Avoiding Suggestive Questions

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Questions and Answers

What does a higher INR indicate about blood clotting?

  • Blood does not clot at all
  • Blood clots more quickly than desired
  • Blood clots more slowly than desired (correct)
  • Blood clots normally

Which vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are most sensitive according to PT?

  • Factors VIII and IX
  • Factors I and III
  • Factors V, VIII, and XII
  • Factors II, VII, and X (correct)

In which scenario is antibiotic prophylaxis NOT typically recommended?

  • Patients with implantable cardiac devices (correct)
  • Patients with prosthetic materials
  • Patients with dental procedures
  • Patients with a history of endocarditis

What device is used for measuring INR and allows self-monitoring?

<p>CoaguChek (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the preferred reporting method for Prothrombin Time results?

<p>International Normalized Ratio (INR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is correct regarding antibiotic prophylaxis before dental treatment?

<p>It is not recommended for most patients (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long before an invasive procedure must the INR test be taken?

<p>48 hours or less (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which valve is most commonly affected by infections?

<p>Mitral valve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary use of rFVIIa (NovoSeven RT) in patients with inhibitors?

<p>To stop spontaneous bleeding and prevent excessive bleeding during surgeries (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended IV dosage of Desmopressin (DDAVP) for a patient preparing for a procedure?

<p>0.3 mcg in 100 mL saline infused over 30 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a test dose of DDAVP administered before a procedure?

<p>To verify adequate rise in F-VIII levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the minimum time interval between the test dose of DDAVP and the surgical procedure?

<p>1 week (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients with moderate to severe F-VIII deficiency without inhibitors, what is required before invasive dental procedures?

<p>F-VIII replacement therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does e-aminocaproic acid (EACA) play for patients with mild Hemophilia A?

<p>It stabilizes blood clots when combined with DDAVP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients with moderate to severe F-VIII deficiency with inhibitors, what is the suggested treatment before dental procedures?

<p>rFVIIa (NovoSeven RT) before the procedure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical peak effect timing for the nasal spray administration of Desmopressin (DDAVP)?

<p>60-90 minutes after administration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical presentation of a ruptured cerebral vascular aneurysm?

<p>Sudden severe headache (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is NOT part of the medical management for unruptured cerebral vascular aneurysms?

<p>Endovascular coiling (C), Surgical clipping (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be considered when performing dental procedures on patients using dual antiplatelet therapy?

<p>Adjunctive local hemostatic methods are recommended. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT considered a high-risk factor for thromboembolic events?

<p>Recent hip replacement surgery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common sign of a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?

<p>Complete recovery within 1-24 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the impact of low-dose ASA combined with other antiplatelet drugs on bleeding during dental treatments?

<p>Has no impact on the amount and duration of bleeding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a first-line pharmacologic treatment for TIA?

<p>Aspirin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these antiplatelet drugs is classified as a Protease-activated receptor-1 (PAR-1) antagonist?

<p>Vorapaxar (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be avoided during dental treatment for patients with cerebral vascular conditions?

<p>Prolonged appointments (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When treating a patient with chronic kidney disease, what additional precaution should be taken during dental procedures?

<p>Use of adjunctive local hemostatic methods is advised. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors influences the treatment of unruptured aneurysms?

<p>Size (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is associated with both a TIA and a stroke?

<p>Ipsilateral monocular visual disturbances (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a major category of cardiovascular drugs mentioned in the content?

<p>Antidepressants (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For patients undergoing tooth extraction with recent stroke or TIA, what is the recommended approach?

<p>Consider the patient's bleeding risk and implement local hemostatic methods. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important dental consideration for patients on anticoagulant therapy?

<p>Assess bleeding risk (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of patients should be classified under high-risk for thromboembolic events due to mechanical heart valves?

<p>Patients with all mechanical mitral valves (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of question typically provides the answer within its structure?

<p>Suggestive questions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information is primarily included in the Biographic Information section of a patient’s medical history?

<p>Patient's date and place of birth (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect does the Chief Complaint best represent in a patient's medical history?

<p>A summarization of patient's reasons for seeking care (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be assessed in the Source and Reliability section of a patient's medical history?

<p>The patient's reliability in providing accurate information (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which question type does NOT lead the respondent toward a specific type of answer?

<p>Direct questions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical details should be included in the History of the Present Illness section?

<p>Timeframes and factors related to the chief complaint (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of question is considered problematic as it suggests the expected answer?

<p>Leading questions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the Pain Assessment section evaluate about a patient's experience?

<p>Duration, location, intensity, and factors affecting the pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Study Notes

Question Types to Avoid

  • Suggestive Questions: Lead the respondent towards a specific answer.
  • Example of Suggestive: “Do you feel the pain in your left arm when you get it in your chest?”
  • Better Alternative: “When you get the pain in your chest, do you notice it anywhere else?”
  • Leading Questions: Imply the answer the interviewer is seeking.
  • Example of Leading: “You haven’t used any recreational drugs, have you?”
  • Better Alternative: “Do you use recreational drugs?”

Medical History Sections

  • Source and Reliability: Includes identifying information (age, gender) and reliability assessment of the source.
  • Biographic Information: Captures date/place of birth, sex, race, ethnic background, and gender identity.
  • Chief Complaint: Patient's own words summarizing the reason for seeking care.
  • History of Present Illness: Details recent health changes relating to the chief complaint (what, when, how, etc.).
  • Pain Assessment: Evaluates pain condition, including location, intensity, duration, and aggravating/alleviating factors.
  • General State of Health: Patient’s perception of health and recent physical exams.
  • Past Medical History: Summary of childhood/adult illnesses, significant conditions, and treatments.
  • Current Medications: List of medications currently being taken by the patient.
  • Allergies: Documented patient allergies.
  • Psychosocial History: Patient's social history impacting health.
  • Health Maintenance: Records preventive care received.
  • Occupational and Environmental History: Job history and relevant exposures.
  • Diet, Sleep Patterns, and Family History: Assessment of dietary habits, sleep quality, and medical history of relatives.

INR and Coagulation Tests

  • INR (International Normalized Ratio): Measures blood clotting speed; ranges indicate slow (high INR) or fast (low INR) clotting.
  • PT (Prothrombin Time): Commonly used to gauge the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin.
  • CoaguChek Device: Allows patients to self-monitor INR with minimal blood sample, providing quick results.
  • Prosthetic Patients: AB prophylaxis not routinely needed for patients with certain medical devices like cardiac pacemakers.

Antibiotic Prophylaxis Considerations

  • No Evidence of Benefit: AB prophylaxis is not recommended for most dental procedures in patients with specific cardiac devices.
  • Dentists and Prophylaxis Requests: Can decline unnecessary requests for AB if no medical rationale exists.

Hemophilia Management

  • rFVIIa (NovoSeven RT): Used primarily for patients with inhibitors; recommended dosage is 70-90 mcg/kg.
  • Desmopressin (DDAVP): Stimulates release of F-VIII, useful for mild Hemophilia A; available in IV and nasal spray form.
  • EACA/Tranexamic Acid: Can be used alongside DDAVP for stabilizing clots in mild Hemophilia A patients.
  • Management for Severe Deficiency: Requires F-VIII replacement or rFVIIa administration prior to dental procedures.

Bleeding Risk Assessment

  • NSAIDs and Dental Procedures: Generally safe for invasive work; dual antiplatelet therapy may increase bleeding risk.
  • Vorapaxar and Other Antiplatelet Drugs: Important considerations when assessing cardiovascular health.

Dental Treatment Guidelines

  • Hypertension: Understanding ASA classification is crucial for managing treatment risks relative to blood pressure.

Thromboembolic Event Risks

  • High-risk Factors: Identify recent DVT/PE, mechanical heart valves, high CHA₂DS₂VASc scores, and other specific conditions.

Cerebral Vascular Aneurysms

  • Clinical Presentation: Often asymptomatic; rupture leads to severe headache, neck stiffness, and altered consciousness.
  • Management Approaches: Surgical intervention or endovascular coiling for ruptured cases; medical management for unruptured cases aims to reduce rupture risk.
  • Dental Considerations: Evaluate bleeding risk in patients on anticoagulants and avoid excessive strain during treatment.

Stroke and TIA Management

  • Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): Symptoms resolve within 24 hours; present with visual disturbances and motor/sensory dysfunction.
  • First-line Pharmacologic Treatment: Aspirin or clopidogrel for secondary prevention.
  • Surgical Intervention: Consideration for patients with carotid artery-related TIA.

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