces may apprehend a person under the UCMJ upon establishing reasonable belief.
SF members are responsible for reporting their status to senior officials during post checks.
If the primary duress word is compromised, the desk sergeant must notify MOC & WCP.
PL1 and PL2 restricted areas impose the strictest entry and internal controls due to the nature of resources contained.

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Test your knowledge of BDOC terminology and protocols with these flashcards. Each card covers essential definitions and rules related to the BDOC area. Perfect for those needing a refresher on access control and operational guidelines.