Avionics Systems Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Which exterior lights automatically extinguish when the gear is retracted?

Nose and Land (correct)

Nose and RWY Turn Off

Logo and Land

RWY Turn Off and Wing

Which color coding is correct for the pushbutton switches?

Red - Immediate action; 2 Dots - 'Not used' part of switch (correct)

Green - Temporary operation; White - Abnormal position

White - Temporary operation; Green - Normal operation

Amber - Immediate action; Blue - Temporary operation

What occurs if there is a failure of a cabin pressure controller?

Transfer is through manual control

An emergency descent must be initiated

The pilots must manually select landing elevation

An automatic transfer occurs to the other controller (correct)

Which statement about the Avionics Ventilation system is true?

The Inlet and Extract Valves may be open in flight Signup and view all the answers

Complete the statement: 'With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be...'

...HI due to air conditioning temperature demands Signup and view all the answers

Complete the statement: 'The pressurisation system includes...'

...2 Cabin Pressure Controllers; 1 Outflow Valve with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor Signup and view all the answers

Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which statement is true?

ATHR in blue indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) Signup and view all the answers

What are the maximum acceleration limits for a clean configuration?

-1g to +2.5g Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum speed for the use of full reverse thrust?

70 kt Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3 configuration?

177 kts Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?

Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.0 psi Signup and view all the answers

What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve?

Aircraft speed at or below 300 kt Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum continuous load per generator?

85% Signup and view all the answers

In the MEL 'Remarks or Exceptions' column, what does the sign (0) signify?

Dispatch is not allowed Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum tailwind allowed for takeoff?

15 or 20 kt Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?

10,000 ft Signup and view all the answers

How many start cycles are allowed before a cooling period of 15 minutes is required?

3 consecutive cycles Signup and view all the answers

What is the required clearance above the surface at the end of the takeoff distance if the runway is dry?

35 ft Signup and view all the answers

What is the regulations for Reduced thrust (FLEX) take-off?

Not allowed on contaminated runways Signup and view all the answers

What is the increment in percentage for Engine Out fuel consumption?

32% Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum thrust reduction in percent from Full thrust?

25% Signup and view all the answers

When does SRS (FMA) change to CLB after takeoff?

Upon reaching acceleration altitude. Signup and view all the answers

What happens when the initial inner tank level reaches 750 kg?

Transfer valves on the associated wing will open. Signup and view all the answers

Which hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves and why?

Green and Yellow; operated by the engine fire switches to isolate fluid from a fire. Signup and view all the answers

What condition defines icing conditions in flight?

TAT 10°C down to SAT minus 30°C. Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the autobrake system after landing?

Weight on wheels. Signup and view all the answers

What is the default situation if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost?

Both OFF. Signup and view all the answers

When the MODE selector is in AUTO with all tanks full, which statement is correct?

The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended. Signup and view all the answers

Which action needs to be taken if the W.A.I. switch is left ON after a ground test?

It is necessary to select the Anti-Ice Switch OFF then ON again. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the gear lever while the aircraft is on the ground?

It can be selected up, but retraction is inhibited by shock absorber compression. Signup and view all the answers

What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel?

Associated gear leg is not locked in the selected position. Signup and view all the answers

Following an overheat and shut down of a hydraulic pump, how long will the FAULT light remain illuminated?

It will remain illuminated until maintenance action has been taken. Signup and view all the answers

Which radio equipment can RMP No. 1 tune?

Associated radio navigation equipment and dedicated radio communication equipment. Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario will the centre tank pumps stop when the MODE SELECT switch is in REFUEL position?

When re-fueling completes and no fuel is being transferred. Signup and view all the answers

What does rotating an IR Mode rotary selector to ATT provide?

Attitude indications only. Signup and view all the answers

What will not be detected in the event of BMC 1 failure?

Left WING BLEED LEAK. Signup and view all the answers

Which correctly describes the operation of the cross-bleed valve in auto mode?

It opens to equalise the duct pressures if necessary. Signup and view all the answers

What condition powers the FADEC system?

It self-powers above 5% N1. Signup and view all the answers

What automatically activates the igniters for take-off?

Weight off wheels. Signup and view all the answers

When is the ATHR condition armed?

When TOGA power is selected. Signup and view all the answers

What does a lit FAULT light on the Engine Panel indicate?

Engine fire detection system has a fault. Signup and view all the answers

When is the FUEL USED indication reset to zero?

When the associated MASTER SW is turned OFF. Signup and view all the answers

Under what conditions does the autopilot disconnect?

Bank angle exceeds 45° and speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1°. Signup and view all the answers

What signifies the end of the start sequence in an Auto Start?

N2 grey background disappears. Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?

55 knots (gusting 60 knots). Signup and view all the answers

What does the illuminated FIRE light indicate?

Indicates a fire in the engine. Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum permissible EGT during engine start?

750ºC. Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum tyre speed?

200 knots. Signup and view all the answers

What condition will cause the APU to remain running even after being switched off?

Both A and C are possible conditions. Signup and view all the answers

What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON?

The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully opened. Signup and view all the answers

When should the AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?

When the Captain's Audio Control Panel (ACP) has failed. Signup and view all the answers

What does pushing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch cause?

Three HI/LO chimes and red lights at the cabin area call panels. Signup and view all the answers

In the event of an AC BUS 1 fault, how can the AC ESS bus be powered?

It can also be powered from AC BUS 2. Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of selecting the GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF?

GEN 1 line contactor opens. Signup and view all the answers

Which condition will trigger the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate?

Above 11,000 feet cabin altitude with the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch at ARM. Signup and view all the answers

What condition indicates a fire warning in the aircraft?

Failure of both loops A and B within a short timeframe. Signup and view all the answers

What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law Configuration 0?

Pitch + 25°, - 15°, Roll: 67°. Signup and view all the answers

In ALTERNATE LAW, how do the indications change at the bottom of the speed scale?

Alpha protection becomes a stall warning. Signup and view all the answers

What occurs in the event of SFCC 1 total failure?

SLATS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake. Signup and view all the answers

If asymmetric flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight, what will be the result?

Flaps and slats lock until maintenance is done. Signup and view all the answers

What is the true statement about the aircraft's behavior at 100 feet during approach?

The aircraft will pitch down due to alpha floor being inhibited. Signup and view all the answers

What does the A-LOCK (alpha lock) condition indicate?

Slats are locked in Config. 1 due to high angle of attack. Signup and view all the answers

What does the ‘F’ speed on the IAS strip represent at take-off?

Minimum speed for current flap settings. Signup and view all the answers

What should be followed after receiving a 'WINDSHEAR' warning during flight?

TOGA PWR:follow FD pitch demand. Signup and view all the answers

How can any System Display/Status be displayed if the ECAM Upper DU fails?

On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated ECAM Control Panel switch. Signup and view all the answers

When does the LDG INHIBIT message appear on the ECAM E/WD in magenta?

With selection of FLAP 2 on the approach. Signup and view all the answers

What happens on the SYSTEM DISPLAY when the ELECTRICS page appears automatically?

An INDEPENDENT failure has occurred. Signup and view all the answers

Which data is always displayed on the status page?

TAT (Total Air Temperature). Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Independent and Primary failures is accurate?

Independent failures are marked with a star. Signup and view all the answers

What occurs when the gear is selected down on approach?

The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates. Signup and view all the answers

When is Mach No. displayed on the PFD?

It is not displayed below 0.6 Mach. Signup and view all the answers

What contributes to the speed bug automatically increasing higher than VAPP on approach?

Flaps are not in the specified configuration. Signup and view all the answers

What FMA (lateral) indication is shown immediately during a Go-Around?

G/A TRK representing the track before TOGA selection. Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding ALPHA FLOOR is true?

It's available at all times in flight. Signup and view all the answers

How should a requested increase to your rate of descent be responded to during a managed descent?

Extend speed brakes to full. Signup and view all the answers

When does the LAND FMA engage during the approach?

It activates at 400 feet RA but requires TOGA thrust to exit before flare. Signup and view all the answers

What color change occurs when digital altitude diverges from FCU altitude?

Goes amber when exceeding 250 feet divergence. Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of ‘FINAL RESERVE FUEL’?

The fuel required for 30mins holding at 1500ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate. Signup and view all the answers

What is the allowable runway length for landing during an abnormal landing scenario?

Max 60% of available runway. Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between VS1G and V2?

1.3 Signup and view all the answers

Which factor determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)?

Lowest of certified limit takeoff weight and performance limit takeoff weight. Signup and view all the answers

What is the allowed traffic load based on the provided loadsheet?

19000 kg Signup and view all the answers

What is the index correction for 15 passengers in cabin section C?

-1 Signup and view all the answers

What is the index effect of 3000kg in compartment 4?

+5 Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum refuelling pressure allowed?

50 psi Signup and view all the answers

What are the actions if a loss of braking occurs when autobrake is not selected?

Reverse MAX: Brake pedals RELEASE: A/SKID & N/W STRG OFF: BRAKE PEDALS - use with care (Max 1000 psi). Signup and view all the answers

What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent?

Crew oxygen masks on -> Disconnect autopilot -> Close thrust levers to idle -> Descend at VMO. Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a GPWS alert including “PULL UP”, what are the initial actions?

AP OFF: TOGA power: follow pitch demands on FD. Signup and view all the answers

What should be done if the IAS becomes unreliable after take-off and before SLATS are retracted?

AP/FD OFF: FLAPS - do not move. Signup and view all the answers

Which option correctly completes the statement about exiting the cockpit in an emergency?

...leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door (in either direction). Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Aeroplane Systems (CFM)

Gear Retraction and Exterior Lights: When landing gear retracts, the NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights automatically extinguish.
Pushbutton Switch Color Coding: RED indicates immediate action, while AMBER indicates immediate action.
Cabin Pressure Controller Failure: In the event of a cabin pressure controller failure, a manual transfer to the other controller occurs.
Avionics Ventilation System: The Inlet and Extract Valves may be open in flight. The Extract Valve may be partially open when taxying.
FLO Controller (LO): With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be NORM or HI due to single pack operation.
Pressurization System Components: The pressurization system includes 3 Cabin Pressure Controllers and 2 Outflow Valves with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor.
A/THR Indications (FMA 5th column): ATHR in blue indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA), while ATHR in white indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA).
APU Shutdown with Unintended Operation: If the APU hasn't stopped after being switched off, it's likely due to the air intake flap failing to close.
APU MASTER Switch ON: Selecting the APU MASTER switch to ON opens the APU Intake Flap and engages the starter motor immediately.
AUDIO SWITCHING to CAPT 3: Select CAPT 3 on the overhead panel when the captain's loudspeaker has failed, or when using RMP tuning of NAVAIDS.
CABIN CALLS EMER Pushbutton: Pressing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton results in three HI/LO chimes, red lights, and a PA announcement.
AC BUS 1 Fault and AC ESS Bus Power: If AC BUS 1 fails, AC ESS bus can be powered by AC BUS 2.
GEN 1 LINE switch OFF (EMER ELECT PWR panel): Selecting GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF de-energizes GEN 1 and its line contactor opens, and transfers fuel pump operation to the AC ESS BUS .
Cabin Signs and Lighting Activation: The cabin signs and lights illuminate above 11,000 feet cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.
Fire Warning Trigger: A fire warning triggers when Loops A and B (engine) fail within 7 seconds of each other).
Normal Law Configuration 0 Pitch/Roll Limits: Normal Law Configuration 0 pitch limits are +30° (+25° at low speed) and -15°, while roll is 67°.
Alpha Protection Sidestick Movement: Moving the sidestick between neutral and fully aft commands alpha.
ALTERNATE LAW Speed Scale Indications: In alternate law, the VLS (Vertical Speed) is replaced by VSTALL WARNING (Vertical Speed Stall Warning).
SFCC 1 Total Failure: If SFCC 1 (Spoiler Function Control Computer) fails, slats and flaps operate at half speed.
Asymmetric Flap Travel: Asymmetric flap travel after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight results in flaps being locked in position by the wing tip brake until maintenance is done.
Spoiler Failure Yaw Compensation: A spoiler failure results in the inhibiton of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing to help recover from yaw.
Approach Landing: At 100 feet, alpha floor is inhibited; at 50 feet, the Flare Mode commences.
A-LOCK (Alpha Lock) Indication: A red UNLK light on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel indicates the associated gear leg is not locked in its selected position*.
RMP Tuning: RMP No.1 can tune any radio communication equipment and onside radio navigation receivers.
ROSE ILS on Left ND: The captain's left ND displays ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected.
RMP Tuning and NAVAIDS: When RMP tuning of NAVAIDS is in operation, the ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMPs and ILS DME is not available.
ADIRS Panel: The IR Mode rotary selectors and the ADR selectors are fully independent.
BMC 1 Failure: If BMC 1 (Brake Monitor Control) fails, ENG 2 BLEED LEAK may not be detected.
Cross-Bleed Valve Operation: In auto mode, the cross-bleed valve automatically opens if necessary to equalize duct pressures.
FADEC System: FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.
Igniters Activation for Take-Off: Weight off wheels automatically activates the igniters for takeoff.
ATHR Condition at Flight Start: ATHR is ARMED upon selection of TOGA or FLX (Flex) power.
MANUAL START Engine Master Switch ON: The engine master switch should be selected ON when IGN A+B appears on the engine System Display.
Engine Panel FAULT Light: An illuminated FAULT light on the Engine Panel indicates a failure in the engine fire detection system.
FUEL USED Reset: The FUEL USED indication on the system display resets to zero during the associated engine start on the ground.
Engine Limitations and EGT: If the EGT rises above 950°C, the EGT will pulse red. The maximum permissible EGT is 1000ºC.
Auto Start Sequence: Loss of the N2 grey (highlight) background signifies the end of the start sequence of an automatic engine start.
Passenger Oxygen Supply Duration: The passenger oxygen supply lasts for between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.
Autopilot Disconnect: The autopilot disconnects when bank angle exceeds 45° and the speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1°.*
ILS APPR on ND: "ILS APPR" at the center of the ND signifies an ILS approach has been entered in the MCDU flight plan.
FIRE Light Illumination: An illuminated FIRE light indicates a faulty fire detection loop and requires maintenance.

Limitations

Maximum Tyre Speed: 205 knots.
Maximum Wind Speed for Passenger Door Operation: 55 knots (gusting 60 knots).
Gear Down Limiting Speed: 250 knots.
Maximum Runway Slope: +1%/-2%.
Maximum Acceleration G-Limits: Clean configuration -1g to +2.5g, Flaps extended -1g to +2g.
Power Plant Starter Limitations: After 4 failed start attempts, allow 15 minutes cooling.
Minimum Speed for Full Reverse Thrust: 70 knots.
Maximum Speed for Flap 3: 200 knots.
Maximum Cabin Pressure Differentials: Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.2 psi.
Ram Air Valve Limiting Factor: Aircraft speed at or below 300 kt.
Maximum Continuous Load per Generator: 75%.
MEL "Remarks or Exceptions" (0) Significance: Dispatch is not allowed with this code in the MEL.
Maximum Tailwind for Takeoff: 15 or 20 knots (see FCOM).
Maximum Altitude for Gear Extension: 25,000 feet.
Maximum Time Limit for Takeoff and Go-Around (One Engine Inoperative): 10 minutes.
Starter Cycle Limits: 4 consecutive cycles, each max 2 minutes with 20 s pause between each attempt

Performance/Flight Planning

Runway Limitation Determinant: ASD, TOD, TOR
Runway Clearance End of Takeoff Distance (Dry): 50 ft.
Landing Distance Runway Margin: 60% of required runway.
LRC Ceiling "One Engine Out" (58t, ISA Temp): FL230.
Standard Descent Time, Distance, and Fuel (50t, FL250): Time: 28.9; Fuel: 1079kg; Distance: 185NM.
Trip Fuel and Flight Time (M.78, FL370, ISA, 2000 NM): Fuel: 12118kg; Time: 4.40 hours.
Holding Fuel per Engine and N1 at 1500ft (58t, ISA Temp): Fuel: 2032 kg ; N1: 71.4%.
Required Gross Climb Gradient (One Engine Inoperative in Takeoff-second segment): 1.7%.
Reduced Thrust (FLEX) Takeoff Regulations: FLEX take off is not allowed on contaminated runways.
Maximum Thrust Reduction in Percent from Full Thrust: 25%.
Engine Out Fuel Consumption Increase: 31%.
Cruise Engine Failure Initial Drift-Down Speed (Obstacle Strategy): Green dot speed.
Final Reserve Fuel Definition: 30 minutes holding at 1500ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate.
Abnormal Landing Runway Length: Max 60% of available runway.
VS1G and V2 Relation: 1.13
Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) Determinant: The lowest of both the certified limit and performance-limited takeoff weights.

Mass & Balance/Servicing

Allowed Traffic Load (Loadsheet): 19185 kg.
Index Correction for 15 pax in Cabin Section C (Loadsheet): +4.
Index Effect of 3000kg in CPT 4 (Loadsheet): +5.
Correction for Pax in CO (Loadsheet): -1.
Ground Electrical Power Receptacle Location: Nose section forward of nose gear bay.
Maximum Re-fuelling Pressure: 55 psi.
APU Oil Filling Point: By the rear right door.
Refuelling/Defueling Panel Location: On the centre fuselage, inboard of the number 2 engine.

Emergency Procedures

Loss of Braking (Autobrake not selected): Maintain brake pressure, disable anti-skid and nosewheel steering; use brakes normally, maintaining a minimum of 1000psi.
Emergency Descent Immediate Actions: Put on crew oxygen masks; disconnect autopilot; trim throttles to idle; descend at VMO (maximum operating speed).
TCAS "Climb" Message Initial Actions: Turn off autopilot; set to TOGA power; set vertical speed to the green band.
IAS Unreliable After Takeoff (Before Slat Retraction): Turn off autopilot; do not move flaps.
GPWS “Pull Up” Alert Initial Actions: Turn off autopilot; set to TOGA power; follow pitch demands on Flight Director.
Emergency Cockpit Exit Procedure: Leave via a sliding window using its associated escape rope, or force the cockpit door in either direction.
Rejected Take-off Procedure: Monitor brake response, assume manual control if necessary.
Windshear Warning Airborne Actions: Set to TOGA power; follow Flight Director pitch demands; maintain gear/flap configuration.

Special Requirements "EFIS"

ECAM Upper DU Failure System Display/Status: Use the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM control panel.
LDG INHIBIT on ECAM E/WD: Appears automatically below 800 ft radio altitude.
ECAM Control Panel RCL Push-button Function: Pressing the ECAM Control Panel RCL button for more than 3 seconds recalls any messages in CANCELLED CAUTIONS.
SYSTEM DISPLAY ELECTRICS Page Appearance: An ELECTRICS page on the system display, with no other cautions or warnings, indicates a primary failure.
Permanent Status Page Information: Gross Weight.
ECAM Failure Identification: Independent failures are identified by a star (*).
Gear Down Approach Action: The STS page appears on the lower ECAM display.
PFD Speed Symbol: Selected speed is represented by a magenta speed bug.

FMS

Managed Speed Increase on Approach (Speed Bug): The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the PERF page.
FMA (Lateral) Indication for Go-Around: The initial track of the go-around procedure.
Alpha Floor Activation: Available at all times in flight (not engaged if ATHR is turned off).
ATC Descent Rate Increase During Managed Descent: Push the altitude knob on the FCU.
"LAND" FMA Activation: Engages at 400 ft radio altitude and to leave this mode before FLARE is annunciated, select a HDG or V/S on the FCU.
Selected 100 kts Speed with Flaps/Slats Retracted and ATHR ON: The aircraft will fly at the VLS.
PFD Digital Altitude Color Change: Diverging >250’ from FCU altitude will cause the altitude to turn amber in color.
Climb Altitude Constraint Indication: A magenta star on the MCDU PERF CLIMB page.

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Description

Test your knowledge on various avionics systems and controls. This quiz covers topics such as exterior light operation, cabin pressure controller failures, and avionics ventilation. Get ready to challenge your understanding of aircraft avionics!