Avionics Systems Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Which exterior lights automatically extinguish when the gear is retracted?

  • Nose and Land (correct)
  • Nose and RWY Turn Off
  • Logo and Land
  • RWY Turn Off and Wing

Which color coding is correct for the pushbutton switches?

  • Red - Immediate action; 2 Dots - 'Not used' part of switch (correct)
  • Green - Temporary operation; White - Abnormal position
  • White - Temporary operation; Green - Normal operation
  • Amber - Immediate action; Blue - Temporary operation

What occurs if there is a failure of a cabin pressure controller?

  • Transfer is through manual control
  • An emergency descent must be initiated
  • The pilots must manually select landing elevation
  • An automatic transfer occurs to the other controller (correct)

Which statement about the Avionics Ventilation system is true?

<p>The Inlet and Extract Valves may be open in flight (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Complete the statement: 'With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be...'

<p>...HI due to air conditioning temperature demands (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Complete the statement: 'The pressurisation system includes...'

<p>...2 Cabin Pressure Controllers; 1 Outflow Valve with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which statement is true?

<p>ATHR in blue indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the maximum acceleration limits for a clean configuration?

<p>-1g to +2.5g (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum speed for the use of full reverse thrust?

<p>70 kt (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3 configuration?

<p>177 kts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?

<p>Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.0 psi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve?

<p>Aircraft speed at or below 300 kt (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum continuous load per generator?

<p>85% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the MEL 'Remarks or Exceptions' column, what does the sign (0) signify?

<p>Dispatch is not allowed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum tailwind allowed for takeoff?

<p>15 or 20 kt (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?

<p>10,000 ft (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many start cycles are allowed before a cooling period of 15 minutes is required?

<p>3 consecutive cycles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the required clearance above the surface at the end of the takeoff distance if the runway is dry?

<p>35 ft (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the regulations for Reduced thrust (FLEX) take-off?

<p>Not allowed on contaminated runways (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the increment in percentage for Engine Out fuel consumption?

<p>32% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum thrust reduction in percent from Full thrust?

<p>25% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does SRS (FMA) change to CLB after takeoff?

<p>Upon reaching acceleration altitude. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when the initial inner tank level reaches 750 kg?

<p>Transfer valves on the associated wing will open. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves and why?

<p>Green and Yellow; operated by the engine fire switches to isolate fluid from a fire. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition defines icing conditions in flight?

<p>TAT 10°C down to SAT minus 30°C. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the autobrake system after landing?

<p>Weight on wheels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the default situation if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost?

<p>Both OFF. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the MODE selector is in AUTO with all tanks full, which statement is correct?

<p>The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action needs to be taken if the W.A.I. switch is left ON after a ground test?

<p>It is necessary to select the Anti-Ice Switch OFF then ON again. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the gear lever while the aircraft is on the ground?

<p>It can be selected up, but retraction is inhibited by shock absorber compression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel?

<p>Associated gear leg is not locked in the selected position. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an overheat and shut down of a hydraulic pump, how long will the FAULT light remain illuminated?

<p>It will remain illuminated until maintenance action has been taken. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which radio equipment can RMP No. 1 tune?

<p>Associated radio navigation equipment and dedicated radio communication equipment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario will the centre tank pumps stop when the MODE SELECT switch is in REFUEL position?

<p>When re-fueling completes and no fuel is being transferred. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does rotating an IR Mode rotary selector to ATT provide?

<p>Attitude indications only. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What will not be detected in the event of BMC 1 failure?

<p>Left WING BLEED LEAK. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which correctly describes the operation of the cross-bleed valve in auto mode?

<p>It opens to equalise the duct pressures if necessary. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition powers the FADEC system?

<p>It self-powers above 5% N1. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What automatically activates the igniters for take-off?

<p>Weight off wheels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the ATHR condition armed?

<p>When TOGA power is selected. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a lit FAULT light on the Engine Panel indicate?

<p>Engine fire detection system has a fault. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the FUEL USED indication reset to zero?

<p>When the associated MASTER SW is turned OFF. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what conditions does the autopilot disconnect?

<p>Bank angle exceeds 45° and speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1°. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What signifies the end of the start sequence in an Auto Start?

<p>N2 grey background disappears. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?

<p>55 knots (gusting 60 knots). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the illuminated FIRE light indicate?

<p>Indicates a fire in the engine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum permissible EGT during engine start?

<p>750ºC. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum tyre speed?

<p>200 knots. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition will cause the APU to remain running even after being switched off?

<p>Both A and C are possible conditions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON?

<p>The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully opened. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should the AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?

<p>When the Captain's Audio Control Panel (ACP) has failed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does pushing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch cause?

<p>Three HI/LO chimes and red lights at the cabin area call panels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of an AC BUS 1 fault, how can the AC ESS bus be powered?

<p>It can also be powered from AC BUS 2. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of selecting the GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF?

<p>GEN 1 line contactor opens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition will trigger the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate?

<p>Above 11,000 feet cabin altitude with the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch at ARM. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition indicates a fire warning in the aircraft?

<p>Failure of both loops A and B within a short timeframe. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law Configuration 0?

<p>Pitch + 25°, - 15°, Roll: 67°. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In ALTERNATE LAW, how do the indications change at the bottom of the speed scale?

<p>Alpha protection becomes a stall warning. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs in the event of SFCC 1 total failure?

<p>SLATS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If asymmetric flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight, what will be the result?

<p>Flaps and slats lock until maintenance is done. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the true statement about the aircraft's behavior at 100 feet during approach?

<p>The aircraft will pitch down due to alpha floor being inhibited. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the A-LOCK (alpha lock) condition indicate?

<p>Slats are locked in Config. 1 due to high angle of attack. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the ‘F’ speed on the IAS strip represent at take-off?

<p>Minimum speed for current flap settings. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be followed after receiving a 'WINDSHEAR' warning during flight?

<p>TOGA PWR:follow FD pitch demand. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can any System Display/Status be displayed if the ECAM Upper DU fails?

<p>On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated ECAM Control Panel switch. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does the LDG INHIBIT message appear on the ECAM E/WD in magenta?

<p>With selection of FLAP 2 on the approach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens on the SYSTEM DISPLAY when the ELECTRICS page appears automatically?

<p>An INDEPENDENT failure has occurred. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which data is always displayed on the status page?

<p>TAT (Total Air Temperature). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Independent and Primary failures is accurate?

<p>Independent failures are marked with a star. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs when the gear is selected down on approach?

<p>The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is Mach No. displayed on the PFD?

<p>It is not displayed below 0.6 Mach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What contributes to the speed bug automatically increasing higher than VAPP on approach?

<p>Flaps are not in the specified configuration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What FMA (lateral) indication is shown immediately during a Go-Around?

<p>G/A TRK representing the track before TOGA selection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding ALPHA FLOOR is true?

<p>It's available at all times in flight. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a requested increase to your rate of descent be responded to during a managed descent?

<p>Extend speed brakes to full. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does the LAND FMA engage during the approach?

<p>It activates at 400 feet RA but requires TOGA thrust to exit before flare. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What color change occurs when digital altitude diverges from FCU altitude?

<p>Goes amber when exceeding 250 feet divergence. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of ‘FINAL RESERVE FUEL’?

<p>The fuel required for 30mins holding at 1500ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the allowable runway length for landing during an abnormal landing scenario?

<p>Max 60% of available runway. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between VS1G and V2?

<p>1.3 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)?

<p>Lowest of certified limit takeoff weight and performance limit takeoff weight. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the allowed traffic load based on the provided loadsheet?

<p>19000 kg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the index correction for 15 passengers in cabin section C?

<p>-1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the index effect of 3000kg in compartment 4?

<p>+5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum refuelling pressure allowed?

<p>50 psi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the actions if a loss of braking occurs when autobrake is not selected?

<p>Reverse MAX: Brake pedals RELEASE: A/SKID &amp; N/W STRG OFF: BRAKE PEDALS - use with care (Max 1000 psi). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent?

<p>Crew oxygen masks on -&gt; Disconnect autopilot -&gt; Close thrust levers to idle -&gt; Descend at VMO. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a GPWS alert including “PULL UP”, what are the initial actions?

<p>AP OFF: TOGA power: follow pitch demands on FD. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done if the IAS becomes unreliable after take-off and before SLATS are retracted?

<p>AP/FD OFF: FLAPS - do not move. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option correctly completes the statement about exiting the cockpit in an emergency?

<p>...leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door (in either direction). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Which lights switch off when the gear is retracted?

When the landing gear is retracted, the NOSE and LANDING lights automatically switch off.

What do the colors on pushbutton switches mean?

Pushbutton switches are color-coded to indicate their function. RED indicates immediate action, WHITE indicates temporary operation, GREEN indicates normal operation, and 2 Dots mean the part of the switch is 'not used'.

What happens if a cabin pressure controller fails?

In case of a cabin pressure controller failure, an automatic transfer to the other controller occurs.

Can the Inlet and Extract Valves be open during flight?

The Inlet and Extract Valves can be open during flight to regulate the flow of air in the avionics system.

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What is the possible pack flow when the FLO controller is set to LO?

When the FLO controller is switched to LO, the actual pack flow can be NORM or HI, depending on whether a single pack is operating.

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What is the configuration of the pressurization system?

The pressurization system has 2 Cabin Pressure Controllers, 1 Outflow Valve with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor.

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What do the colors of A/THR on the FMA mean?

When the A/THR is displayed in blue on the FMA, it indicates that the A/THR is active and the actual thrust is limited by the TLA, while white indicates the A/THR is active but the actual thrust is always less than the TLA.

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What is the APU?

The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) is a small jet engine that provides power to the aircraft on the ground and in some cases, during flight. It also provides bleed air for various systems like cabin pressurization and anti-icing.

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What is the APU Intake Flap?

The APU Intake Flap controls the flow of air into the APU by opening and closing. It opens to allow air to enter the APU and closes to shut off the air supply.

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What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON?

Selecting the 'ON' position on the APU MASTER switch initiates the APU start sequence. The APU Fuel Pump and the APU Intake Flap open to begin the start process.

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Describe the APU start sequence when the MASTER switch is selected ON.

When the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON, the APU Intake Flap opens first. Once the flap is fully open, the starter motor engages and attempts to start the APU. The starter motor engages immediately after the flap is fully open, not as soon as the switch is turned ON.

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What is the function of the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch?

The CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch is used to trigger an emergency call for assistance in the cabin. It activates a series of three HI/LO chimes and illuminates pink lights at the cabin area call panels to alert the crew.

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How can the AC ESS bus be powered if AC BUS 1 fails?

If AC BUS 1 fails, the AC ESS (Essential) bus can be powered from AC BUS 2. It can't be powered by the APU or the emergency generator in this scenario.

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What happens when the GEN 1 LINE switch is selected to OFF?

Selecting the GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF on the EMER ELECT PWR panel de-energizes GEN 1 by opening the GEN 1 line contactor. It does not directly power the fuel pump or transfer its operation to the AC ESS bus.

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What conditions will cause the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate?

Cabin signs and lighting illuminate when the cabin altitude exceeds approximately 11,000 feet. This occurs regardless of the position of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switches.

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What conditions trigger a fire warning?

A fire warning is triggered when Loops A and B fail within 7 seconds of each other, regardless of whether it's an engine or the APU. The failure of a single loop does not trigger an alarm.

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What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law Configuration 0?

In Normal Law Configuration 0, the pitch limits are +30° (+25° at low speeds) and -15°. The roll limit is 67°.

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In alpha protection, what does the sidestick movement control?

During alpha protection, the sidestick movement between neutral and fully aft controls the angle of attack (alpha).

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What changes occur in ALTERNATE LAW?

In ALTERNATE LAW, the indications on the speed scale change; the VLS (Visual Landing Speed) is replaced by a VSTALL WARNING. This change indicates that the aircraft is no longer protected from stalling. Alpha protection is also replaced by the VSTALL WARNING. It's important to remember that stalling is possible in ALTERNATE LAW.

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What happens if SFCC 1 fails completely?

If SFCC 1 (Slats and Flaps Control Computer) fails completely, the slats will be inoperative. The flaps will continue to operate at half speed and will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake until maintenance action is taken.

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What happens if asymmetric flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2?

If asymmetrical flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2 during flight, the Pressure Off Brakes will be applied to prevent further flap movement. The flaps will be locked in position by the Wing Tip Brake until maintenance action.

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How does the system compensate for a spoiler failure?

If a spoiler fails, the system compensates by inhibiting the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing. ELAC (Electronic Lateral Acceleration Control) turn co-ordination commands, F.A.C. commands, and automatic rudder trim are not used to compensate for the failure.

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What happens on an approach to land regarding alpha protection and pitch trim?

On an approach to land, at 100 feet, alpha floor is inhibited and the pitch trim is frozen. This causes the aircraft to pitch down. At 50 feet, the Flare Mode commences.

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What is the definition of 'FINAL RESERVE FUEL'?

The minimum amount of fuel required to reach the destination alternate airport after a 30-minute holding pattern at 1500 feet above ground level (AGL) in clean configuration.

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What is the maximum runway length usable for landing with an abnormal landing?

The maximum runway length usable for landing with an abnormal landing is 80% of the available runway length.

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What is the ratio between VS1G and V2?

The ratio between VS1G and V2 is approximately 1.13.

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What determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)?

The Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW) is determined by the lower value between the certified limit takeoff weight and the performance limited takeoff weight.

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What is the allowed traffic load, with given information?

The allowed traffic load with the given information in the loadsheet is 19000 kg.

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What is the index correction for 15pax in cabin section C?

The index correction for 15 passengers in cabin section C is -10.

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What is the index effect of 3000kg in CPT 4?

The index effect of 3000 kg in CPT 4 is +5.

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What is the correction for Pax in CO?

The correction for passengers in CO is NIL (no correction required).

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The ground electrical power receptacle is located?

The ground electrical power receptacle is located in the nose section, forward of the nose gear bay.

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What is the maximum re-fuelling pressure?

The maximum refueling pressure is 50 psi.

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The APU oil filling point is?

The APU oil filling point is located at the rear of the fuselage.

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The refuelling / defueling panel is located?

The refueling/defueling panel is located on the underside of the fuselage, forward of the nose gear.

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Maximum acceleration limits for clean configuration

The maximum allowable acceleration during flight, with the aircraft in a clean configuration, is -1g to +2.5g.

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Maximum acceleration limits for clean & slats extended

The maximum allowable acceleration during flight, with the aircraft in a clean configuration but with slats extended, is -1g to +2.5g.

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What are the actions if loss of braking occurs (if autobrake is not selected)?

In case of loss of braking, maintain brake pressure, ensure A/SKID and NWS steering are off, and use brakes with care, keeping the pressure below 1000 psi.

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What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent?

In an emergency descent, immediately put on crew oxygen masks, descend with autopilot engaged, select a lower altitude, adjust speed/Mach, and use speedbrakes.

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Maximum acceleration limits clean & flaps extended

The maximum allowable acceleration during flight, with the aircraft in a clean configuration, with flaps extended, is -1g to +2g.

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Following a TCAS “CLIMB” message, what are the initial actions?

Following a TCAS 'CLIMB' message, immediately turn off the autopilot and flight director (FDs), select vertical speed (V/S) to the green band, and engage TOGA power.

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Maximum Acceleration Limits with Slats & Flaps extended

The maximum allowable acceleration during flight, with the aircraft with both slats and flaps extended, is 0g to +2.5g.

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Starter Engagement speed

The maximum speed at which the starter can engage the engine is 20% N1.

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When does SRS change to CLB?

The SRS (Flight Management System) indication changes from "SRS" to "CLB" (Climb) when the aircraft reaches a certain altitude.

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Minimum speed for reverse thrust

The minimum speed required to use full reverse thrust is 60 knots.

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When does the ECAM E/WD memo REFUELG appear?

The ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor) will show the "REFUELG" message when the refuelling process is initiated and the re-fuelling control panel door is opened.

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Maximum speed for FLAP 3

The maximum speed for operating the aircraft with FLAP 3 is 185 knots.

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What happens when the inner tank level reaches 750kg?

When the first inner tank level reaches 750 kg, the transfer valve on the associated wing will open, allowing fuel to transfer from the inner tanks to the centre tank.

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Aircraft tanks full and MODE set to AUTO. What stops the centre tank pumps?

With all tanks full and the MODE selector set to AUTO, the centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended.

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Maximum cabin pressure differential

The maximum allowed cabin pressure differential is positive 8.6 psi and negative 1.2 psi.

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Condition for Ram Air Valve opening

The cabin differential pressure must be at or below 1 psi for the Ram Air Valve to open.

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When does the PTU activate?

The PTU (Power Transfer Unit) is used as a backup hydraulic system. It operates if the Green or Yellow hydraulic system pressure falls below 2600 PSI.

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Maximum continuous generator load

The maximum continuous load that each generator can handle is 75%.

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How long does the hydraulic pump FAULT light stay on?

After a hydraulic pump overheats and shuts down, the FAULT light on the overhead panel will remain illuminated until maintenance action is taken.

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Which systems have fluid shutoff valves, and why?

The Green and Yellow hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves operated by switches on the OHP (Overhead Panel). These valves allow isolation of the systems in case of a PTU failure.

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Meaning of (0) in the MEL

In the MEL, if the Remarks or Exceptions column has a (0), this means the aircraft may be flown back to base for rectification.

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What are Icing conditions?

"Icing conditions" are defined as: Before Takeoff: OAT (Outside Air Temperature) of 10°C or below, visible moisture, and visibility less than a mile. In Flight: TAT (Total Air Temperature) of 10°C down to SAT (Static Air Temperature) minus 30°C.

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Maximum tailwind for takeoff

The maximum allowable tailwind for takeoff is 15 or 20 knots, but always refer to the FCOM (Flight Crew Operating Manual).

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What happens if the WAI switch is left ON after a ground test?

If the W.A.I. (Wing Anti-Ice) switch is left ON after a ground test, the anti-ice valves will close automatically after a 30-second test cycle.

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Maximum altitude for landing gear extension

The landing gear can be extended at a maximum altitude of 2500 feet.

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Starter cycles and cooling

You can do 4 consecutive start cycles, with each cycle lasting a maximum of 2 minutes and a pause of 20 seconds between each attempt.

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What happens if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost?

If electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost, the default situation is both systems will be OFF.

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What triggers the autobrake system after landing?

The autobrake system is triggered by the weight of the aircraft on the wheels after landing.

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Following Gravity Extension, which statements are true?

Following a Gravity Extension of the landing gear on a fully serviceable aircraft, braking will remain normal, but nosewheel steering will be lost.

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What is true about the gear lever on the ground?

With the aircraft on the ground, the gear lever can be selected up, but retraction is inhibited by the shock absorber being compressed.

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What does a red UNLK light on the Landing Gear Panel mean?

A red UNLK light on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel indicates that the associated gear leg is not locked in the selected position.

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Which radio equipment can be tuned by RMP No. 1?

RMP No. 1 can tune any radio communication equipment and any on-side radio navigation receivers.

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ADIRS Attitude Mode

The ADIRS displays attitude information when the IR Mode rotary selector is set to ATT, providing independent attitude indications.

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FADEC Self-Powering

The FADEC system becomes self-powered when the engine N1 exceeds 5%, meaning it's active during engine operation.

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Takeoff Igniter Activation

Igniters are automatically activated for takeoff when the aircraft's weight leaves the wheels.

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ATHR Activation

The ATHR (Auto Throttle) system is armed on selection of TOGA or FLX power, ready to take over throttle control during takeoff.

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Manual Start Engine Master Switch

The engine master switch should be selected ON during a manual start when the IGN A & B lights appear on the engine display, indicating both igniters are ready.

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Engine FAULT Light

The illuminated FAULT light on the engine panel indicates a fault in the engine fire detection system, requiring immediate investigation.

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Fuel Used Reset

The FUEL USED indication on the SD is reset to zero when the associated engine master switch is selected OFF, regardless of whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air.

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EGT Limit

The maximum permissible EGT is 1000 degrees Celsius. If this limit is exceeded, a red mark will appear, requiring immediate action to avoid engine damage.

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Auto Start Completion

During an auto start, the loss of the N2 grey background signals the end of the start sequence, indicating the engine has reached a stable operating condition.

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Passenger Oxygen Duration

Passenger oxygen supply lasts for 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat, providing an adequate timeframe for descent and emergency procedures.

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Autopilot Disconnect

The Autopilot will disconnect if the bank angle exceeds 45 degrees or if the speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1 degree, ensuring safety during flight.

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ILS APPR Display

The “ILS APPR” display on the ND indicates that the aircraft has captured the ILS localizer and glide slope, signifying a successful ILS approach.

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FIRE Light Illumination

The illuminated FIRE light on the pedestal indicates a fault in the fire detection system, requiring immediate investigation and potential shutdown of the affected engine.

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Maximum Tyre Speed

The maximum tyre speed is 200 knots, exceeding this limit can lead to tyre failure.

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Passenger Door Wind Limit

The maximum wind speed for passenger door operation is 65 knots, exceeding this limit can compromise safety during door operation.

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What are the initial actions to take after a "WINDSHEAR" warning?

When a "WINDSHEAR" warning occurs, apply TOGA power and follow the Flight Director's pitch guidance. Maintain the aircraft's current gear and flap configuration.

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How can you display system information if the upper ECAM DU fails?

The lower ECAM Display Unit (DU) can display system information by pressing and holding the corresponding ECAM Control Panel push-button switch.

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When does the 'LDG INHIBIT' message appear on the E/WD memo?

The 'LDG INHIBIT' message appears in magenta on the E/WD memo when the landing gear is selected down.

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What does pressing the ECAM RCL button for more than 3 seconds do?

Pressing the ECAM control panel RCL push-button switch for more than 3 seconds will recall any message in CANCELLED CAUTIONS.

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What does an automatic ELECTRICS page on the ECAM system display indicate?

If the ELECTRICS page appears automatically with no other caution or warning, a PRIMARY failure has occurred.

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What permanent data does the STATUS page always display?

The STATUS page always displays permanent data, including the Gross Weight.

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How are PRIMARY failures identified on the ECAM?

Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them on the ECAM.

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What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?

When the gear is selected down on the approach, the STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display if there is a malfunction showing on the STS page.

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How is the selected speed represented on the PFD?

The Selected speed is represented by a Magenta speed bug on the PFD.

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Why might the speed bug go above VAPP during a managed descent?

During an approach, in managed speed, the speed bug may go higher than VAPP indicated on the MCDU PERF page due to a sudden tailwind component.

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What does the FMA (lateral) show immediately after a Go-Around?

The FMA (lateral) will immediately show G/A TRK (The actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power) in the event of a Go-Around.

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When is ALPHA FLOOR available?

ALPHA FLOOR is available at all times in flight, regardless of whether the ATHR is on or off.

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What do you do to increase rate of descent during a managed descent?

To increase your rate of descent during a managed descent, push the altitude knob on the FCU.

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When does the "LAND" FMA annunciate, and how can you leave this mode?

The "LAND" FMA engages at 400' RA, and to leave this mode before FLARE is annunciated, you must select a HDG or V/S on the FCU.

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What speed will the aircraft fly at with FLAPS and SLATS retracted, ATHR ON, and a speed of 100 kts selected?

With FLAPS and SLATS retracted and ATHR ON, selecting a speed of 100 kts will make the aircraft fly at the Alpha Prot speed.

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Study Notes

Aeroplane Systems (CFM)

  • Gear Retraction and Exterior Lights: When landing gear retracts, the NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights automatically extinguish.

  • Pushbutton Switch Color Coding: RED indicates immediate action, while AMBER indicates immediate action.

  • Cabin Pressure Controller Failure: In the event of a cabin pressure controller failure, a manual transfer to the other controller occurs.

  • Avionics Ventilation System: The Inlet and Extract Valves may be open in flight. The Extract Valve may be partially open when taxying.

  • FLO Controller (LO): With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be NORM or HI due to single pack operation.

  • Pressurization System Components: The pressurization system includes 3 Cabin Pressure Controllers and 2 Outflow Valves with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor.

  • A/THR Indications (FMA 5th column): ATHR in blue indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA), while ATHR in white indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA).

  • APU Shutdown with Unintended Operation: If the APU hasn't stopped after being switched off, it's likely due to the air intake flap failing to close.

  • APU MASTER Switch ON: Selecting the APU MASTER switch to ON opens the APU Intake Flap and engages the starter motor immediately.

  • AUDIO SWITCHING to CAPT 3: Select CAPT 3 on the overhead panel when the captain's loudspeaker has failed, or when using RMP tuning of NAVAIDS.

  • CABIN CALLS EMER Pushbutton: Pressing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton results in three HI/LO chimes, red lights, and a PA announcement.

  • AC BUS 1 Fault and AC ESS Bus Power: If AC BUS 1 fails, AC ESS bus can be powered by AC BUS 2.

  • GEN 1 LINE switch OFF (EMER ELECT PWR panel): Selecting GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF de-energizes GEN 1 and its line contactor opens, and transfers fuel pump operation to the AC ESS BUS .

  • Cabin Signs and Lighting Activation: The cabin signs and lights illuminate above 11,000 feet cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.

  • Fire Warning Trigger: A fire warning triggers when Loops A and B (engine) fail within 7 seconds of each other).

  • Normal Law Configuration 0 Pitch/Roll Limits: Normal Law Configuration 0 pitch limits are +30° (+25° at low speed) and -15°, while roll is 67°.

  • Alpha Protection Sidestick Movement: Moving the sidestick between neutral and fully aft commands alpha.

  • ALTERNATE LAW Speed Scale Indications: In alternate law, the VLS (Vertical Speed) is replaced by VSTALL WARNING (Vertical Speed Stall Warning).

  • SFCC 1 Total Failure: If SFCC 1 (Spoiler Function Control Computer) fails, slats and flaps operate at half speed.

  • Asymmetric Flap Travel: Asymmetric flap travel after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight results in flaps being locked in position by the wing tip brake until maintenance is done.

  • Spoiler Failure Yaw Compensation: A spoiler failure results in the inhibiton of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing to help recover from yaw.

  • Approach Landing: At 100 feet, alpha floor is inhibited; at 50 feet, the Flare Mode commences.

  • A-LOCK (Alpha Lock) Indication: A red UNLK light on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel indicates the associated gear leg is not locked in its selected position*.

  • RMP Tuning: RMP No.1 can tune any radio communication equipment and onside radio navigation receivers.

  • ROSE ILS on Left ND: The captain's left ND displays ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected.

  • RMP Tuning and NAVAIDS: When RMP tuning of NAVAIDS is in operation, the ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMPs and ILS DME is not available.

  • ADIRS Panel: The IR Mode rotary selectors and the ADR selectors are fully independent.

  • BMC 1 Failure: If BMC 1 (Brake Monitor Control) fails, ENG 2 BLEED LEAK may not be detected.

  • Cross-Bleed Valve Operation: In auto mode, the cross-bleed valve automatically opens if necessary to equalize duct pressures.

  • FADEC System: FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.

  • Igniters Activation for Take-Off: Weight off wheels automatically activates the igniters for takeoff.

  • ATHR Condition at Flight Start: ATHR is ARMED upon selection of TOGA or FLX (Flex) power.

  • MANUAL START Engine Master Switch ON: The engine master switch should be selected ON when IGN A+B appears on the engine System Display.

  • Engine Panel FAULT Light: An illuminated FAULT light on the Engine Panel indicates a failure in the engine fire detection system.

  • FUEL USED Reset: The FUEL USED indication on the system display resets to zero during the associated engine start on the ground.

  • Engine Limitations and EGT: If the EGT rises above 950°C, the EGT will pulse red. The maximum permissible EGT is 1000ºC.

  • Auto Start Sequence: Loss of the N2 grey (highlight) background signifies the end of the start sequence of an automatic engine start.

  • Passenger Oxygen Supply Duration: The passenger oxygen supply lasts for between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.

  • Autopilot Disconnect: The autopilot disconnects when bank angle exceeds 45° and the speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1°.*

  • ILS APPR on ND: "ILS APPR" at the center of the ND signifies an ILS approach has been entered in the MCDU flight plan.

  • FIRE Light Illumination: An illuminated FIRE light indicates a faulty fire detection loop and requires maintenance.

Limitations

  • Maximum Tyre Speed: 205 knots.

  • Maximum Wind Speed for Passenger Door Operation: 55 knots (gusting 60 knots).

  • Gear Down Limiting Speed: 250 knots.

  • Maximum Runway Slope: +1%/-2%.

  • Maximum Acceleration G-Limits: Clean configuration -1g to +2.5g, Flaps extended -1g to +2g.

  • Power Plant Starter Limitations: After 4 failed start attempts, allow 15 minutes cooling.

  • Minimum Speed for Full Reverse Thrust: 70 knots.

  • Maximum Speed for Flap 3: 200 knots.

  • Maximum Cabin Pressure Differentials: Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.2 psi.

  • Ram Air Valve Limiting Factor: Aircraft speed at or below 300 kt.

  • Maximum Continuous Load per Generator: 75%.

  • MEL "Remarks or Exceptions" (0) Significance: Dispatch is not allowed with this code in the MEL.

  • Maximum Tailwind for Takeoff: 15 or 20 knots (see FCOM).

  • Maximum Altitude for Gear Extension: 25,000 feet.

  • Maximum Time Limit for Takeoff and Go-Around (One Engine Inoperative): 10 minutes.

  • Starter Cycle Limits: 4 consecutive cycles, each max 2 minutes with 20 s pause between each attempt

Performance/Flight Planning

  • Runway Limitation Determinant: ASD, TOD, TOR

  • Runway Clearance End of Takeoff Distance (Dry): 50 ft.

  • Landing Distance Runway Margin: 60% of required runway.

  • LRC Ceiling "One Engine Out" (58t, ISA Temp): FL230.

  • Standard Descent Time, Distance, and Fuel (50t, FL250): Time: 28.9; Fuel: 1079kg; Distance: 185NM.

  • Trip Fuel and Flight Time (M.78, FL370, ISA, 2000 NM): Fuel: 12118kg; Time: 4.40 hours.

  • Holding Fuel per Engine and N1 at 1500ft (58t, ISA Temp): Fuel: 2032 kg ; N1: 71.4%.

  • Required Gross Climb Gradient (One Engine Inoperative in Takeoff-second segment): 1.7%.

  • Reduced Thrust (FLEX) Takeoff Regulations: FLEX take off is not allowed on contaminated runways.

  • Maximum Thrust Reduction in Percent from Full Thrust: 25%.

  • Engine Out Fuel Consumption Increase: 31%.

  • Cruise Engine Failure Initial Drift-Down Speed (Obstacle Strategy): Green dot speed.

  • Final Reserve Fuel Definition: 30 minutes holding at 1500ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate.

  • Abnormal Landing Runway Length: Max 60% of available runway.

  • VS1G and V2 Relation: 1.13

  • Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) Determinant: The lowest of both the certified limit and performance-limited takeoff weights.

Mass & Balance/Servicing

  • Allowed Traffic Load (Loadsheet): 19185 kg.

  • Index Correction for 15 pax in Cabin Section C (Loadsheet): +4.

  • Index Effect of 3000kg in CPT 4 (Loadsheet): +5.

  • Correction for Pax in CO (Loadsheet): -1.

  • Ground Electrical Power Receptacle Location: Nose section forward of nose gear bay.

  • Maximum Re-fuelling Pressure: 55 psi.

  • APU Oil Filling Point: By the rear right door.

  • Refuelling/Defueling Panel Location: On the centre fuselage, inboard of the number 2 engine.

Emergency Procedures

  • Loss of Braking (Autobrake not selected): Maintain brake pressure, disable anti-skid and nosewheel steering; use brakes normally, maintaining a minimum of 1000psi.

  • Emergency Descent Immediate Actions: Put on crew oxygen masks; disconnect autopilot; trim throttles to idle; descend at VMO (maximum operating speed).

  • TCAS "Climb" Message Initial Actions: Turn off autopilot; set to TOGA power; set vertical speed to the green band.

  • IAS Unreliable After Takeoff (Before Slat Retraction): Turn off autopilot; do not move flaps.

  • GPWS “Pull Up” Alert Initial Actions: Turn off autopilot; set to TOGA power; follow pitch demands on Flight Director.

  • Emergency Cockpit Exit Procedure: Leave via a sliding window using its associated escape rope, or force the cockpit door in either direction.

  • Rejected Take-off Procedure: Monitor brake response, assume manual control if necessary.

  • Windshear Warning Airborne Actions: Set to TOGA power; follow Flight Director pitch demands; maintain gear/flap configuration.

Special Requirements "EFIS"

  • ECAM Upper DU Failure System Display/Status: Use the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM control panel.

  • LDG INHIBIT on ECAM E/WD: Appears automatically below 800 ft radio altitude.

  • ECAM Control Panel RCL Push-button Function: Pressing the ECAM Control Panel RCL button for more than 3 seconds recalls any messages in CANCELLED CAUTIONS.

  • SYSTEM DISPLAY ELECTRICS Page Appearance: An ELECTRICS page on the system display, with no other cautions or warnings, indicates a primary failure.

  • Permanent Status Page Information: Gross Weight.

  • ECAM Failure Identification: Independent failures are identified by a star (*).

  • Gear Down Approach Action: The STS page appears on the lower ECAM display.

  • PFD Speed Symbol: Selected speed is represented by a magenta speed bug.

FMS

  • Managed Speed Increase on Approach (Speed Bug): The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the PERF page.

  • FMA (Lateral) Indication for Go-Around: The initial track of the go-around procedure.

  • Alpha Floor Activation: Available at all times in flight (not engaged if ATHR is turned off).

  • ATC Descent Rate Increase During Managed Descent: Push the altitude knob on the FCU.

  • "LAND" FMA Activation: Engages at 400 ft radio altitude and to leave this mode before FLARE is annunciated, select a HDG or V/S on the FCU.

  • Selected 100 kts Speed with Flaps/Slats Retracted and ATHR ON: The aircraft will fly at the VLS.

  • PFD Digital Altitude Color Change: Diverging >250’ from FCU altitude will cause the altitude to turn amber in color.

  • Climb Altitude Constraint Indication: A magenta star on the MCDU PERF CLIMB page.

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