Bacterial Adaptation and Horizontal Gene Transfer

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary difference between spontaneous mutations and horizontal gene transfer (HGT) in bacterial evolution?

  • Spontaneous mutations occur more frequently than HGT.
  • Spontaneous mutations involve changes to existing genes, while HGT introduces entirely new genes into the bacterial genome. (correct)
  • HGT is more likely to be deleterious to the bacteria than spontaneous mutations.
  • Spontaneous mutations involve the acquisition of large DNA sequences from other organisms, while HGT involves single nucleotide changes.

How does horizontal gene transfer (HGT) contribute to the evolution of virulence in bacteria?

  • By ensuring that all bacteria within a species have the same virulence factors.
  • By transferring genes encoding antibiotic resistance, toxins, and other virulence factors, enabling rapid adaptation to host defenses. (correct)
  • By slowing down the rate at which bacteria can adapt to new environments.
  • By limiting the ability of bacteria to exchange genetic material.

A bacterium acquires a new gene through HGT that allows it to degrade a previously indigestible nutrient source. What is the most likely long-term effect of this acquisition?

  • The bacterium will become less competitive in its environment due to the energy cost of maintaining the new gene.
  • The bacterium will have a selective advantage in environments where that nutrient source is abundant, leading to increased population size. (correct)
  • The bacterium will lose its original metabolic capabilities.
  • The bacterium will only be able to survive in the presence of that specific nutrient.

What is the role of DNA invertase (Hin) in the phase variation of flagellar proteins in Salmonella species?

<p>It inverts a DNA sequence upstream of the H2 flagellin gene, switching between expression of H1 and H2 flagellin proteins. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Mycoplasma penetrans, how does the inversion of a promoter sequence upstream of the p42 lipoprotein gene affect its expression?

<p>Promoter inversion blocks p42 transcription and creates a hairpin structure that acts as a transcriptional stop signal. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Slipped-strand misrepair in Bordetella pertussis leads to phase variation by what mechanism?

<p>Insertion or deletion of a CG base pair in a repeated sequence, causing a frameshift in the BvgS protein. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is slipped-strand misrepair a significant mechanism for phase variation in Neisseria species?

<p>It allows for rapid changes in the expression of surface antigens like Opa proteins and LOS, aiding in immune evasion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does antigenic variation in Neisseria gonorrhoeae pili contribute to the bacterium's ability to cause repeated infections?

<p>Antigenic variation prevents the formation of antibodies against the pili, allowing the bacteria to evade the host immune response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does RecA play in pilin recombination in Neisseria?

<p>RecA is essential for homologous recombination, facilitating the exchange of DNA between pilE and pilS genes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two properties of Neisseria that enable intergenic recombination, leading to greater antigenic variation?

<p>Frequent autolysis to release genomic DNA and natural competence for DNA uptake. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does hypermutability in bacterial populations contribute to adaptation under stress?

<p>It increases the rate of spontaneous mutations in a subpopulation, potentially leading to mutations that enable survival under stress. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of phase variation in the formation of biofilms?

<p>Phase variation plays an integral role in the formation of diverse phenotypes within microbial communities that make up biofilms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to normal mutation rates, how frequently do changes in the expression of virulence proteins occur during phase variation?

<p>Phase variation occurs at a relatively high frequency compared to spontaneous mutations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does phase variation in lipooligosaccharide (LOS) structure contribute to the virulence of Neisseria?

<p>It allows <em>Neisseria</em> to evade the host immune system by altering the surface structure of LOS. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct consequence of tandem duplication of a gene encoding a regulatory protein?

<p>Increased expression of the genes controlled by the regulatory protein. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism of phase variation?

<p>Horizontal gene transfer (HGT). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hows does intergenic recombination contribute to the ability of N. gonorrhoeae to cause repeated infections, compared to intragenic recombination?

<p>Intergenic recombination allows for recombination between genes from different bacterial cells, leading to greater antigenic variation than intragenic recombination alone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are astrobiologists concerned about bringing back samples from space explorations?

<p>Because extraterrestrial microbes might be capable of causing human diseases, against which we have no natural immunity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of a 'Planetary Protection Officer' at NASA?

<p>To protect Earth from extraterrestrial contamination. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of glycosyltransferases in the phase variation of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) in Neisseria species?

<p>They add sugars to LOS, altering its surface structure and contributing to antigenic diversity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a bacterial species relies heavily on antigenic variation for survival, what is a likely consequence for a host infected with this bacterium?

<p>The host is likely to experience repeated or chronic infections due to the bacterium's ability to evade the immune system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between phase variation and antigenic variation?

<p>Phase variation and antigenic variation are distinct processes, but both contribute to immune evasion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterium is exposed to a new antibiotic. Which evolutionary mechanism is most likely to lead to rapid resistance in the bacterial population?

<p>Horizontal gene transfer of a gene encoding antibiotic resistance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mutations is likely to have the LEAST impact on a bacterial protein's function?

<p>A missense mutation in a non-conserved region of the protein. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers that a bacterial species can switch between expressing two different versions of a surface protein. One version is more effective at adhering to host cells, while the other is less susceptible to antibody binding. What is the most likely mechanism driving this variation?

<p>Phase variation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the rate of mutation in hypermutable bacterial cells compare to that in normal bacterial cells?

<p>Hypermutable cells have a higher rate of mutation than normal cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential risk associated with genetic exchange of material by bacteria in unusual environments, such as other planets?

<p>Sources of genetic material that evolve in unusual environments might pose unknown risks. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hows does slipped-strand misrepair contribute to serum resistance of LOS?

<p>Slipped-strand misrepair reduces the likelihood of bacteria being destroyed by serum. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are the pili of N. gonorrhoeae highly antigenic?

<p>They are on the surface of the bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the major mechanisms of Neisseria pathogenesis?

<p>Phase and antigenic variation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consider a bacterial pathogen that infects multiple hosts and in which the primary mechanism of survival is antigenic variation. What would be the LEAST effective public health strategy to address this pathogen?

<p>Development and general administration of a vaccine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a bacterium gains the ability to produce a novel toxin through horizontal gene transfer, what selective advantage might this provide?

<p>Enhanced ability to compete with other microorganisms or evade host defenses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following genetic changes is likely to have the greatest impact on the speed and scale of bacterial adaptation to new environments?

<p>Horizontal gene transfer (HGT). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely outcome of horizontal gene transfer (HGT) between distantly related bacterial species?

<p>The transferred DNA is unlikely to be stably maintained unless it provides a selective advantage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterium loses its flagella due to a mutation. How might this affect its ability to cause disease?

<p>It may have reduced virulence due to impaired motility and ability to disseminate within the host. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between pilE and pilS genes in Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

<p>pilE genes have a promoter and are expressed, while pilS genes lack a promoter and are silent copies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is horizontal gene transfer (HGT) considered a significant factor in bacterial evolution, particularly in the context of virulence?

<p>It allows for the rapid acquisition of genes encoding antibiotic resistance, toxins, and other virulence factors, accelerating pathogen evolution. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the phenomenon of hypermutability in bacteria contribute to their adaptation under stress?

<p>It increases the mutation rate in a small subpopulation of cells, allowing for the generation of diverse mutants, some of which may cope better with the stress. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Neisseria gonorrhoeae, how does intergenic recombination contribute to the bacterium's ability to cause repeated infections, compared to intragenic recombination?

<p>Intergenic recombination allows for greater antigenic variation by combining genes from different bacterial cells, whereas intragenic recombination is limited to changes within a single cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the 'Planetary Protection Officer' at NASA, as it relates to microbial evolution and HGT?

<p>To assess the potential risks of introducing extraterrestrial microorganisms to Earth, especially considering the possibility of virulence acquisition via HGT. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do slipped-strand misrepair mechanisms contribute to the phase variation of surface structures like lipooligosaccharide (LOS) in Neisseria species?

<p>By causing frameshifts in genes encoding glycosyltransferases due to insertions or deletions in regions with repetitive DNA sequences, leading to variable LOS structures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is essential for a bacterium to be considered naturally competent?

<p>The capacity to uptake DNA from the environment and incorporate it into its chromosome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key finding of Griffith's experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae?

<p>Heat-killed S strain bacteria could transform R strain bacteria into a virulent form. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bacteria like Neisseria gonorrhoeae ensure they primarily uptake DNA from their own species?

<p>By expressing receptors that recognize specific DNA-uptake sequences (DUS) unique to their species (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does quorum sensing contribute to natural competence in some bacteria?

<p>It triggers a cascade of gene expression needed for DNA uptake and recombination. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The DNA uptake mechanism in naturally competent Gram-negative bacteria shares homology with what other system?

<p>Type 2 Secretion System (T2SS) and type IV pili (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During DNA uptake in Gram-negative bacteria, what is the role of type IV pili?

<p>To bind specific DUSs and transport double-stranded DNA into the periplasm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do conjugative plasmids contribute to the spread of antibiotic resistance among bacteria?

<p>By encoding genes for a transfer system that moves plasmid DNA, including resistance genes, between bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between self-transmissible and mobilizable plasmids?

<p>Self-transmissible plasmids encode all the genes needed for their transfer, while mobilizable plasmids require a helper plasmid for transfer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the integration of an F-factor into a bacterial chromosome contribute to high-frequency recombination (Hfr)?

<p>It allows for the transfer of long segments of adjacent bacterial chromosome into recipient cells at a higher frequency. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Mob relaxase in the conjugative transfer of integrative conjugative elements (ICEs)?

<p>It recognizes the oriT site and nicks the DNA to initiate rolling-circle replication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do integrative mobilizable elements (IMEs) differ from conjugative plasmids in the context of bacterial conjugation?

<p>IMEs lack the tra genes necessary for the T4SS transfer apparatus and require a helper plasmid to be transferred. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the distinguishing feature of transposons compared to other mobile genetic elements like conjugative plasmids?

<p>Transposons move within the DNA of a single cell, whereas conjugative plasmids transfer DNA between bacterial cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the transposase gene within an insertion sequence (IS) element?

<p>To promote the transposition of the IS element within DNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do composite transposons contribute to the spread of antibiotic resistance?

<p>By consisting of two IS elements flanking a core region that contains antibiotic resistance genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key difference between generalized and specialized transduction?

<p>Generalized transduction transfers random segments of bacterial DNA, whereas specialized transduction transfers specific genes near the phage attachment site. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a temperate phage contribute to bacterial virulence during lysogeny?

<p>By integrating into the bacterial chromosome and expressing genes that confer new virulence properties. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which generalized transducing phages package bacterial DNA?

<p>A 'head-full' mechanism based on DNA size (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do specialized transducing phages acquire bacterial genes during the transition to the lytic phase?

<p>By precisely excising the phage genome along with one or two adjacent bacterial genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the eventual fate of DNA transferred via generalized transduction?

<p>The transduced DNA is integrated into the recipient's chromosome via homologous recombination. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An F' factor is created when:

<p>An F factor integrates into the chromosome and then excises, carrying some chromosomal DNA with it. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterium is exposed to a mutagen that increases the rate of insertion sequence (IS) element transposition. What is the most likely consequence of this increased transposition rate?

<p>Inactivation of certain genes and creation of genetic diversity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher introduces a non-conjugative plasmid carrying an antibiotic resistance gene into a bacterial population. Which process would MOST likely facilitate the rapid spread of this resistance gene to other bacteria?

<p>Mobilization of the plasmid by a conjugative plasmid already present in some cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A temperate bacteriophage infects a bacterial cell and integrates its DNA into the host chromosome. Under what conditions is this prophage MOST likely to revert to the lytic phase?

<p>When the bacterial cell is exposed to conditions that threaten its survival, such as DNA damage or nutrient deprivation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying a bacterial species and discovers a novel mobile genetic element (MGE) that contains genes for antibiotic resistance and virulence factors. This MGE is capable of transferring itself between different bacterial species. Which type of MGE is MOST likely responsible for the observed transfer?

<p>An integrative conjugative element (ICE) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During natural transformation in Gram-positive bacteria, what is the function of the pseudopilus?

<p>To bring extracellular DNA into contact with the receptor ComEA through pilus retraction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of RecA in horizontal gene transfer events like chromosomal integration of transferred DNA?

<p>To facilitate homologous recombination between the transferred DNA and the host chromosome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the error-prone nature of rolling-circle replication during conjugation contribute to bacterial evolution?

<p>It generates genetic diversity by introducing mutations during DNA transfer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterial strain has acquired a prophage that encodes a novel superantigen toxin. What is the MOST likely impact of this prophage on the bacterium's pathogenicity?

<p>Enhanced ability to trigger an excessive immune response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterium carries an ICE that contains genes for both tetracycline resistance and a novel secretion system. What is the MOST likely outcome of the conjugative transfer of this ICE to a new bacterial host?

<p>The recipient cell will become resistant to tetracycline and gain a new secretion system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers that a bacterial species uses a ComB system for natural transformation. What can be inferred about the mechanism of DNA uptake in this species?

<p>It uses a system closely related to type 4 secretion systems (T4SS). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterial population is treated with a chemical that inhibits the function of RecA. What is the MOST likely consequence of this treatment on horizontal gene transfer?

<p>Reduced integration of newly acquired DNA into the chromosome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does fratricide contribute to the process of natural transformation in some bacterial species?

<p>It releases additional DNA into the environment for uptake by competent bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features distinguishes specialized transduction from other mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

<p>It results in the transfer of bacterial genes located adjacent to the phage attachment site. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the secretin (PilQ) pore in DNA uptake by Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>It serves as a channel through which double-stranded DNA is transported into the periplasm. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A bacterium acquires a mobilizable plasmid containing a gene for resistance to mercury. Under what conditions can this newly acquired resistance spread to other bacteria?

<p>If the bacterium encounters another bacterium carrying a conjugative plasmid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Transposons are LEAST likely to be found in:

<p>Essential genes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the transfer of an F′-factor (F-prime factor) significant?

<p>It allows the transfer of chromosomal genes from one bacterium to another. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a bacterial species relies on specialized transduction for most of its horizontal gene transfer, which genes will be more likely to show diversity compared to the rest of its genome?

<p>Genes adjacent to the phage attachment site. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How did Griffith's experiment demonstrate the principle of natural transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

<p>By demonstrating that the R strain could convert into the S strain when mixed with heat-killed S strain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is natural competence considered an advantage for some bacteria in their natural environment?

<p>It enables them to acquire resistance genes and adapt to changing conditions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do DNA-uptake sequences (DUS) play in natural transformation?

<p>They serve as recognition sites for the binding and uptake of DNA into a competent cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the ComB system in bacteria like H. pylori and C. jejuni facilitate natural transformation?

<p>It employs a type 4 secretion system-related mechanism to uptake DNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Mob relaxase during bacterial conjugation involving integrative conjugative elements (ICEs)?

<p>To recognize the oriT site and nick the DNA, initiating rolling-circle replication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do F' factors contribute to horizontal gene transfer?

<p>By transferring chromosomal genes from one bacterium to another. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do mobilizable plasmids facilitate the transfer of genes between bacteria, even though they lack the genes for a complete transfer system?

<p>They utilize the transfer functions provided in <em>trans</em> by a co-resident conjugative plasmid. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes transposons from other mobile genetic elements (MGEs) like conjugative plasmids and ICEs?

<p>Transposons move within the DNA of a single bacterial cell; plasmids transfer DNA between cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are insertion sequences (IS elements) generally not tolerated in essential genes?

<p>Because their insertion can interrupt the coding region, inactivating the gene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can prophages contribute to bacterial virulence?

<p>By encoding toxins and other virulence factors. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What determines the size of the bacterial DNA fragment that can be transferred during generalized transduction?

<p>The size of the phage genome, as the phage packages DNA based on a &quot;head-full&quot; mechanism. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the DNA transferred via generalized transduction after it enters a recipient bacterium?

<p>It is integrated into the recipient’s chromosome via RecA-dependent homologous recombination. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During specialized transduction, why are only bacterial genes adjacent to the phage attachment site transferred?

<p>Because the excision process during the transition to the lytic phase is sometimes imprecise, packaging adjacent bacterial DNA along with the phage genome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the existence of commensal bacteria in the human gut contribute to the spread of antibiotic resistance?

<p>Commensal bacteria serve as &quot;reservoirs&quot; for plasmids carrying antibiotic resistance genes, spreading them to other bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the antitoxin component in a toxin-antitoxin (TA) system?

<p>To neutralize the activity of the toxin, preventing it from disrupting cellular processes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it disadvantageous for a bacterium to maintain a large extrachromosomal piece of DNA such as a plasmid?

<p>Maintaining and replicating the DNA requires significant cellular resources. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of a bacterium losing a plasmid that encodes a toxin-antitoxin system, assuming the toxin is more stable than the antitoxin?

<p>The remaining toxin inhibits the bacterium's growth or kills it. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a restriction-modification (RM) system, what is the role of the modification enzyme?

<p>To methylate specific DNA sequences, protecting them from restriction enzyme cleavage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do phages evade the restriction-modification (RM) systems of bacteria?

<p>By modifying their DNA, masking restriction sites, encoding a methylase, or neutralizing RM system nucleases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct consequence of a mutation that inactivates the methylase of a restriction-modification (RM) system?

<p>The bacterium's own DNA is cleaved by the restriction enzyme, leading to cell death. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the spacer sequences within a CRISPR locus?

<p>They have sequence identity with foreign DNA and specify the targets for CRISPR interference. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do CRISPR-Cas systems protect bacteria against foreign DNA?

<p>By degrading foreign DNA or RNA using the Cas proteins and guide RNAs derived from the CRISPR locus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes the three main types of CRISPR-Cas systems?

<p>The signature Cas protein with nuclease activity (Cas3, Cas9, or Csm/Cmr). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct target sensed by the Pseudomonas T6SS that triggers a counterattack during conjugation?

<p>The mating pair complex formation associated with T4SS-mediated DNA conjugation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Type 6 Secretion System (T6SS)?

<p>A bacterial nanomachine that Gram-negative bacteria use to antagonize adjacent cells by ejecting a toxin-coated 'spear'. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initial observation led to the discovery of pathogenicity islands (PAIs)?

<p>The presence of hly genes on distinct chromosomal DNA regions with differing G+C content. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common characteristic of pathogenicity islands (PAIs)?

<p>Flanking by direct repeats, indicating acquisition through horizontal gene transfer. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do pathogenicity islands (PAIs) contribute to bacterial virulence?

<p>By encoding genes that confer new functions such as altered adhesion, iron acquisition, or increased survival in the host. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are lysogenic prophages considered a major reservoir for toxin genes in bacterial populations?

<p>Because they are integrated into the bacterial chromosome and can carry toxin genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can acquisition of a pathogenicity island (PAI) lead to rapid pathogen evolution?

<p>It can convert a nonpathogenic bacterium into a pathogen in a single step by providing new virulence factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do virulence genes carried on pathogenicity islands (PAIs) in different bacterial genera show remarkable sequence similarity?

<p>Because they share a common genetic organization and evolutionary origin due to horizontal gene transfer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does stepwise acquisition of PAIs increase bacterial virulence?

<p>By progressively increasing the bacterium's ability to colonize, invade, and cause disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does Salmonella pathogenicity island-1 (SPI-1) play in the infection process?

<p>It confers the ability to invade epithelial cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Salmonella pathogenicity island-2 (SPI-2) in the infection process?

<p>It enables Salmonella to evade host defenses and survive within macrophages. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a 'supragenome' or 'pan-genome' in the context of bacterial species?

<p>The entire collection of genes present in all strains of a bacterial species, which is larger than the genome of any single strain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does horizontal gene transfer (HGT) contribute to the emergence of 'superbugs'?

<p>By facilitating the spread of antibiotic resistance and virulence genes among bacteria. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the diversity within a bacterial species impact the types of diseases they can cause?

<p>Increased diversity allows a single bacterial species to cause a multitude of infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In addition to plasmids, what other mobile genetic elements contribute to the formation of pathogenicity islands (PAIs)?

<p>Integrative conjugative elements (ICEs) and prophages. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the % G+C content of pathogenicity islands (PAIs) compared to the rest of the bacterial chromosome?

<p>Lower than the rest of the bacterial chromosome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of bacterial tRNA genes and phage attachment (att) sites in the formation of pathogenicity islands (PAIs)?

<p>They are the preferred integration sites for PAIs in the bacterial chromosome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do pathogenicity islands (PAIs) enhance bacterial colonization?

<p>By providing new types of pili for altered adhesion, allowing the bacteria to bind to different tissues. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of modified LPS structures encoded by genes within PAIs?

<p>Increased serum resistance. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the common genetic organization seen in virulence genes carried on PAIs found in different bacterial genera?

<p>Similar gene order and sequence similarity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial species is converted into toxin-producing virulent strains by phage-encoded diphtheria toxin?

<p><em>Corynebacterium diphtheriae</em>. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do T6SS-positive Pseudomonas recipient bacteria counteract conjugative donor cells?

<p>By launching a lethal T6SS counterattack that eliminates the donor bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Type 6 Secretion System (T6SS) recognize a conjugative donor cell?

<p>By sensing the membrane perturbations resulting from mating pair complex formation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of direct repeats found flanking pathogenicity islands (PAIs)?

<p>They indicate that the DNA sequence has been acquired through horizontal gene transfer. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the acquisition of SPI-1 and SPI-2 impact the pathogenesis of Salmonella?

<p>It enables <em>Salmonella</em> to invade host cells, evade host defenses, and cause systemic infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are toxin-antitoxin (TA) systems typically encoded?

<p>On plasmids, bacteriophages, and chromosomes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of RNA in toxin-antitoxin (TA) systems?

<p>RNA can serve as an antitoxin by blocking mRNA translation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a bacterium loses a plasmid containing a toxin-antitoxin (TA) system, and the toxin is more stable than the antitoxin, what is the MOST likely outcome for the bacterial cell?

<p>The bacterium will experience growth inhibition or cell death due to the activity of the long-lasting toxin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bacteria utilize restriction-modification (RM) systems to defend against foreign DNA?

<p>By methylating their own DNA at specific sequences and cleaving foreign DNA that lacks these modifications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do CRISPR-Cas systems provide bacteria with adaptive immunity against foreign DNA?

<p>By using RNA molecules transcribed from spacer sequences to target and degrade foreign DNA matching those sequences. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Type 6 Secretion System (T6SS) in bacteria?

<p>To deliver toxin-coated spears into adjacent eukaryotic or bacterial cells, antagonizing them. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are pathogenicity islands (PAIs) considered significant in bacterial evolution?

<p>They often contain virulence genes acquired through horizontal gene transfer, enabling rapid pathogen evolution. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Bacterial Adaptation

Evolution through gene modification or acquisition, allowing bacteria to adapt to new selective pressures and environments.

Horizontal Gene Transfer (HGT)

The transfer of genetic material between different species or genera, contributing significantly to genome variability and rapid pathogen evolution.

Spontaneous Mutations

Small genetic mutations, less impactful individually than HGT, but their constant occurrence has a significant effect on bacterial processes and virulence.

Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)

Single nucleotide exchanges or replacements that occur at rates ranging from 10-7 to 10-10 per nucleotide per generation, depending on the bacterium.

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Recombination Events

Recombination events involving DNA duplication, insertions/deletions (indels), or rearrangements, occurring at a rate of 10-4 to 10-6 mutations per cell per generation.

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Hypermutability

A state where a small subpopulation of cells starts acquiring spontaneous mutations at an increased rate when stressed by nutrient deprivation and extended stationary phase conditions.

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Phase Variation

Changes in the expression of virulence proteins that occur at relatively high frequency compared to spontaneous mutations.

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Salmonella Flagellar Phase Variation

Switching between expression of different versions of flagellin proteins (H1 and H2) in Salmonella, which helps the bacteria avoid the host’s adaptive immune response.

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DNA Invertase (Hin)

An enzyme (called Hin) that promotes inversion of sequences upstream of the H2 flagellin gene, causing switching between expression of H1 and H2 flagellin proteins.

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Promoter Inversion in Mycoplasma

Manipulation of promoter orientation that leads to variable gene expression in Mycoplasma species.

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Phase Variation in Bordetella pertussis

Mutation of the coding sequence of a gene (bvgS) that regulates virulence, by adding or deleting a CG base pair in a sequence of six consecutive Cs.

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Slipped-Strand Misrepair

Phase variation resulting from slipped-strand misrepair at sites of repeated DNA sequences, leading to different protein sequences or truncations from frameshifts.

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Opa Proteins in Neisseria

Integral outer membrane proteins in Neisseria species that mediate intimate adherence and invasion during infection and undergo reversible phase variation at a rate of 10−3 to 10−4 per cell per generation.

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Lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

Membrane surface sugar-lipid molecule produced by Neisseria species with short, highly branched sugar units attached to the lipid core and no repeating O-antigen units.

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Antigenic Variation

Changing surface antigens through gene-shuffling events to avoid the host immune system.

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Pili of N. gonorrhoeae

Attachment structures of N. gonorrhoeae that are highly antigenic and undergo both phase and antigenic variation by recombination between different pilin genes.

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pilE

The major pilin gene with a promoter in N. gonorrhoeae.

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pilS

Silent copies of the pilin gene without a promoter in N. gonorrhoeae.

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Pilin Recombination in Neisseria

Recombination events between conserved regions of pilS genes and pilE, resulting in a new version of the pilE gene and hence a new pilin protein on the surface.

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Intragenic Recombination

Recombination within a single bacterium.

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Intergenic Recombination

Recombination between genes from different bacterial cells.

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Natural Transformation in Neisseria

The ability of Neisseria cells to take up extracellular DNA and incorporate it into their genomes through homologous recombination.

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Natural Transformation

DNA from a donor cell is released into the environment and taken up by a recipient cell.

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Competent Bacteria

Bacteria capable of taking up DNA from their environment.

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DNA-Uptake Sequences (DUS)

Short DNA sequences that serve as recognition sites for DNA uptake by competent cells.

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Quorum Sensing

A signaling system used by bacteria to communicate and coordinate behavior based on population density.

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Fratricide in Bacteria

A form of programmed cell death that releases DNA into the environment.

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Conjugation

The transfer of DNA directly from one bacterial cell to another through a connecting structure.

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Plasmids

Extrachromosomal DNA that replicates independently of the chromosome.

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Self-Transmissible Plasmids

Plasmids that encode genes for a transfer system, enabling DNA transfer from a donor to a recipient cell.

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Insertion Sequence (IS)

A type of simple transposon often found in F-factors.

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Episome

An F-factor that has integrated into the bacterial chromosome.

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F′-Factor

A plasmid derived from an F-factor that contains a segment of the bacterial chromosome.

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High-Frequency Recombination (Hfr) Strains

Bacterial strains with an integrated F-factor that transfer chromosomal DNA at a high frequency.

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Integrative Conjugative Element (ICE)

A plasmid initially integrated at a specific site in the bacterial chromosome.

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oriT Site (Origin of Transfer)

A specific DNA sequence where transfer initiates on conjugative elements.

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Relaxosome Complex

A complex that forms at the oriT site to initiate rolling-circle replication during conjugation.

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Mobilizable Plasmids

Plasmids that contain an oriT site and a mob gene but lack the tra genes for the transfer apparatus.

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Transposons

Mobile genetic elements that can move from one place in DNA to another within the same cell.

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Insertion Sequence (IS)

Transposable elements consisting of a transposase gene and inverted repeat sequences at the flanking ends.

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Composite Transposons

Transposons that consist of two IS elements flanking a central region containing cargo genes.

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Transduction

The transfer of bacterial DNA through bacteriophages.

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Bacteriophages

Bacterial viruses

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Lytic Phages

Phages that replicate their genetic material, synthesize structural proteins, and lyse host cells to escape.

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Temperate Phages

Phages that have two phases in their life cycle: a lytic phase and a lysogenic phase.

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Lysogenic Phase

The phase where a temperate phage integrates into the bacterial chromosome.

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Prophages

Temperate phages that have integrated into the bacterial chromosome.

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Generalized Transducing Phages

Phages that accidentally transfer a segment of bacterial chromosomal DNA from one bacterium to another during the lytic phase.

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Specialized Transducing Phages

Phages that contain an almost complete phage genome plus one or two bacterial genes that were adjacent to the phage attachment site.

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Toxin-Antitoxin (TA) System

A two-gene operon that encodes a toxin (inhibits cell function) and an antitoxin (neutralizes toxin).

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Antitoxin Function

Small RNA, protein, or peptide that prevents the toxin from acting, thereby neutralizing its toxic effects.

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Restriction-Modification (RM) Systems

Bacterial defense systems using restriction enzymes and modification enzymes.

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Restriction Enzyme

An enzyme that cleaves double-stranded DNA at specific recognition sites.

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Modification Enzyme

A site-specific DNA methylase that modifies DNA, preventing cleavage by its cognate restriction enzyme.

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CRISPR-Cas System

A system that uses DNA sequences from previous invaders to target and degrade foreign DNA.

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CRISPR Locus

Direct repeat sequences separated by unique spacer sequences derived from foreign DNA.

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Cas Proteins

Proteins responsible for processing and mediating CRISPR-mediated interference.

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Type 6 Secretion System (T6SS)

Bacterial defense against conjugation involving a toxin-coated 'spear'.

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Pathogenicity Islands (PAIs)

DNA regions in bacterial chromosomes with different G+C content that contain virulence genes.

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Virulence Genes in PAIs

Virulence genes located on pathogenicity islands within bacterial genomes.

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% G+C Content

The % of guanine and cytosine base pairs in a DNA region.

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PAI Impact

The acquisition of a single pathogenicity island converts a non-pathogenic bacterium into a pathogen.

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SPI-1 Function

The ability to invade epithelial cells.

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SPI-2 Function

The ability to survive within macrophages and cause systemic infections.

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Supragenome (Pan-genome)

Collection of all genes within a bacterial species, including core and accessory genes.

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Metagenome

All of the genes present in a community of microorganisms, including different species.

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Study Notes

  • Bacteria adapt and evolve by modifying gene function through mutation or acquiring new genes via horizontal gene transfer (HGT).

Horizontal Gene Transfer (HGT)

  • High-frequency exchange of large DNA sequences between species via HGT contributes significantly to genome variability and rapid pathogen evolution.
  • DNA transferred by HGT is often stably maintained even without selective pressure.
  • Genes for bacterial toxins and virulence factors evolve through HGT mediated by plasmids, transposons, and bacteriophages.
  • HGT facilitates the acquisition of genes encoding antibiotic resistance, toxins, and other virulence factors.
  • Acquired genes help bacteria evade the host's immune system, grow on varied nutrients, survive environmental conditions, and disseminate within the host.
  • HGT allows traits to evolve separately before combining in a single bacterium to enhance virulence.
  • Considerable HGT can occur outside human or animal environments, posing potential risks if genetic material evolves in unusual environments.

Mechanisms of Genetic Change and Diversification

Spontaneous Mutation

  • Single nucleotide exchanges (SNPs) occur at rates ranging from 10−7 to 10−10 per nucleotide per generation.
  • Recombination events like DNA duplication, insertions/deletions (indels), or rearrangements can occur at a rate of 10−4 to 10−6 mutations per cell per generation.
  • Genetic changes affect biological activity or regulation, impacting growth, fitness, and virulence.
  • Tandem duplication of a bacterial chromosome region can increase the amount of a regulatory protein, affecting gene expression.
  • Stress-induced mutagenesis involves an error-prone DNA polymerase that introduces frequent mutations, enabling bacteria to cope with stress.

Phase Variation

  • Changes in the expression of virulence proteins occur at high frequency compared to spontaneous mutations.
  • Salmonella species can switch between making flagella with the type H1 flagellin protein to flagella with the type H2 flagellin protein, caused by a DNA invertase (Hin).
  • Phase variation plays a role in the formation of diverse phenotypes within microbial communities in biofilms.
  • Mycoplasma species, obligate intracellular pathogens, constantly alter the expression of their surface antigens through promoter inversion.
  • Inversion of the promoter sequence can create a hairpin structure that acts as a transcriptional stop signal, controlling gene expression.
  • In Bordetella pertussis, virulence gene expression is modulated through mutation of the coding sequence of a gene, bvgS.
  • Slipped-strand misrepair at sites of repeated DNA sequences leads to different protein sequences or truncations from frameshifts.
  • Opa proteins in Neisseria species undergo reversible phase variation through slipped-strand frameshifts.
  • Lipooligosaccharide (LOS) in Neisseria species varies in surface structure due to slipped-strand misrepair in genes encoding glycosyltransferases and sialyltransferases.

Antigenic Variation

  • Pathogenic microbes can avoid the host immune system by changing their surface antigens through gene-shuffling events.
  • The pili of N. gonorrhoeae undergo phase and antigenic variation by recombination between different pilin genes.
  • Recombination between conserved regions of pilS and pilE genes results in a new version of the pilE gene, producing a new pilin protein.
  • Pilin recombination in Neisseria requires RecA protein and is a type of gene conversion.
  • Phase and antigenic variation are major mechanisms of Neisseria pathogenesis, leading to repeated infections.
  • Intergenic recombination occurs when recipient cells pick up extracellular DNA from donor cells, allowing pilS to recombine with pilE.
  • Neisseria bacteria frequently undergo autolysis to release genomic DNA and are naturally transformable, enabling intergenic recombination.

Horizontal Gene Transfer: Mobile Genetic Elements

Natural Transformation

  • Bacteria exchange DNA through transformation, conjugation, or transduction.
  • Natural transformation involves a recipient cell taking up DNA released from a donor cell.
  • Progeny from natural transformation are called transformants.
  • Most bacteria need artificial help such as chemical or electrical treatments to efficiently uptake DNA, making them "competent".
  • Molecular biology relies on introducing recombinant DNA into chemically or electrocompetent bacteria.
  • Some bacteria are naturally competent, including pathogens like Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
  • Natural competence allows for the uptake and incorporation of homologous DNA from the environment into the chromosome.
  • In 1928, Frederick Griffith's experiment with S. pneumoniae demonstrated natural transformation.
  • Griffith observed pathogenic (S strain/smooth colonies) and nonpathogenic (R strain/rough colonies) varieties of S. pneumoniae.
  • Mice injected with the S strain died; mice injected with heat-killed S strain or the R strain lived.
  • Mice injected with live R strain mixed with heat-killed S strain died, and smooth colonies were recovered.
  • Griffith concluded a "transforming principle" transferred the pathogenic trait to the live R strain, with the "transforming principle" later identified in 1944 as DNA by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty.
  • Many naturally competent bacteria have short (10 to 12 base pairs) DNA-uptake sequences (DUS) for DNA binding and uptake.
  • Some bacteria have specific receptors recognizing their own DUS, limiting DNA uptake to their own species (e.g., N. gonorrhoeae: 5′-GCCGTCTCAA-3′).
  • Other bacteria, such as Bacillus subtilis and S. pneumoniae, uptake any DNA, but only homologous DNA sequences are recombined.
  • Competence is highly regulated, involving quorum-sensing signals and environmental factors like acidity.
  • The quorum-sensing signal for S. pneumoniae is a small, linear peptide called competence stimulatory peptide.
  • Competent bacteria initiate a gene expression cascade to produce competence proteins for DNA uptake and recombination.
  • Some species, like V. cholerae and S. pneumoniae, undergo fratricide, killing other cells to release DNA for uptake by competent bacteria.
  • DNA uptake across the inner membrane in Gram-negative bacteria is similar to Gram-positive bacteria, with conserved proteins involved in competence.
  • Core competence proteins are homologous to type 2 secretion systems (T2SS) and type IV pili, suggesting an evolutionary relationship.
  • In Gram-negative bacteria, DNA uptake requires DUS binding to type IV pili and transport into the periplasm through a secretin (PilQ) pore.
  • ATP hydrolysis drives transport via pili retraction, pulling DNA into the periplasm where it interacts with the DNA receptor ComEA.
  • Transport across the inner membrane involves nicking and degradation of one DNA strand and funneling the other through the ComEC transmembrane channel.
  • Inside the cytoplasm, the DNA strand integrates into the chromosome through homologous recombination.
  • In Gram-positive bacteria, double-stranded DNA binds nonspecifically to a type IV-like pseudopilus, which retracts to bring DNA to the ComEA receptor.
  • The nuclease EndA degrades one DNA strand, while the other is transported across the cell membrane by the ComEC protein.
  • In the cytoplasm, the single-stranded donor DNA recombines with a homologous region of the chromosomal DNA.
  • H. pylori and C. jejuni use the ComB system for DNA uptake, which is related to type 4 secretion systems (T4SS) and the VirB/VirD system in Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Conjugation: Plasmids and Transposons

  • Conjugation is a process where most Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria transfer DNA directly from one cell to another.
  • In 1947, it was observed that mixing two different strains of E. coli resulted in new progeny strains, suggesting a mating process where DNA strands separate and one strand moves from donor to recipient via a mating bridge.
  • The two single strands in each cell serve as replication templates to generate double-stranded DNA again.
  • Progeny from conjugation are called transconjugants.
  • Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA that replicate independently of the chromosome.
  • Plasmids frequently carry virulence genes, including those for antibiotic resistance, toxins, and adherence.
  • Commensal bacteria in the gut can maintain plasmids and act as reservoirs for genetic traits that can spread to other bacteria.
  • Some naturally occurring plasmids are not transmissible (nonconjugative), while others are self-transmissible or mobilizable.
  • Self-transmissible plasmids encode genes for a transfer system (Tra system) necessary for DNA transfer from donor to recipient via conjugation.
  • F (fertility)-factors are conjugative plasmids that replicate separately from the chromosome and transfer via conjugation.
  • F-factors contain genes for plasmid replication, pili for cell-cell contact, DNA transfer, and insertion sequences.
  • Some F-factors can contain complex transposons with antibiotic resistance genes, spreading antibiotic resistance upon transfer.
  • An integrated F-factor is referred to as an episome.
  • An integrated F-factor can aberrantly recombine out of the bacterial chromosome, including a segment of adjacent bacterial chromosome that is now included in the plasmid.
  • Bacteria with an integrated F-factor are termed high-frequency recombination (Hfr) strains.
  • In conjugative transposition, an integrative conjugative element (ICE) is initially integrated at a specific site in the bacterial chromosome and excises from the chromosome into its conjugative plasmid form.
  • ICEs contain an oriT site, tra genes encoding a conjugative T4SS, a t4cp gene encoding an ATPase T4SS coupling protein (T4CP), raf genes encoding relaxosome accessory factors (RAFs), and a mob gene encoding a relaxase (Mob).
  • Mob relaxase recognizes and nicks the oriT site, followed by RAFs binding to form a relaxosome complex.
  • Resulting single-stranded DNA with relaxase at the end is funneled through T4SS to the recipient cell, recircularized, and replicated.
  • In the recipient cell, site-specific recombination integrates the ICE plasmid into the bacterial chromosome at specific attachment sites.
  • ICEs can carry cargo genes such as antibiotic resistance and virulence genes.
  • Promiscuous transfer systems in conjugative plasmids and conjugative transposon ICEs can move DNA between unrelated species, significantly impacting antibiotic resistance.
  • Mobilizable plasmids contain integrative mobilizable elements (IMEs) with an oriT site and a mob gene but lack tra genes.
  • Mobilizable plasmids can replicate in cells lacking another conjugative helper plasmid but cannot be transferred by conjugation alone.
  • In bacteria with a conjugative plasmid, Tra functions are provided in trans, allowing mobilizable plasmids to transfer to recipient cells, with such plasmids being useful for transferring cloned genes in biotechnology.
  • Transposons (Tns or "jumping genes") are MGEs that move from one DNA location to another within the same bacterial cell where they can move between sites on bacterial chromosomes or between plasmids and the chromosome and vice versa.
  • The smallest type of bacterial transposon, called an insertion sequence (IS), consists of a transposase gene that encode an enzyme that promotes their transposition, and inverted repeat sequences at the flanking ends, which are used to target sequences for insertion in target DNA.
  • Upon insertion, the target DNA is duplicated as a direct repeat flanking the integrated IS.
  • When an IS element inserts in the coding region of a gene, the gene is usually inactivated; thus, IS elements are not generally tolerated in essential genes.
  • Composite (or complex) transposons consist of two IS elements flanking a central core region that contains cargo genes, including antibiotic resistance or virulence genes.
  • IS elements and composite transposons move within the DNA of a single bacterial cell; unlike conjugative transposons (ICEs), which move between bacterial cells.
  • Transposons and conjugative transposons create genetic and phenotypic diversity, transmitting antibiotic resistance and virulence genes within and between bacterial populations.

Phage Transduction

  • Transduction is a mechanism where bacteria exchange DNA through transfer by bacterial viruses (bacteriophages, or "phages").
  • Research in 1926 showed a filterable agent from scarlet fever isolates could convert non-inducing strains of Streptococcus pyogenes into strains that could induce scarlet fever.
  • The diphtheria toxin toxA gene was demonstrated in 1951 to be encoded on a β-bacteriophage from Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
  • Many toxins and virulence factors are encoded on integrated bacteriophages in Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.
  • Transduction allows a bacterium to acquire new DNA segments, typically 20 to 100 kilobases.
  • Lytic phages replicate their genetic material, synthesize phage structural proteins, and lyse host bacterial cells to escape.
  • Temperate phages have a lytic phase and a lysogenic phase, employing site-specific recombination to integrate into the bacterial chromosome.
  • During the lytic phase, viral proteins assemble into capsids and tails, and the viral genome is packaged into virions.
  • A phage-encoded holin inserts into the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane, forming a pore for lysin transport to digest peptidoglycan and cause cell lysis.
  • Temperate (lysogenic) phages integrated into the bacterial chromosome are called prophages.
  • A lysogenic phage produces a repressor protein to prevent excision from the bacterial chromosome, except under stress.
  • Lysogenic phages can revert to the lytic phase, directing the lytic phase once out of the bacterial chromosome.
  • Prophages can confer new biochemical and virulence properties on host bacteria.
  • Defective prophages are inactive but continue to express virulence genes.
  • Virulence gene-encoding prophages are a form of pathogenicity island.
  • Generalized transducing phages transfer a segment of bacterial chromosomal DNA during a phage lytic phase.
  • During the lytic phase, a phage-encoded nuclease degrades the bacterial chromosome into pieces of the same size as the phage genome.
  • Phage DNA is packaged into capsid phage heads by a "head-full" mechanism based on DNA size.
  • Occasionally, a segment of the bacterial chromosome is packaged instead of phage DNA, injecting DNA into recipient bacteria.
  • Delivered bacterial DNA segments recombine into the recipient's chromosome via RecA-dependent homologous recombination.
  • In generalized transduction, mutations and genes are transferred from one bacterium to another.
  • Specialized transducing phages contain an almost complete phage genome plus one or two bacterial genes adjacent to the phage attachment site.
  • During lysogeny, the phage genome circularizes, undergoing site-specific recombination into a specific DNA sequence in the bacterial chromosome.
  • During the transition to the lytic phase, most phage genomes excise precisely and are packaged into phage capsid heads.
  • Aberrant phages package genes in a bacterial chromosome adjacent to the phage attachment site, infecting and lysogenizing other bacteria.
  • This form of transduction is "specialized" because only bacterial genes adjacent to the attachment site are accidentally packaged.

Control of Horizontal Gene Transfer

Toxin-Antitoxin (TA) Systems

  • Acquisition of a large extrachromosomal piece of DNA, like a plasmid, places a metabolic burden on the cell in terms of energy, machinery, and cellular effects of the expressed gene products.
  • To maintain the plasmid once acquired, many plasmids carry a two-gene operon encoding a toxin-antitoxin (TA) system.
  • The toxin is a protein or peptide that inhibits an essential cellular function, causing growth arrest or bacterial death.
  • The antitoxin is a regulatory small RNA (sRNA) that blocks toxin mRNA translation, an RNA that binds to toxin protein, or peptide that binds tightly to the toxin, neutralizing its toxic activity.
  • The antitoxin serves as a bacterial "immunity" factor, protecting the bacterium from the toxin's action.
  • As long as the bacterium retains the plasmid with the TA system, both toxin and antitoxin continue to be expressed, and the antitoxin prevents the toxin from working.
  • If the plasmid is lost during replication, the bacterial progeny cannot make any more toxin or antitoxin.
  • Since the toxin is more stable than the antitoxin, the released toxin will block bacterial growth or kill the bacterium.
  • Besides plasmid maintenance, TA systems on plasmids, bacteriophages, and chromosomes also play additional roles in bacterial population survival and persistence under stressful conditions.

Restriction-Modification (RM) Systems

  • Most (90%) bacteria and archaea harbor restriction-modification (RM) systems to prevent acquisition of foreign DNA.
  • RM systems are comprised of two cognate genes; one encodes a restriction enzyme, and the other a modification enzyme.
  • The restriction enzyme is a nuclease that cleaves double-stranded DNA at a specific recognition site.
  • The modification enzyme is a site-specific DNA methylase that modifies DNA at the sequence recognized by its cognate restriction enzyme.
  • DNA methylation prevents the restriction nuclease from cleaving the DNA.
  • The specific double-stranded DNA sequence recognized by an RM pair is usually 4 to 8 base pairs in length and frequently is found in bacterial or phage genomes.
  • Invading foreign double-stranded DNA that has not been methylated at the restriction recognition site will be degraded by the restriction enzyme.
  • A mutation that inactivates the methylase of an RM pair is lethal.
  • Phages have evolved ways to evade RM systems, including modifying bases, encoding phage proteins that mask restriction sites, encoding a phage methylase, or encoding phage proteins that neutralize or sequester the RM system nucleases.
  • Unmethylated foreign DNA that enters recipient cells as single strands through natural transformation or conjugation will be cleaved by restriction enzymes.

CRISPR-Cas Systems

  • CRISPR-Cas systems (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and their associated Cas proteins) are another form of bacterial immunity against acquisition of foreign DNA.
  • CRISPR-Cas modules are found in large multigene operons in most archaea and many bacteria and block invading genetic elements, such as bacteriophages and plasmids.
  • Each CRISPR locus is comprised of DNA direct repeat sequences of 23 to 50 base pairs in length that are separated by similar-sized, nonrepetitive DNA spacer sequences that have sequence identity with DNA sequences from plasmids or bacteriophages.
  • Alternating direct repeats (palindromes) and unique spacer sequences (CRISPRs) can range from 2 to several hundred within a single CRISPR locus and specify the targets of CRISPR interference, which are foreign DNA to which the bacterium has previously been exposed and is now protected against if it invades again.
  • A set of cas genes immediately precedes or follows the CRISPR locus and encodes the Cas protein machinery.
  • The Cas protein machinery is responsible for processing and mediating the CRISPR-mediated interference activity, resulting in degradation of foreign DNA (or in some cases RNA).
  • There are three main types of CRISPR-Cas systems, defined on the basis of their signature Cas protein with nuclease activity (Cas3, Cas9, or Csm/Cmr, respectively).
  • The crRNP complexes of type I and type III systems contain multiple Cas subunits involved in assembly of the crRNP and surveillance, whereas the type II system has only one Cas9 protein plus a transactivating crRNA (tracrRNA).
  • Extensive comparative genome studies have revealed considerable diversity in CRISPR-Cas systems, so it is important to bear in mind there are many subtypes and variants of the three main types.

Type 6 Secretion Systems (T6SS)

  • The type 6 secretion system (T6SS) is a bacterial nanomachine found in a wide variety of Gram-negative bacteria.
  • Bacteria use their T6SS apparatus to antagonize adjacent eukaryotic or bacterial cells by ejecting a toxin-coated "spear".
  • This spear penetrates the membrane of adjacent cells, delivering toxic proteins.
  • In certain Pseudomonas species, the T6SS has a special posttranslational regulatory system, sensing exogenous membrane perturbations, and builds its T6SS machine to aim its toxic spears directly at the source.
  • One type of membrane perturbation recognized by this system is the mating pair complex formation associated with T4SS-mediated DNA conjugation.
  • When a conjugative donor cell attempts to conjugate DNA into these T6SS-positive Pseudomonas recipient bacteria, the donor cell is frequently met with a lethal T6SS counterattack.

Pathogenicity Islands and Pathogen Evolution

Properties of Pathogenicity Islands (PAIs)

  • Studies of E. coli strains involved in urinary and intestinal diseases revealed that the hly genes, encoding the pore-forming toxin α-hemolysin, were located on large distinct chromosomal DNA regions (genomic islands) with a different % G+C content and codon usage than the rest of the bacterial chromosome.
  • The % G+C content of these DNA regions was found to be 41%, whereas the overall content of the E. coli chromosome is 51%.
  • Additional virulence genes, encoding P fimbriae, a toxin called cytotoxic necrotizing factor-1, and other virulence-associated proteins, were also located within these regions.
  • These regions were flanked by direct repeats of 16 to 18 base pairs, indicating that these DNA sequences had been acquired through HGT.
  • In the early 1990s, these DNA segments of the genome containing one or more virulence genes acquired through HGT were named pathogenicity islands (PAIs).
  • Comparing a large number of genome sequences has revealed the importance of PAIs in the diversification of strains within a bacterial species.
  • The genomes of most bacterial pathogens contain multiple PAIs, whereas their nonpathogenic counterparts do not.
  • Many PAIs appear by sequence analysis to be prophages or remnants thereof, but some appear to be integrated conjugative elements.
  • PAIs can constitute as much as 20% of a bacterial genome.
  • PAIs are usually inserted into defined locations within highly conserved DNA regions on the chromosome, such as phage attachment (att) sites, bacterial tRNA genes (leuX, selC), or insertion sequences (direct repeats).
  • Many PAIs are still part of active mobile DNA elements (plasmids, ICEs, transposons, or phages) or of mobilizable DNA elements and have a tendency to excise from the chromosome at frequencies as high as 10−4 to 10−5 or to undergo duplications and amplifications.
  • PAIs that are still mobilizable (plasmids, transposons, or prophages) carry genes needed for transmission.
  • Many PAIs encode genes that provide the bacteria with a selective advantage under certain environmental conditions, such as new pili for altered adhesion, means for acquiring iron and other nutrients, novel surface structures such as modified LPS for increased serum resistance, capsular biosynthesis to prevent phagocytosis, or delivery of proteins that enhance bacterial invasion, modulate intracellular signaling processes, or dampen immune responses.
  • Genes encoding most bacterial protein toxins are located on PAIs.
  • Lysogenic prophages carrying toxin genes are thought to serve as a major natural reservoir for toxin genes in bacterial populations.
  • HGT of toxin genes in natural environments may account for the prevalence of related toxins among diverse pathogens.
  • The cholera toxin gene (ctx), which is phage encoded in Vibrio cholerae, is closely related to the heat-labile enterotoxin genes (elt or etx) found in different strains of E. coli that cause diarrhea.
  • Shiga toxin-related (stx) genes in Shigella and E. coli strains and the closely related botulinum or tetanus neurotoxin (bot or tet) genes are found in different strains and species of Clostridium.
  • Phages containing stx from Shigella and E. coli can be transmitted not only between different bacteria in the intestine of humans and other animals but also in external aquatic environments.
  • The diverse locations of the PAIs encoding Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani neurotoxin genes illustrate the degree of HGT that has contributed to their evolution.

Pathogen Evolution in Quantum Leaps

  • Point mutations, genomic rearrangements, and antigenic variation lead to slow adaptive evolutionary changes, but acquisition of a single PAI can convert a nonpathogenic bacterium into a pathogen in a single step.
  • One of the first demonstrations of this was that of the phage-encoded diphtheria toxin.
  • Nontoxigenic strains of C. diphtheriae are avirulent and indeed are often found colonizing the upper respiratory tract.
  • Conversion into virulent toxigenic strains can occur by acquisition of the toxin gene via phage transduction.
  • Plasmids, phages, and transposons are thus means for rapid evolutionary change.
  • Since gene clusters in PAIs are acquired as a unit in a single HGT integration event, virulence genes carried on PAIs found in different bacterial genera have remarkable sequence similarity and are often found arranged in the same order.
  • Stepwise acquisition of PAIs can lead to progressive increase in virulence and the rapid emergence of new pathogens.
  • Two large PAIs have been identified in Salmonella, each contributing to a specific step in the course of infection.
  • The Salmonella pathogenicity island-1 (SPI-1) encodes about 25 genes, including a type-3 protein secretion system and various effector proteins delivered into the mammalian host cells via the SPI-1 type-3 secretion system and confers the ability to invade epithelial cells.
  • The Salmonella pathogenicity island-2 (SPI-2) encodes about 15 genes, including a second type-3 protein secretion system, a two-component regulatory system, and other effector proteins, conferring the ability to survive within macrophages and cause systemic infections.
  • Acquisition of these two PAIs was critical in the development of Salmonella as an intracellular pathogen because these PAIs enable Salmonella to invade host cells, evade host defenses, and cause systemic infections.
  • SPI-1 is present in strains from all subgroups of S. enterica, but SPI-2 is not found in Salmonella bongori strains, which are of intermediate virulence and are thought to represent an intermediate step in Salmonella evolution.
  • There is tremendous diversity within bacterial species, as well as the more traditional view of differences between bacterial species.
  • Two different clinical isolates that are the same bacterial species based on 16S rRNA gene sequence analysis can show considerable differences in the numbers and types of PAIs, lysogenic bacteriophages, and extrachromosomal elements they contain.
  • These differences underlie the fact that single bacterial species cause a multitude of infections.
  • Bacterial pathogens actually have a much larger gene pool, called a supragenome or pan-genome, than what is in the chromosome of any single bacterial cell.
  • HGT, genome plasticity, and the existing diversity of the available gene pool make bacterial adaptation inevitable in the face of changing environmental and stress conditions and are a major driving force of pathogen evolution and the emergence of the so-called superbugs.

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