Upgrade 2

Choose the WRONG statement about B737NG aircraft performance explanations?

When "Cleared For Landing", which exterior lights shall be ON?

I. Wing lights II. Taxi Light III. Runway Turnoff Lights IV. Fixed Landing Lights V. Retractable Landing Lights (if installed)

Choose the WRONG choice for "Water System Draining".

"No standard interval is specified, however, items in this category shall be rectified either before the next flight (“no-go items”), or in accordance with the conditions stated in the remarks column (5)." is the definition for Category .....

"Items in this category shall be rectified within three (3) consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery" is the definition for Category .....

In the MEL; should the number be a variable (e.g. passenger cabin items), or not applicable, a number is not required; a "........" is then inserted.

Dry Operating Weight includes ................

Effects of air bleeds on fuel flow are calculated as: Engine Anti-ice ON ....... kg/h, Engine & Wing Anti-ice ON ....... kg/h.

Which of the followings are CORRECT about the Landing Climb gradient (3.2 % ) calculation conditions?

If an aircraft diverts to an airport for which dispatch requirements have not been checked; which calculations are needed to be done in flight?

I. Landing distance

II. Missed approach climb gradient

III. Approach climb gradient

IV. Landing climb gradient

What will be the LDA for flaps 40 autoland (for dispatch performance calculation) on a 3,200 m dry runway?

Departure airport LTAU / ASR, SID-KISLA 1C, RWY25 requires 6.0% to 14.500 ft. RWY elevation 4000 ft. / Temp:17 deg. / TOW: 69 Tons / NADP: N/A Speed: Vref40+130 kts.

According to All Engine Climb Gradient tables; what is the final segment climb gradient value for given conditions?

Choose the WRONG statement about the possible effects of a lightning strike.

How many seconds should be waited between two start attempts during normal starter duty cycles?

What might be the reason if stall warning test fails?

Whose responsibility is to enter takeoff reference Page-2?

What is the max bank angle during TO if speed is below V2+15?

What is the advantage of flying at or near the Optimum Altitude?

Completing Duty Assignment in EFF / Jouney Log is …………… responsibility.

When does the FO set flap lever to the 40 during RTO?

Before performing an RNP approach, DME/VOR/LOC position updates must be selected OFF by PM.

What is the CORRECT call by PM before entering the departure runway with "only line-up clearance is received"?

Choose the CORRECT statement for Non-Commercial Operations?

What is the lowest permissible RVR value for Sunexpress Low Visibility Take-off operations?

Which one of the following is CORRECT for precision approach minima?

Which one of the following is WRONG for "CONTINUE" case at DH during Low Visibility Approaches (fail passive airplane)?

Which one of the following is WRONG for an LVTO with an RVR below 150 m but not less than 125 m?

Which one of the following airborne equipment is NOT mandatory for CAT II approaches?

Choose the CORRECT statement for "Flight Parameters Deviation Calls".

Which one of the following is NOT a subject in Low Visibility Operation CAT II and CAT III Crew Briefing?

In general the actual rate of climb / descent shall not exceed 1000 ft/min within the last 1000 ft before reaching the assigned level, in order to reduce the risk of TCAS Resolution Advisories (RAs). Nevertheless rates of climb or descent given by ATC for the purpose of maintaining separation of aircraft shall be strictly complied with.

What are the Maximum bank angles after take-off (below 400 ft. AGL / above 400 ft. AGL)?

Which one of the following is NOT an item for Approach Briefing?

Two flight crew members have to monitor and confirm clearances to ensure a mutual understanding of accepted clearances when a missed or misunderstood clearance could pose a safety risk to the flight. Which of the following is NOT one of the ATC clearances that have the potential to pose such safety risks?

Pilot incapacitation occurs frequently compared with other routinely trained non-normal conditions. It has occurred only for the pilots that aged over 45 and during all phases of flight.

An aeroplane position is regarded as confirmed when the flight crew is able to verify and monitor the aeroplane position by use of......... (Choose the WRONG statement)

Which one of the following situations does NOT require Sterile Cockpit Concept?

Which condition is WRONG for accepting a swing over to another RWY?

Which one of the following is NOT an element for Chain of Command in case of pilot incapacitation?

A Trafic Advisory must be responded by immediately attempting to establish visual contact with the intruder. In any case, avoiding action MUST be taken accordingly.

'L'' is suffixed in ADDFU in OFP means .............

What is the minimum Take-off RVR / VIS (m)? (LVP NOT in force)

Time difference (h) between reference time and local time where the crew member starts the next duty is 5 hours. So, what is the needed minimum elapsed time (h) since reporting at reference time in order to acclimatised to the local time where the crew member starts his/her next duty?

The total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member in any 28 consecutive days do not exceed......hours

Choose the CORRECT statement about FTL regulations.

Choose the WRONG statement about Late Show-Up Procedure.

Choose the CORRECT statement(s) about Duty Time Limitations.

Choose the CORRECT statement(s) about Duty Time Limitations.

In unforeseen cases such as EFB problems or the flight crew could not update the EFB before arriving to the aircraft, PED can be updated at the aircraft.

At the briefing phase, the First Officer had a Library Module Failure on his EFB. Before contacting with EFB Hotline he should apply hard reset by pressing power button for____ seconds. If failure continues, he will call EFB Hotline or OCC to get a backup EFB from safe.

Choose the CORRECT items about Electronic Charting (eRM);

I) If eRM is unusable, a Reset Data eRM procedure should be performed

II) If only one eRM application available; the remaining valid LIDO eRM charting application is not sufficient to continue operations

III) If only one eRM application available; if deemed necessary by the commander, a reduced set of charts can be requested to OCC

IV) If No eRM application available; OCC will provide the crew with the reduced set of charts and any other chart deemed required by the commander via the ground handling.

Regarding eRM, the chart database will be valid for at least ...... days.

Which data does the FO enter into eFF?

Choose the WRONG choise about weather briefing of eFF application.

What is the EFB normal layout above 10000''/climb/cruise for PF and PM respectively ?

For LNAV operation, the FMC provides a real-time bank angle limiting function. For operations other than LNAV, when operating at or near maximum altitude fly at least 10 knots above the lower amber band and use bank angles of .....° or less.

Deceleration from 280 to 250 knots in level flight without speedbrakes requires approximately 25 seconds and ..... NM.

When does VNAV engage during take off? (VNAV is armed on the ground)

Overweight landing should be accomplished preferably with FLAPS ___ in order to increase margin to flap placard speed.

Take off thrust setting should be set by....

Unpressurized Takeoff and Landing is defined as no engine bleed takeoff or landing with the APU inoperative, or operative but not providing bleed air.

An altitude correction due to cold temperature is needed for the following condition;

Planning minima for an aerodrome without available instrument approach procedure is ................................ , .......................................

From departure to destinations airport, sufficient suitable enroute alternate airport should be selected within coverage of with single engine ......... minutes / ...........NM circle along the selected route corridor.

Write down FOUR manuals that shall be carried as a hardcopy onboard: .............................., SXS-MEL - "ATA Chapter 46 - Information Systems" pages only (regarding failure of EFBs) in QRH, .............................., .............................., Stick checklists, on both control column, ............................

ETOPS procedures for Sunexpress are as follows:..........

Holding time available is accurate only in the ............ configuration provided the FMC holding speed is maintained.

If the rotation is delayed beyond V2 + 20 knots, the speed commanded by the flight director is rotation speed up to a maximum of ........... knots.

Initial communication with ATC should be established as soon as practicable or as instructed, but not before ................. ; and .......... ft AGL.

The PIC shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting ................................... when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final reserve fuel.

The following aeroplane systems shall be fully operational for narrow runway operations:

1. Flight controls;
2. ...........................;
3. Rudder pedal nose wheel steering;
4. ............................; and
5. All reversers.

After touchdown, when is the latest time that you can make an aborted landing (advance thrust and go-around after touchdown)? In other words; when do you have to make a full stop landing after touchdown?.........................

The Multi Crew Concept (MCC) regulates the organization of work and task sharing on the flight crew compartment. The objectives are as follows: a. full availability of the PF for the primary task of flying the aeroplane b. clearly defined and balanced ........................... c. mutual information, supervision and support to achieve a maximum of redundancy.

The airports which require higher rate of descent shall be published in intern letters or shall be defined in the airport risk assessments by flight operations management. These higher descent rates can also be found in the ............... tool.

DH of 150 feets for a CAT II operation requires ......... m. RVR value for CAT C aeroplane.

The headwind limit for CAT III approach is .......... knots.

With centreline lights failure CAT III approach can be conducted at NIGHT conditions with a minimum RVR value of ........ m

"LOCALIZER" deviation callout (during Cat II and Cat III approaches) shall be done at ........dot.

"SINK RATE" deviation callout shall be done for more than .......... fpm.

With no autopilot and no flight director; add ......... ft to DA/MDA stated on published chart, .........m. RVR is required.

The lowest permissible RVR value for CAT II operations is .......... m.

What is TUC (Time Of Useful Consciousness) at 35000 feet? ............

Considering normal operational usage of EFB; for each flight leg, ..............will download the eFF with using UAID 4G connection and send to ............ with using ''Send to other EFB'' feature.

For calculating stabilizer trim; ............. values shall be used. If a calculation difference between LIDO tool and FMC greater than ........... trim unit occurs, report to FLOE.

Who is responsible for Sending Fuel Order?.................

According to Normal Procedures; once the aircraft has moved on its own power, each flight crew member is responsible for handling the controls and switches in their Area of Responsibility as ................ or ..........................

Write missing tests that have to be performed after the flight crew change by Captain: Flight Deck Access System Test, ............................., ............................., ............................., Disengage Lights Test

2000 ft above Optimum Altitude provides .......... degrees bank prior to buffet onset.

To use VNAV feature for an approach, approach coding in FMC should include one of the following: a published ................on the LEGS page for the final approach segment, an RWxx waypoint at the approach end of the runway, ...........................before the approach end of the runway.

Landing Procedure - Instrument Approach using VNAV; approximately ........... NM before the final approach fix, PM calls “APPROACHING GLIDE PATH”

Landing reference speed (VREF) is equal to .......... times 1 G-stall speed in landing configuration.

...................... is not considered on wet or contaminated runway on takeoff calculation (clearway/stopway/displaced threshold/intersection).

VMCA (Minimum Control Speed in Air) assumes maximum ........... degree of bank to maintain directional control at the most adverse conditions.

About the CDL Limitations; operation with those missing parts requiring a reduction of VMO/MMO is permitted only when the airplane has the appropriate ............. set prior to flight.

Malfunctions encountered during a flight to a Non-Maintenance-Station shall be checked by the crew in coordination with ........... via OCC.

In which condition Anti-icing (second step) only is permitted?

Which of the followings should be De-iced with Deicing fluid?

What is the main reason of nuisance "Glideslope" advisory during an approach other than ILS or GLS?

Choose the WRONG statement regarding aircraft CG.

PM will correct heading accordingly with PF request during LNAV operation when manual flight.

During RNP (LNAV/VNAV) approach, which CDU page should be active for PF?

Which one of the following is WRONG for an LVTO with an RVR below 150 m but not less than 125 m?

Which one of the following is WRONG for the responses to the failures during the approach?

Which of the following is NOT one of the most critical conditions during an RTO on the Narrow Runway specifically?

Choose the CORRECT statement for Mounted-Aircraft attached EFB.

WX report/TAF. If a weather condition is described with indicator TEMPO at ETA +-1 HR; for Takeoff Alternate, persistent wind should be ......................, for Destination Alternate, persistent wind..........................

Which of the following statement is CORRECT about Departure Change Procedure (If the planned runway, SID, and/or performance data changes)?

"For the purposes of this MEL, the period of time between the moment when an aircraft begins to move under its own power, for the purpose of preparing for take-off, until the moment the aircraft comes to complete stop on its parking area, after the first landing" is a definition of ........

"Items in this category shall be rectified within three (3) consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery" is the definition for Category .....

Where can you find General Locations of the aircraft parts?

Average fuel flow for normal APU operation; on the ground ........kg/h, inflight ........ kg/h.

Which of the followings are CORRECT conditions about the Approach Climb gradient (2.1%) calculation?

Which one of the followings is NOT considered when determining Performance Landing Weight?

Which one of the followings is NOT a benefit of Takeoff Thrust Reduction?

Choose the WRONG statement about B737NG aircraft performance explanations?

What will be the LDA for flaps 40 autoland (for dispatch performance calculation) on a 3,200 m dry runway?

Which one of the followings is NOT an element for a standard NOTOC?

Landing Procedure - Instrument Approach using VNAV; At the final approach fix both pilots should;

• verify the crossing altitude

• crosscheck the altimeters. Verify they agree within ......... feet.

What is the advantage of flying at or near the Optimum Altitude?

According to RNP Approach procedures; which value should be entered as FMC vertical RNP on Progress Page 4?

What is the CORRECT callout of PF to fly in VNAV mode while flying manually?

What should be the response of PF when PM calls "PLUS HUNDRED"?

Choose the CORRECT statement for positioning crew members in Non-Commercial Operations?

Which one of the following is CORRECT for a Low Visibility Take-off with 200m>RVR>150m?

Which type of approach and landing is approved for CAT II?

Choose the CORRECT statement for LVTO with 200m>RVR> 150m.

Which one of the following is NOT an item in Low Visibility Operation CAT II and CAT III Crew Briefing?

For which of the following RVR value, the reported RVR value representative of the initial part of the take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment?

In general the actual rate of climb / descent shall not exceed 1000 ft/min within the last 1000 ft before reaching the assigned level, in order to reduce the risk of TCAS Resolution Advisories (RAs). Nevertheless rates of climb or descent given by ATC for the purpose of maintaining separation of aircraft shall be strictly complied with.

If any discrepancy occurs between FMC and other sources about stabilization trim value, which source takes precedence?

"Final Altitude Check" callout should be made only during ILS approach.

The aeroplane must be fully stabilized not later than 1000 ft above threshold elevation. Which one of the following is NOT an item for stabilization criteria?

After a go-around due to meteorological conditions or any other reason, the commander may decide to commence a second approach if he has reasons to believe that this will lead to a successful landing. After second go-around, it is highly recommended to try one more approach before diverting the alternate aerdrome.

Choose the WRONG action after the other pilot is confirmed to be incapacitated.

Choose the WRONG statement about taxi phase.

The commander may, after hearing the Senior Cabin Crew Member, grant permission to occupy a vacant crew seat in the cabin.

What is the deviation limit for approach speed during a stabilized final approach?

All fuel calculation for the option "No Alternate" must be the same as explained in SunExpress OMA. In addition, Alternate fuel will be zero and the final reserve (holding fuel) shall be increased to be sufficient to hold for ....... minutes (........ + ........) according to AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.150(b).

The CTOT is defined as a time and a tolerance (........ to ......... around CTOT) during which the aeroplane shall takeoff.

Sunexpress'' policy on commander''s discretion states the safety objective, especially in case of extended FDP or reduced rest and takes due consideration of additional factors that might decrease a crew member''s alertness level. Which one of the following is a factor for crew member''s alertness level?

Choose the CORRECT statement about FTL regulations.

Start of FDP is 14:30 at reference time. It is planned to fly normally 4 legs. However, the duty will end up with 5 legs at the end of the day due to operational reasons. Which one of the following FDP limit is CORRECT for the operation?

Choose the WRONG statement about Late Show-Up Procedure.

Choose the WRONG statement about post flight duty time.

Choose the CORRECT statement(s) about Duty Time Limitations.

Choose the WRONG statement for operational use of EFB.

If any EFB failure occurs during flight, incase contingency procedure degraded safety of flight,

I) Open an EFB CRS case or

II) Write a safety report

III) Log the EFB failure into the TLB

(eRM/AMM) Non-Directional ownship symbol (a green circle) requires ....... information.

Regarding eRM, the chart database will be valid for at least ...... days.

(Considering eFF Pages) Which page provides a useful overview (all relevant information for flight preparation purposes and allows access to various detail pages, featuring input fields and further information) for all flight phases?

For LNAV operation, the FMC provides a real-time bank angle limiting function. For operations other than LNAV, when operating at or near maximum altitude fly at least 10 knots above the lower amber band and use bank angles of .....° or less.

The fuel saved at higher altitude does not normally justify a step climb unless the cruise time of the higher altitude is approximately ...... minutes or longer.

Which speed is recommended to clear an obstacle in the shortest distance?

After reverse thrust is initiated, a full stop landing must be made.

Between 29.000 feet and the maximum operating altitude, CDS/standby altimeter differences greater than 500 feet should be suspected and verified by ground maintenance checks

What is the maximum altimeter difference between CDS and STBY at 10000 ft?

When braking action is POOR (0,25 or less) Takeoffs and Landings are

If edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights are INOP (in day time), effect on Landing Minima for CAT I approach is

On IFR flights, the commander shall only continue towards the planned destination aerodrome when the latest information available indicates that, at the expected time of arrival, the weather conditions at the ......................... or at least ............................................. are at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.

Dual engine circling approach should be flown with which configuration until turning base leg?

Scenario: Weather condition at destination as given below. During the Approach phase, received ATIS information is as following: EDDF 0020Z SPECI 25020KT +SN 0350 R25L/300N R25R/0150D 2/2 Q1030 NOSIG Low Visibility Procedure is in progress. Landing Runway 25L. VREF Flaps 40 is 135 kts. Braking Action is GOOD. When cleared to land, reported wind is 25024 kts. What should be the approach speed set on MCP? ........... kts.

The flight crew should consider the following in order to prioritize alerts and non-normal checklists: • Doing NNCs with ............ first, • Take action based on order of priority: time critical, ........... or ................. • System knowledge

Regarding Continuous Descend Final Approach (CDFA); the optimum angle for the approach slope is 3 degrees and should not exceed ........... degrees.

If the Go-around and Missed Approach gradient value is NOT satisfied for the selected approach you might select other approach chart or you might use ............. instead.

he commander may accept an ATC clearance to deviate from a published departure or arrival route, provided obstacle clearance criteria are observed and full account is taken of the operating conditions. In any case, the final approach shall be flown visually or in accordance with the established instrument approach procedures. The commander is responsible to ensure that: a. clearances received are safe with respect to terrain clearance during climb / descent and en-route, b. compliance with the provisions of a clearance will not ..................................... (e.g. night curfew).

The crosswind limit for CAT III approach is ....... knots.

The tailwind limit for CAT III approach is ............. knots.

The tailwind limit for CAT II approach is ....... knots.

Write additional LVTO requirements for Cat C aeroplanes with an RVR 200m>RVR>150m.

1. ......................................
2. Autobrake system (RTO Mode) 3.............................................
3. Max crosswind 10 knots
4. ............................................

The lowest permissible RVR value for CAT III operations is ......... m.

"SPEED" deviation callout (during approach) shall be done for ............ knots from .................... speed.

(Descending through 1000 feet above the aerodrome) Captain can decide to CONTINUE approach with minimum reported RVR values of TDZ .........m, MID .................. m and STOP END .................m. in CAT II operation with a DH of 120ft.

Oxygen requirement additional checks are performed during dispatch phase in cases where a route is in a region at which MSA is over ............... feet.

What is the required minimum battery level to start each flight leg (aircraft attached EFB usage)? ...... %.

For aircraft attached EFB, electronic navigational charts can be used during ..........................

(eFF/NAVLOG Time/Fuel Checks during flight) At least .......... time/fuel check needs to be done per flight, with a minimum of ......... per hour.

When informed by technican and/or notified by TLB about the engine wash up; it is highly recommended to perform ............... and .......................... Suplementary Procedure.

For the first flight of the day, at airport elevations at or above ............. feet MSL, if the temperature is below ....... degrees, consider placing the Ignition select switch to ..............before starting the engines. This may increase the likelihood of a successful engine start on the first attempt.

If the fluid leak continues after the engine is stable at idle, do one of the following: • shut down the engine for maintenance action, or • run the engine at idle thrust for up to ........ minutes. If the fluid leak stops during this time, no maintenance action is needed, or • shut down and restart the engine. Run the engine at idle thrust for up to ......... minutes. If the fluid leak stops during this time, no maintenance action is needed.

................... is not considered on wet or contaminated runway on takeoff calculation (clearway/stopway/displaced threshold/intersection).

For TOPAS and LAPAS wind entry; L&V means ................... for all runways.

"An operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed" is the definition for ......................

In the MEL APX.3. Operation Specific List of Required Airborne Equipment is listed such as .............................../.............................../..........................

Who performs the Contamination check?

Normally, 100 ml per container and total of 1 liter of liquid for personal use can be carried in hand baggage. Which one is NOT one of the exemptions for this carriage?

When must be the callsign of the aircraft changed during a turnaround to ensure correct data flow to the Netline System?

To request a change in the FLIGHT ALTITUDE indicator on cabin pressurization panel due to operational reasons; PF shall callout .........................

What is the correct course of action to avoid unintentional flap movement (flap&slat extension) in cruise?

In which Non-Normal conditions, (even if he/she is PM) the Captain becomes automatically PF? Write the missing items:

If there is Mounting Device Failure in flight on the Captain side (during narrow runway operation):

I) Continue operation with operative side

II) FO briefs the IAC and Captain takes note of critical information

III) Attaches the notes on the yoke

IV) Makes TLB entry after the flight

V) Stow both tablets below 10.000 ft.

Provided all leading edge devices, all control surfaces, tab surfaces, winglet surfaces and control surface balance panel cavities free of snow, ice and frost, in which conditions takeoff with CSFF on lower wing surfaces is allowable? (Airplanes with Defined Cold-Soaked Fuel Frost Area)

Whose responsibility to select VOR UPDATE-OFF during descent procedure of an RNP approach?

The entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes’ oxygen supply is required for ............ % of passengerS.

LIDO take-off performance tool; operational speeds given by FMC may not be the same with the performance tool. In this case pilots shall use the speed values from ....................

If the actual ZFW differs significantly (more than ........ tons) from the plan, a warning is displayed.

Duration of daily check covers next .......

The time limit can be extended once for the same duration as it is specified in the MEL and CDL for ........... category MEL items and any CDL item which has rectification interval.

The enroute climb weight penalties listed are based on operating speeds that approximate the maximum lift-to-drag ratio speed. To account for the difference in level off altitude when operating at 280 KIAS, multiply the enroute climb weight penalty by ...............

The more forward CG values ............. buffet limited altitude.

Which one of the following is NOT considered for In-Flight Landing calculations?

Choose the CORRECT term for "Runway length avaliable + clearway".

Choose the CORRECT term for "Runway length avaliable + stopway".

Which one of the followings is NOT a benefit of Takeoff Thrust Reduction?

If pushback is needed and the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed what should be the CORRECT hydraulic system set up?

Landing Procedure - Instrument Approach using VNAV; At the final approach fix both pilots should;

• verify the crossing altitude

• crosscheck the altimeters. Verify they agree within ......... feet.

If the rotation time between two flights is more than 30 minutes; if next crew has not arrived to the airplane, secure checklist will NOT be applied and the hand over of airplane will be made to responsible maintenance personnel or authorized personnel.

Which one of the following indication is NOT observed to callout "POSITIVE RATE" during normal (dual engine) takeoff?

Which of the following items should be checked or executed according to RNP checklist?

When is "V1" (VEE ONE) callout made by PM?

Which one of the following is a non-commercial operation?

Which items the pilot-in-command/commander shall be satisfied prior to commencing an LVO?

(RWY Contaminated) (Descending through 1000 feet above the aerodrome) For which one of the following reported RVR values (TDZ/MID/END) Captain can CONTINUE approach in CAT II approach (full RWY) (rwy contaminated)?

Choose the WRONG choice for "Required Airborne Equipment" during precision approaches.

Which one of the following is NOT an item in Low Visibility Operation CAT II and CAT III Crew Briefing?

Two flight crew members have to monitor and confirm clearances to ensure a mutual understanding of accepted clearances when a missed or misunderstood clearance could pose a safety risk to the flight. Which of the following is NOT one of the ATC clearances that have the potential to pose such safety risks?

Which condition is WRONG for accepting a swing over to another RWY?

Which one of the following aircraft equipment is NOT required for RVSM operation?

Which one of the following is NOT an element to maintain altitude awareness?

Which of the following method is NOT used to recognize pilot incapacitation?

Choose the WRONG item for communication from cabin crew to the flight crew according to Sterile Flight Crew Compartment Concept.

In case of unforeseen circumstances which could lead to severe fatigue, the commander reduces the actual flight duty period and/or increase the rest period in order to eliminate any detrimental efect on flight safety with the authorization of the Nominated Person of Flight Operation or his deputies and Sunexpress commits non-punitive approach where commander decides to do so.

"A period that commences when a crew member is required to report for duty, which includes a sector or a series of sectors, and finishes when the aircraft finally comes to rest and the engines are shut down, at the end of the last sector on which the crew member acts as an operating crew member" is a definition of........

What is the standard reporting time at AYT base?

What is the step time at AYT base?

At the briefing phase, the First Officer had a Library Module Failure on his EFB. Before contacting with EFB Hotline he should apply hard reset by pressing power button for____ seconds. If failure continues, he will call EFB Hotline or OCC to get a backup EFB from safe.

Choose the WRONG answer about eDesk.

Choose the WRONG choice about a CLOSED BRIEFING PACKAGE (eFF).

Choose WRONG statement about CLEARANCE section of eFF.

What is the maximum stabilizer trim difference between FMC and Take-off performance tool ?

If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, any thrust increase beyond the fixed derate (once fixed derate and/or assumed temperature is chosen) limit could result in loss of directional control and should not be accomplished unless in the opinion of the captain, terrain clearance cannot be assured.

The fuel saved at higher altitude does not normally justify a step climb unless the cruise time of the higher altitude is approximately ...... minutes or longer.

When does VNAV engage during take off? (VNAV is armed on the ground)

After reverse thrust is initiated, a full stop landing must be made.

Which statement is CORRECT for V2?

Between 29.000 feet and the maximum operating altitude, CDS/standby altimeter differences greater than 500 feet should be suspected and verified by ground maintenance checks

What is the maximum depth contamination limitations on WET or Contaminated Runways for Dry snow? ........ mm.

A new load sheet shall be issued on request of the commander or if LMC-limits are exceeded. Max ....... kg or ........ Passengers

A conversion from meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV is NOT used:

1. when reported RVR is available;
2. for calculating take-off minima; and
3. for any RVR minima less than ..............m

Automatic Pressurization Control Supplementary Procedures shall be applied when Landing Airport Elevation Above ......... feet but ........ feet and below.

During an autoland, the autothrottle retards the thrust so as to reach idle at touchdown. (RWY HDG 360) Reported wind for landing is 04018G28 Kts. What will be the wind additive for autoland? ............. kts.

Scenario: Weather condition at destination as given below. During the Approach phase, received ATIS information is as following: EDDF 0020Z SPECI 25020KT +SN 0350 R25L/300N R25R/0150D 2/2 Q1030 NOSIG Low Visibility Procedure is in progress. Landing Runway 25L. VREF Flaps 40 is 135 kts. Braking Action is GOOD. When cleared to land, reported wind is 25024 kts. What should be the approach speed set on MCP? ...... kts.

Maximum altitude is the highest altitude at which the airplane can be operated. The FMC predicted maximum altitude is the lowest of: ....................... , ......................... , ........................

The PIC shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring ................... ; when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the PIC calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel.

Wake turbulence intensity and exposure depend on a number of factors, such as:

• Aeroplane weight and dimensions (wing span)
• ..........................................
• Flight track (SID)
• ................, etc.

DH of 150 feets for a CAT II operation requires ............ m. RVR value for CAT C aeroplane.

The displacement limit from the runway centerline at the ILS reference datum for Facility Performance CAT II localizer is +- ............. m

The displacement limit from the runway centerline at the ILS reference datum for Facility Performance CAT III localizer is +- .............. m

"An automatic landing may be considered to be successful if, Longitudinal touchdown is beyond a point on the runway .............. meters after the threshold and before the end of the touchdown zone lighting (................ meters from the threshold)".

After landing; engine cooldown is recommended at least ......... minutes.

If TORA is more than ................meters and ATIS reported wind has ................... component, Performance Software will be run with 0 (zero) headwind component unless aircraft performance is limited.

If, during recall, an amber caution illuminates and then extinguishes after a master caution reset, crew should; check the .............. the respective NNC is ....................... decide if .................... is needed.

During LNAV and VNAV operations, the crew must verify all changes to the airplane’s: ................ , vertical path, ............... , ..................

Contaminated Runway means; a runway of which a .....................of its surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following; water or slush more than ........ mm. deep, compacted snow or ice.

List the limitations to use of improved climb speed: ....................... must be used, .............................. must be operative, .............................. thrust setting is not permitted.

"An operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed" is the definition for ................

“Maintenance Procedure required at each Daily Check” means it is applied at first dispatch with associated item inoperative, then approximately once in ..............

Touchdown should be achieved at 1000ft (300m) beyond the threshold. A later touchdown is not desirable, but acceptable with regard to the landing distance "safety margin*", however not more than; a. .................... m beyond the landing threshold for runways with a LDA ................ m or greater. .................... m beyond the landing threshold for runways with a LDA between .................. m - ..................... m.

In which condition Anti-icing (second step) only is permitted?

Hydraulic clearence shall be received from any authorized person on the ground, such as. ........................ , ......................... or ramp agent.

Which of the followings are CORRECT about stabilization criteria (OM-A)?

I.  The approach shall be stabilized before reaching 1000 ft. above the landing runway threshold elevation in IMC / VMC.

II.  The flight management systems and approach aids shall be correctly set.

III. The aircraft shall be on the correct flight path.

IV. During a swingover approach, wings shall be level on final when the aircraft reaches 300 feet AAL.

V. Vertical speed shall not be greater than 1000 fpm.

VI. The aircraft shall be in the correct landing configuration.

VII. The aircraft shall be at Vref(40) speed.

VIII. Deviations of +/- 10 knots are acceptable if the airspeed is trending towards the normal approach speed.

IX. All briefings and checklists shall be conducted.

WX report/TAF. If a weather condition is described with indicator TEMPO at ETA +-1 HR; for Takeoff Alternate, persistent wind should be ................................... ,for Destination Alternate , persistent wind .....................................................................

For the operation to continue, the commander can decrease the rest period between the following duties with the authorization of the Nominated Person of Flight Operation.

About the CDL Limitations; operation with those missing parts requiring a reduction of VMO/MMO is permitted only when the airplane has the appropriate ................... set prior to flight.

The MEL is intended to permit operations with equipment inoperative for an indefinite period of time.

Weight of the equipped airplane including crew and their baggage, cabin equipment and standard quantities of oil and water except traffic load and overwater flight equipment is defined as ...........

After RTO or landing; if the brake cooling calculation is in CAUTION ZONE, inform and avoid the Ground Crew or technician to be near the main landing gear for ..... minutes.

(RWY heading is 360) Reported wind is 09015G25, what will be the wind additive?

What is the first item of "Before Start Procedure" for F/O?

For VOR approach, VOR/LOC can be used as roll mode.

Before performing an RNP approach, DME/VOR/LOC position updates must be selected OFF by PM.

What is the CORRECT call by PM before entering the departure runway with "only line-up clearance is received"?

Which one of the following equipment''s failure or downgrade will prohibit CAT II operation in NIGHT conditions with RVR 550 m.?

Which limit is used for "GLIDESLOPE" callout during Cat III approaches?

Which one of the following callouts is to be heard ONLY in low visibility operations?

Normal sink rate at touchdown averages ........... ft/min. An aeroplane is certified with a sink rate of ........... ft/ min at the structural limited TOW and with ............ ft/min at the maximum landing weight.

An aeroplane is considered being established on final approach track, if its position is within:* ....... scale deflection for the ILS, LOC, LOC BC and VOR* ....... of the required bearing for the NDB* the published maximum x-track error for the RNAV

Autoland is certified for narrow runway operation.

Which one is NOT needed to increase Stiuational Awareness before starting the approach?

The commander may, after hearing the Senior Cabin Crew Member, grant permission to occupy a vacant crew seat in the cabin.

If anticipated departure delay of a CTOT is not more than ............ minutes passenger boarding and aeroplane handling shall aim for the ETD .

The Commander is the final authority to decide for the amount of extra fuel to be carried on each flight.

Choose the WRONG statement for operational use of EFB.

Choose the CORRECT statement for one EFF Failure at other than main bases (on the ground).

EFB tablet batteries will be used as backup power source. To be able to achieve this, battery shall be minimum ....% for aircraft attached usage and ....% for pilot attached usage

During take off roll, a momentary autothrottle overshoot of 4% N1 may occur but thrust should stabilize at +/-......% N1, after THR HLD.

Which speed is recommended to clear an obstacle in the shortest distance?

Which statement is CORRECT for ice crystal icing ?

Which one is WRONG for autothrottle arm mode?

Unpressurized Takeoff and Landing is defined as no engine bleed takeoff or landing with the APU inoperative, or operative but not providing bleed air.

What is the maximum altimeter difference between Captain and FO PFD’s at 25000 ft?

What is the maximum altimeter difference between CDS and STBY at 10000 ft?

Choose the CORRECT statement if the Cabin Pressurization Panel display indications flicker, become too dim to read, or completely blank.

Do not retract flaps beyond ........, when runways and taxiways are contaminated until inspection shows them free of ice.

If Type B approach operation is available, basic fuel scheme planning minima for destination alternate aerodrome; aerodrome ceiling is ................... , RVR/VIS ........................

Take offs and landings shall not be conducted on runway width less than .......... m

Dual engine circling approach should be flown with which configuration until turning base leg?....................

The rolling takeoff procedure is strongly advised when crosswinds exceed ..........knots or tailwinds exceed ........ knots.

Proper takeoff speeds (V1, VR, and V2) are based on .................., flaps setting, thrust rating and assumed temperature, ........................., QNH, wind, ......................., and performance options.

‘Controlled rest’ means a period of time ‘off task’ that may include actual sleep. The rest period should be no longer than ....... minutes (in order to limit any actual sleep to approximately 30 minutes) to limit deep sleep and associated long recovery time (sleep inertia). After this .........-minute period, there should be a recovery period of ......... minutes to overcome sleep inertia during which control of the aircraft should not be entrusted to the flight crew member. At the end of this recovery period an appropriate briefing should be given.

Which items must be briefed by heart during Approach Briefing?

1. Final altitude 2.. ........................
2. MA Point (only non-precision approach)
3. ..............................

When the operation is predicated on the availability of ABAS, the pilot should perform a new RAIM availability check if ETA is more than ..........minutes different from the ETA used during the preflight planning. This check is also processed automatically .............NM before the FAF.

Levels of Automated Flight are; a. Managed Automatic b. .................... c. Managed Manual d. ...................

The airports which require higher rate of descent shall be published in intern letters or shall be defined in the airport risk assessments by flight operations management. These higher descent rates can also be found in the .............. tool.

The lowest permissible RVR value for CAT II operations is ...............m

The entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes’ oxygen supply is required for ..........% of passengers.

To decrease workload related to operational usage of EFB; below 10.000 ft. only ..........may be used by PF. If landing tool is needed to be used below 10.000 ft., .........will perform the landing calculations.

(Descending through 1000 feet above the aerodrome) Captain can decide to CONTINUE approach with minimum reported RVR values of TDZ ...........m., MID ............m. and STOP END ..........m. in CAT II operation with a DH of 160 ft. on a contaminated runway.

Write missing tests that have to be performed after the flight crew change by Captain: Flight Deck Access System Test,

Landing Procedure - Instrument Approach using VNAV; approximately ......... NM before the final approach fix, PM calls “APPROACHING GLIDE PATH”

Go-around gradient given on the instrument chart is satisfied with the actual landing weight and ambient conditions. If engine fails during missed approach with flaps not up, Accelerate at ....................... given on Landing performance tool and continue ..............................

In the MEL; "–"; symbol in Column 2 (Installed) and/or Column 3 (Required) indicates a ................ number (quantity) of the item installed/required or ............................

When an aircraft is instructed to cross a runway, pilot does not have to turn 'Strobe Lights' ON since only crossing a runway does not require it.

Which one of the following is allowed during refueling?

Choose the CORRECT statements about runway/taxiway excursion precautions.

I. Identify critical runways and the define details of critical runway operations.

II. Consider CRM, TEM, standard operating procedures, briefings, standard call-outs, and PF/PNF monitoring duties.

III. Using aircraft onboard equipment like AMM, RAAS is helpless to prevent runway excursions.

IV. Acquire the latest weather, wind, and runway surface condition reports via available data-link systems.

V. Brief the crosswind/tailwind takeoff and landing limitations applicable to the current operation during Descent or Take-off Briefings.

VI. Choose the safest runway and approach type considering weather, runway condition, inoperable equipment, and visibility.

VII. Use all stopping devices (speed brakes, reverse thrust, brakes) properly and as needed in order to provide sufficient stopping margin.

For which limiting factor, does the "Balanced V1" give the highest PTOW (Performance Takeoff Weight)?

Whenever positioning crew members only are caried on non-commercial operations, at least one CCM with at least and 6 months Sunexpress experience who has responsibility to pilot in command shall be on duty.

The MEL is intended to permit operations for a .......... period with inoperative items of equipment.

Dry Operating Weight includes ................

Considering MEL/CDL; how many negligible items may be missing without further penalty?

Choose the CORRECT statement about V speeds.

What is the CORRECT callout order for go-around (by PF / PM)?

1-400 (or 400 passed)

2-Flaps 15 (PM answers flaps15)

3-Go around

4-Gear up

5-G/A thrust set

6-Positive rate

What is the CORRECT order of procedure if red warning or amber caution light illuminates during or after engine start?

(I) on the ground, check MEL

(II) Decide if maintenance action is needed

(III) Do respective non-normal checklist (NNC)

Preflight exterior inspection is performed only by ..........

Which of the following items should be checked or executed according to RNP checklist?

Which items the pilot-in-command/commander shall be satisfied prior to commencing an LVO?

Which one of the following is NOT an approved Low Visibility Operation for Sunexpress?

Which one of the following is WRONG for "CONTINUE" case at DH during Low Visibility Approaches (fail passive airplane)?

At the dispatch phase, after updating his EFB, the captain noticed that there is a problem related with eFF Flight Plan Package. What is the best course of action?

Choose the WRONG answer about Lido Airport Moving Map (AMM).

Which symbol on eFF navigation bar button indicates that a page contains sub-pages?

When operating in the ECON mode, OPT altitude results in minimum ___ based on the entered cost index.

During "No Engine Bleed Takeoff", if engine failure occurs, do not position engine BLEED air switch ON until reaching ........ Feet or obstacle height has been attained.

An altitude correction due to cold temperature is needed for the following condition;

Choose the CORRECT statement if the Cabin Pressurization Panel display indications flicker, become too dim to read, or completely blank.

Landed ŞIRNAK (LTCV) airport in the summer with an OAT of 45 °C. APU is INOP and there is no pre-conditioned air source available. Ground time is 01:30 hours. Due to ambient air temperature cabin is not a healty work place. Which supplementary procedures should be followed? ..............

As pitch MCP mode; .........................is the preferred mode for altitude changes of 1,000 feet or more. ..................is preferred if the altitude change is less than 1,000 feet.

The displacement limit from the runway centerline at the ILS reference datum for Facility Performance CAT I localizer is +- ............m

In the EFB system menu, messages section, there are three different types of messages. Each message has to be handled seperately. ..............coloured message shows something wrong happened. Mostly it is about interrupted update or failure. And the crew have to try the task in the message again.

When informed by technican and/or notified by TLB about the engine wash up; it is highly recommended to perform ............................ and .................................. Supplementary Procedure.

Net climb gradient is used for obstacle clearance and is equal to Aircraft’s Gross (Actual) Climb gradient minus .............. %

The provisions of MEL are applicable until the airplane ...........................

In which type of fluids, you can increase hold over time by increasing the concentraion of the fluid/water mix ?

Which of the following item is NOT a part of standart cruise briefing?

Choose the WRONG statement according to Go-Around policy of SunExpress.

In which condition flight crew compartment can be unattended?

Choose the WRONG statement about Policy on the Pilot EFB terms of use.

If Circling approach operation is available, basic fuel scheme planning minima for destination alternate aerodrome; aerodrome ceiling is ...................... RVR/VIS is ...........................

Holding time available is accurate only in the .................... configuration provided the FMC holding speed is maintained.

How long additional time can be added to brake cooling time given by LAPAS for long taxi routes at dense ground traffic airports?

Choose the WRONG statement about improved climb speed?

Which one of the followings is NOT an element for calculating stabilizer trim setting for B737NG?

Landing Procedure - Instrument Approach using VNAV; VNAV should be used only for approaches that have one of the following features. (Choose the WRONG statement)

According to "Tests that have to be performed after a Flight Crew change" Oxygen Drop Test is done by …….

What is the CORRECT call by PM before entering the departure runway with "take-off clearance is received"?

(Descending through 1000 feet above the aerodrome) For which one of the following reported RVR values (TDZ/MID/END) Captain can CONTINUE approach in CAT II approach (full RWY)?

Which statement of the following is CORRECT about recording the low visibility approaches?

The Multi Crew Concept (MCC) regulates the organization of work and task sharing on the flight crew compartment. Choose WRONG statement for the objectives of MCC.

When should normal public address announcements from the flight crew compartment be made?

A Trafic Advisory must be responded by immediately attempting to establish visual contact with the intruder. In any case, avoiding action MUST be taken accordingly.

What is the minima for ILS CAT III DH and RVR ?

What does MEAN VALUE MS 185 mean in OFP?

What is the reference time for a crew member to remain acclimatized to the local time of his/her reference time, after reporting no matter how many time zones he/she has crossed?

What does the "Miminum Fuel" term on eFF summary page mean?

Destination airport elevation is 7000 feet. What should be set to Pressurization panel/LAND ALT indicator prior to takeoff? .............. feet.

The headset shall be used as the primary device for voice communications with Air Traffic Services:

1. when on the ground: a. when receiving the ATC departure clearance via voice communication, b. .................................................,
2. when in flight below transition altitude or 10,000 feet, which ever is higher, and
3. ..........................................................................

Whenever snow has been removed from a runway the cleared width should be 45 m. The commander may accept a width of less than 45 m for take-off and landing, considering especially: a. minimum acceptable value as published in the OMB b. ......................................... c. ........................................ d...........................................

Where no suitable intermediate aerodromes are available and the fuel carried will not allow the aeroplane to return from the aerodrome of destination to the aerodrome of departure regarded as alternate, the following points shall be calculated in advance: a. .................................. , and b. Point of Safe Return (PSR), if so required.

(Descending through 1000 feet above the aerodrome) Captain can decide to CONTINUE approach with minimum reported RVR values of TDZ ......... m., MID ............m. and STOP END .............. m. in CAT II operation with a DH of 120 ft.

What is TUC (Time Of Useful Consciousness) at 35000 feet? .......................

Connecting or disconnecting electirical equipment during fueling operations is allowed.

Which of the following statement is WRONG about engine start procedure?

Which one of the following deviation does NOT require SPEED deviation callout?

Which one of the following is NOT a rule of Refueling with Passangers on Board?