Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which exterior lights automatically extinguish when the gear is retracted?
Which exterior lights automatically extinguish when the gear is retracted?
- Nose and Land (correct)
- Nose and RWY Turn Off
- Logo and Land
- RWY Turn Off and Wing
Which color coding is correct for the pushbutton switches?
Which color coding is correct for the pushbutton switches?
- Red - Immediate action; 2 Dots - 'Not used' part of switch (correct)
- Green - Temporary operation; White - Abnormal position
- White - Temporary operation; Green - Normal operation
- Amber - Immediate action; Blue - Temporary operation
What occurs if there is a failure of a cabin pressure controller?
What occurs if there is a failure of a cabin pressure controller?
- Transfer is through manual control
- An emergency descent must be initiated
- The pilots must manually select landing elevation
- An automatic transfer occurs to the other controller (correct)
Which statement about the Avionics Ventilation system is true?
Which statement about the Avionics Ventilation system is true?
Complete the statement: 'With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be...'
Complete the statement: 'With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be...'
Complete the statement: 'The pressurisation system includes...'
Complete the statement: 'The pressurisation system includes...'
Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which statement is true?
Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which statement is true?
What are the maximum acceleration limits for a clean configuration?
What are the maximum acceleration limits for a clean configuration?
What is the minimum speed for the use of full reverse thrust?
What is the minimum speed for the use of full reverse thrust?
What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3 configuration?
What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3 configuration?
What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?
What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?
What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve?
What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve?
What is the maximum continuous load per generator?
What is the maximum continuous load per generator?
In the MEL 'Remarks or Exceptions' column, what does the sign (0) signify?
In the MEL 'Remarks or Exceptions' column, what does the sign (0) signify?
What is the maximum tailwind allowed for takeoff?
What is the maximum tailwind allowed for takeoff?
What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?
What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?
How many start cycles are allowed before a cooling period of 15 minutes is required?
How many start cycles are allowed before a cooling period of 15 minutes is required?
What is the required clearance above the surface at the end of the takeoff distance if the runway is dry?
What is the required clearance above the surface at the end of the takeoff distance if the runway is dry?
What is the regulations for Reduced thrust (FLEX) take-off?
What is the regulations for Reduced thrust (FLEX) take-off?
What is the increment in percentage for Engine Out fuel consumption?
What is the increment in percentage for Engine Out fuel consumption?
What is the maximum thrust reduction in percent from Full thrust?
What is the maximum thrust reduction in percent from Full thrust?
When does SRS (FMA) change to CLB after takeoff?
When does SRS (FMA) change to CLB after takeoff?
What happens when the initial inner tank level reaches 750 kg?
What happens when the initial inner tank level reaches 750 kg?
Which hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves and why?
Which hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves and why?
What condition defines icing conditions in flight?
What condition defines icing conditions in flight?
What triggers the autobrake system after landing?
What triggers the autobrake system after landing?
What is the default situation if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost?
What is the default situation if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost?
When the MODE selector is in AUTO with all tanks full, which statement is correct?
When the MODE selector is in AUTO with all tanks full, which statement is correct?
Which action needs to be taken if the W.A.I. switch is left ON after a ground test?
Which action needs to be taken if the W.A.I. switch is left ON after a ground test?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the gear lever while the aircraft is on the ground?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the gear lever while the aircraft is on the ground?
What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel?
What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel?
Following an overheat and shut down of a hydraulic pump, how long will the FAULT light remain illuminated?
Following an overheat and shut down of a hydraulic pump, how long will the FAULT light remain illuminated?
Which radio equipment can RMP No. 1 tune?
Which radio equipment can RMP No. 1 tune?
In which scenario will the centre tank pumps stop when the MODE SELECT switch is in REFUEL position?
In which scenario will the centre tank pumps stop when the MODE SELECT switch is in REFUEL position?
What does rotating an IR Mode rotary selector to ATT provide?
What does rotating an IR Mode rotary selector to ATT provide?
What will not be detected in the event of BMC 1 failure?
What will not be detected in the event of BMC 1 failure?
Which correctly describes the operation of the cross-bleed valve in auto mode?
Which correctly describes the operation of the cross-bleed valve in auto mode?
What condition powers the FADEC system?
What condition powers the FADEC system?
What automatically activates the igniters for take-off?
What automatically activates the igniters for take-off?
When is the ATHR condition armed?
When is the ATHR condition armed?
What does a lit FAULT light on the Engine Panel indicate?
What does a lit FAULT light on the Engine Panel indicate?
When is the FUEL USED indication reset to zero?
When is the FUEL USED indication reset to zero?
Under what conditions does the autopilot disconnect?
Under what conditions does the autopilot disconnect?
What signifies the end of the start sequence in an Auto Start?
What signifies the end of the start sequence in an Auto Start?
What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?
What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?
What does the illuminated FIRE light indicate?
What does the illuminated FIRE light indicate?
What is the maximum permissible EGT during engine start?
What is the maximum permissible EGT during engine start?
What is the maximum tyre speed?
What is the maximum tyre speed?
What condition will cause the APU to remain running even after being switched off?
What condition will cause the APU to remain running even after being switched off?
What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON?
What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON?
When should the AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?
When should the AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?
What does pushing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch cause?
What does pushing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch cause?
In the event of an AC BUS 1 fault, how can the AC ESS bus be powered?
In the event of an AC BUS 1 fault, how can the AC ESS bus be powered?
What is the effect of selecting the GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF?
What is the effect of selecting the GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF?
Which condition will trigger the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate?
Which condition will trigger the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate?
What condition indicates a fire warning in the aircraft?
What condition indicates a fire warning in the aircraft?
What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law Configuration 0?
What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law Configuration 0?
In ALTERNATE LAW, how do the indications change at the bottom of the speed scale?
In ALTERNATE LAW, how do the indications change at the bottom of the speed scale?
What occurs in the event of SFCC 1 total failure?
What occurs in the event of SFCC 1 total failure?
If asymmetric flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight, what will be the result?
If asymmetric flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight, what will be the result?
What is the true statement about the aircraft's behavior at 100 feet during approach?
What is the true statement about the aircraft's behavior at 100 feet during approach?
What does the A-LOCK (alpha lock) condition indicate?
What does the A-LOCK (alpha lock) condition indicate?
What does the ‘F’ speed on the IAS strip represent at take-off?
What does the ‘F’ speed on the IAS strip represent at take-off?
What should be followed after receiving a 'WINDSHEAR' warning during flight?
What should be followed after receiving a 'WINDSHEAR' warning during flight?
How can any System Display/Status be displayed if the ECAM Upper DU fails?
How can any System Display/Status be displayed if the ECAM Upper DU fails?
When does the LDG INHIBIT message appear on the ECAM E/WD in magenta?
When does the LDG INHIBIT message appear on the ECAM E/WD in magenta?
What happens on the SYSTEM DISPLAY when the ELECTRICS page appears automatically?
What happens on the SYSTEM DISPLAY when the ELECTRICS page appears automatically?
Which data is always displayed on the status page?
Which data is always displayed on the status page?
Which statement about Independent and Primary failures is accurate?
Which statement about Independent and Primary failures is accurate?
What occurs when the gear is selected down on approach?
What occurs when the gear is selected down on approach?
When is Mach No. displayed on the PFD?
When is Mach No. displayed on the PFD?
What contributes to the speed bug automatically increasing higher than VAPP on approach?
What contributes to the speed bug automatically increasing higher than VAPP on approach?
What FMA (lateral) indication is shown immediately during a Go-Around?
What FMA (lateral) indication is shown immediately during a Go-Around?
Which statement regarding ALPHA FLOOR is true?
Which statement regarding ALPHA FLOOR is true?
How should a requested increase to your rate of descent be responded to during a managed descent?
How should a requested increase to your rate of descent be responded to during a managed descent?
When does the LAND FMA engage during the approach?
When does the LAND FMA engage during the approach?
What color change occurs when digital altitude diverges from FCU altitude?
What color change occurs when digital altitude diverges from FCU altitude?
What is the definition of ‘FINAL RESERVE FUEL’?
What is the definition of ‘FINAL RESERVE FUEL’?
What is the allowable runway length for landing during an abnormal landing scenario?
What is the allowable runway length for landing during an abnormal landing scenario?
What is the relationship between VS1G and V2?
What is the relationship between VS1G and V2?
Which factor determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)?
Which factor determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)?
What is the allowed traffic load based on the provided loadsheet?
What is the allowed traffic load based on the provided loadsheet?
What is the index correction for 15 passengers in cabin section C?
What is the index correction for 15 passengers in cabin section C?
What is the index effect of 3000kg in compartment 4?
What is the index effect of 3000kg in compartment 4?
What is the maximum refuelling pressure allowed?
What is the maximum refuelling pressure allowed?
What are the actions if a loss of braking occurs when autobrake is not selected?
What are the actions if a loss of braking occurs when autobrake is not selected?
What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent?
What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent?
In the event of a GPWS alert including “PULL UP”, what are the initial actions?
In the event of a GPWS alert including “PULL UP”, what are the initial actions?
What should be done if the IAS becomes unreliable after take-off and before SLATS are retracted?
What should be done if the IAS becomes unreliable after take-off and before SLATS are retracted?
Which option correctly completes the statement about exiting the cockpit in an emergency?
Which option correctly completes the statement about exiting the cockpit in an emergency?
Flashcards
Which lights switch off when the gear is retracted?
Which lights switch off when the gear is retracted?
When the landing gear is retracted, the NOSE and LANDING lights automatically switch off.
What do the colors on pushbutton switches mean?
What do the colors on pushbutton switches mean?
Pushbutton switches are color-coded to indicate their function. RED indicates immediate action, WHITE indicates temporary operation, GREEN indicates normal operation, and 2 Dots mean the part of the switch is 'not used'.
What happens if a cabin pressure controller fails?
What happens if a cabin pressure controller fails?
In case of a cabin pressure controller failure, an automatic transfer to the other controller occurs.
Can the Inlet and Extract Valves be open during flight?
Can the Inlet and Extract Valves be open during flight?
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What is the possible pack flow when the FLO controller is set to LO?
What is the possible pack flow when the FLO controller is set to LO?
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What is the configuration of the pressurization system?
What is the configuration of the pressurization system?
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What do the colors of A/THR on the FMA mean?
What do the colors of A/THR on the FMA mean?
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What is the APU?
What is the APU?
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What is the APU Intake Flap?
What is the APU Intake Flap?
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What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON?
What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to ON?
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Describe the APU start sequence when the MASTER switch is selected ON.
Describe the APU start sequence when the MASTER switch is selected ON.
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What is the function of the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch?
What is the function of the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton switch?
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How can the AC ESS bus be powered if AC BUS 1 fails?
How can the AC ESS bus be powered if AC BUS 1 fails?
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What happens when the GEN 1 LINE switch is selected to OFF?
What happens when the GEN 1 LINE switch is selected to OFF?
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What conditions will cause the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate?
What conditions will cause the cabin signs and lighting to illuminate?
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What conditions trigger a fire warning?
What conditions trigger a fire warning?
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What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law Configuration 0?
What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law Configuration 0?
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In alpha protection, what does the sidestick movement control?
In alpha protection, what does the sidestick movement control?
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What changes occur in ALTERNATE LAW?
What changes occur in ALTERNATE LAW?
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What happens if SFCC 1 fails completely?
What happens if SFCC 1 fails completely?
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What happens if asymmetric flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2?
What happens if asymmetric flap travel occurs after selecting FLAPS 2?
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How does the system compensate for a spoiler failure?
How does the system compensate for a spoiler failure?
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What happens on an approach to land regarding alpha protection and pitch trim?
What happens on an approach to land regarding alpha protection and pitch trim?
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What is the definition of 'FINAL RESERVE FUEL'?
What is the definition of 'FINAL RESERVE FUEL'?
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What is the maximum runway length usable for landing with an abnormal landing?
What is the maximum runway length usable for landing with an abnormal landing?
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What is the ratio between VS1G and V2?
What is the ratio between VS1G and V2?
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What determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)?
What determines Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW)?
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What is the allowed traffic load, with given information?
What is the allowed traffic load, with given information?
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What is the index correction for 15pax in cabin section C?
What is the index correction for 15pax in cabin section C?
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What is the index effect of 3000kg in CPT 4?
What is the index effect of 3000kg in CPT 4?
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What is the correction for Pax in CO?
What is the correction for Pax in CO?
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The ground electrical power receptacle is located?
The ground electrical power receptacle is located?
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What is the maximum re-fuelling pressure?
What is the maximum re-fuelling pressure?
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The APU oil filling point is?
The APU oil filling point is?
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The refuelling / defueling panel is located?
The refuelling / defueling panel is located?
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Maximum acceleration limits for clean configuration
Maximum acceleration limits for clean configuration
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Maximum acceleration limits for clean & slats extended
Maximum acceleration limits for clean & slats extended
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What are the actions if loss of braking occurs (if autobrake is not selected)?
What are the actions if loss of braking occurs (if autobrake is not selected)?
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What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent?
What are the immediate actions to follow for an emergency descent?
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Maximum acceleration limits clean & flaps extended
Maximum acceleration limits clean & flaps extended
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Following a TCAS “CLIMB” message, what are the initial actions?
Following a TCAS “CLIMB” message, what are the initial actions?
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Maximum Acceleration Limits with Slats & Flaps extended
Maximum Acceleration Limits with Slats & Flaps extended
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Starter Engagement speed
Starter Engagement speed
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When does SRS change to CLB?
When does SRS change to CLB?
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Minimum speed for reverse thrust
Minimum speed for reverse thrust
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When does the ECAM E/WD memo REFUELG appear?
When does the ECAM E/WD memo REFUELG appear?
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Maximum speed for FLAP 3
Maximum speed for FLAP 3
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What happens when the inner tank level reaches 750kg?
What happens when the inner tank level reaches 750kg?
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Aircraft tanks full and MODE set to AUTO. What stops the centre tank pumps?
Aircraft tanks full and MODE set to AUTO. What stops the centre tank pumps?
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Maximum cabin pressure differential
Maximum cabin pressure differential
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Condition for Ram Air Valve opening
Condition for Ram Air Valve opening
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When does the PTU activate?
When does the PTU activate?
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Maximum continuous generator load
Maximum continuous generator load
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How long does the hydraulic pump FAULT light stay on?
How long does the hydraulic pump FAULT light stay on?
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Which systems have fluid shutoff valves, and why?
Which systems have fluid shutoff valves, and why?
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Meaning of (0) in the MEL
Meaning of (0) in the MEL
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What are Icing conditions?
What are Icing conditions?
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Maximum tailwind for takeoff
Maximum tailwind for takeoff
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What happens if the WAI switch is left ON after a ground test?
What happens if the WAI switch is left ON after a ground test?
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Maximum altitude for landing gear extension
Maximum altitude for landing gear extension
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Starter cycles and cooling
Starter cycles and cooling
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What happens if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost?
What happens if electrical control to the Wing Anti-Ice and Engine Anti-Ice is lost?
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What triggers the autobrake system after landing?
What triggers the autobrake system after landing?
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Following Gravity Extension, which statements are true?
Following Gravity Extension, which statements are true?
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What is true about the gear lever on the ground?
What is true about the gear lever on the ground?
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What does a red UNLK light on the Landing Gear Panel mean?
What does a red UNLK light on the Landing Gear Panel mean?
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Which radio equipment can be tuned by RMP No. 1?
Which radio equipment can be tuned by RMP No. 1?
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ADIRS Attitude Mode
ADIRS Attitude Mode
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FADEC Self-Powering
FADEC Self-Powering
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Takeoff Igniter Activation
Takeoff Igniter Activation
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ATHR Activation
ATHR Activation
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Manual Start Engine Master Switch
Manual Start Engine Master Switch
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Engine FAULT Light
Engine FAULT Light
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Fuel Used Reset
Fuel Used Reset
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EGT Limit
EGT Limit
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Auto Start Completion
Auto Start Completion
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Passenger Oxygen Duration
Passenger Oxygen Duration
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Autopilot Disconnect
Autopilot Disconnect
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ILS APPR Display
ILS APPR Display
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FIRE Light Illumination
FIRE Light Illumination
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Maximum Tyre Speed
Maximum Tyre Speed
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Passenger Door Wind Limit
Passenger Door Wind Limit
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What are the initial actions to take after a "WINDSHEAR" warning?
What are the initial actions to take after a "WINDSHEAR" warning?
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How can you display system information if the upper ECAM DU fails?
How can you display system information if the upper ECAM DU fails?
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When does the 'LDG INHIBIT' message appear on the E/WD memo?
When does the 'LDG INHIBIT' message appear on the E/WD memo?
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What does pressing the ECAM RCL button for more than 3 seconds do?
What does pressing the ECAM RCL button for more than 3 seconds do?
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What does an automatic ELECTRICS page on the ECAM system display indicate?
What does an automatic ELECTRICS page on the ECAM system display indicate?
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What permanent data does the STATUS page always display?
What permanent data does the STATUS page always display?
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How are PRIMARY failures identified on the ECAM?
How are PRIMARY failures identified on the ECAM?
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What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?
What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?
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How is the selected speed represented on the PFD?
How is the selected speed represented on the PFD?
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Why might the speed bug go above VAPP during a managed descent?
Why might the speed bug go above VAPP during a managed descent?
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What does the FMA (lateral) show immediately after a Go-Around?
What does the FMA (lateral) show immediately after a Go-Around?
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When is ALPHA FLOOR available?
When is ALPHA FLOOR available?
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What do you do to increase rate of descent during a managed descent?
What do you do to increase rate of descent during a managed descent?
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When does the "LAND" FMA annunciate, and how can you leave this mode?
When does the "LAND" FMA annunciate, and how can you leave this mode?
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What speed will the aircraft fly at with FLAPS and SLATS retracted, ATHR ON, and a speed of 100 kts selected?
What speed will the aircraft fly at with FLAPS and SLATS retracted, ATHR ON, and a speed of 100 kts selected?
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Study Notes
Aeroplane Systems (CFM)
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Gear Retraction and Exterior Lights: When landing gear retracts, the NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights automatically extinguish.
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Pushbutton Switch Color Coding: RED indicates immediate action, while AMBER indicates immediate action.
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Cabin Pressure Controller Failure: In the event of a cabin pressure controller failure, a manual transfer to the other controller occurs.
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Avionics Ventilation System: The Inlet and Extract Valves may be open in flight. The Extract Valve may be partially open when taxying.
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FLO Controller (LO): With the FLO controller selected to LO, the actual pack flow may be NORM or HI due to single pack operation.
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Pressurization System Components: The pressurization system includes 3 Cabin Pressure Controllers and 2 Outflow Valves with 2 auto motors and 1 manual motor.
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A/THR Indications (FMA 5th column): ATHR in blue indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA), while ATHR in white indicates ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA).
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APU Shutdown with Unintended Operation: If the APU hasn't stopped after being switched off, it's likely due to the air intake flap failing to close.
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APU MASTER Switch ON: Selecting the APU MASTER switch to ON opens the APU Intake Flap and engages the starter motor immediately.
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AUDIO SWITCHING to CAPT 3: Select CAPT 3 on the overhead panel when the captain's loudspeaker has failed, or when using RMP tuning of NAVAIDS.
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CABIN CALLS EMER Pushbutton: Pressing the CABIN CALLS EMER pushbutton results in three HI/LO chimes, red lights, and a PA announcement.
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AC BUS 1 Fault and AC ESS Bus Power: If AC BUS 1 fails, AC ESS bus can be powered by AC BUS 2.
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GEN 1 LINE switch OFF (EMER ELECT PWR panel): Selecting GEN 1 LINE switch to OFF de-energizes GEN 1 and its line contactor opens, and transfers fuel pump operation to the AC ESS BUS .
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Cabin Signs and Lighting Activation: The cabin signs and lights illuminate above 11,000 feet cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.
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Fire Warning Trigger: A fire warning triggers when Loops A and B (engine) fail within 7 seconds of each other).
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Normal Law Configuration 0 Pitch/Roll Limits: Normal Law Configuration 0 pitch limits are +30° (+25° at low speed) and -15°, while roll is 67°.
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Alpha Protection Sidestick Movement: Moving the sidestick between neutral and fully aft commands alpha.
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ALTERNATE LAW Speed Scale Indications: In alternate law, the VLS (Vertical Speed) is replaced by VSTALL WARNING (Vertical Speed Stall Warning).
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SFCC 1 Total Failure: If SFCC 1 (Spoiler Function Control Computer) fails, slats and flaps operate at half speed.
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Asymmetric Flap Travel: Asymmetric flap travel after selecting FLAPS 2 in flight results in flaps being locked in position by the wing tip brake until maintenance is done.
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Spoiler Failure Yaw Compensation: A spoiler failure results in the inhibiton of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing to help recover from yaw.
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Approach Landing: At 100 feet, alpha floor is inhibited; at 50 feet, the Flare Mode commences.
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A-LOCK (Alpha Lock) Indication: A red UNLK light on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel indicates the associated gear leg is not locked in its selected position*.
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RMP Tuning: RMP No.1 can tune any radio communication equipment and onside radio navigation receivers.
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ROSE ILS on Left ND: The captain's left ND displays ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected.
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RMP Tuning and NAVAIDS: When RMP tuning of NAVAIDS is in operation, the ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMPs and ILS DME is not available.
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ADIRS Panel: The IR Mode rotary selectors and the ADR selectors are fully independent.
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BMC 1 Failure: If BMC 1 (Brake Monitor Control) fails, ENG 2 BLEED LEAK may not be detected.
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Cross-Bleed Valve Operation: In auto mode, the cross-bleed valve automatically opens if necessary to equalize duct pressures.
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FADEC System: FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.
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Igniters Activation for Take-Off: Weight off wheels automatically activates the igniters for takeoff.
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ATHR Condition at Flight Start: ATHR is ARMED upon selection of TOGA or FLX (Flex) power.
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MANUAL START Engine Master Switch ON: The engine master switch should be selected ON when IGN A+B appears on the engine System Display.
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Engine Panel FAULT Light: An illuminated FAULT light on the Engine Panel indicates a failure in the engine fire detection system.
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FUEL USED Reset: The FUEL USED indication on the system display resets to zero during the associated engine start on the ground.
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Engine Limitations and EGT: If the EGT rises above 950°C, the EGT will pulse red. The maximum permissible EGT is 1000ºC.
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Auto Start Sequence: Loss of the N2 grey (highlight) background signifies the end of the start sequence of an automatic engine start.
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Passenger Oxygen Supply Duration: The passenger oxygen supply lasts for between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.
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Autopilot Disconnect: The autopilot disconnects when bank angle exceeds 45° and the speed reaches Alpha Prot + 1°.*
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ILS APPR on ND: "ILS APPR" at the center of the ND signifies an ILS approach has been entered in the MCDU flight plan.
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FIRE Light Illumination: An illuminated FIRE light indicates a faulty fire detection loop and requires maintenance.
Limitations
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Maximum Tyre Speed: 205 knots.
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Maximum Wind Speed for Passenger Door Operation: 55 knots (gusting 60 knots).
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Gear Down Limiting Speed: 250 knots.
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Maximum Runway Slope: +1%/-2%.
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Maximum Acceleration G-Limits: Clean configuration -1g to +2.5g, Flaps extended -1g to +2g.
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Power Plant Starter Limitations: After 4 failed start attempts, allow 15 minutes cooling.
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Minimum Speed for Full Reverse Thrust: 70 knots.
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Maximum Speed for Flap 3: 200 knots.
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Maximum Cabin Pressure Differentials: Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.2 psi.
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Ram Air Valve Limiting Factor: Aircraft speed at or below 300 kt.
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Maximum Continuous Load per Generator: 75%.
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MEL "Remarks or Exceptions" (0) Significance: Dispatch is not allowed with this code in the MEL.
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Maximum Tailwind for Takeoff: 15 or 20 knots (see FCOM).
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Maximum Altitude for Gear Extension: 25,000 feet.
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Maximum Time Limit for Takeoff and Go-Around (One Engine Inoperative): 10 minutes.
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Starter Cycle Limits: 4 consecutive cycles, each max 2 minutes with 20 s pause between each attempt
Performance/Flight Planning
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Runway Limitation Determinant: ASD, TOD, TOR
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Runway Clearance End of Takeoff Distance (Dry): 50 ft.
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Landing Distance Runway Margin: 60% of required runway.
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LRC Ceiling "One Engine Out" (58t, ISA Temp): FL230.
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Standard Descent Time, Distance, and Fuel (50t, FL250): Time: 28.9; Fuel: 1079kg; Distance: 185NM.
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Trip Fuel and Flight Time (M.78, FL370, ISA, 2000 NM): Fuel: 12118kg; Time: 4.40 hours.
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Holding Fuel per Engine and N1 at 1500ft (58t, ISA Temp): Fuel: 2032 kg ; N1: 71.4%.
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Required Gross Climb Gradient (One Engine Inoperative in Takeoff-second segment): 1.7%.
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Reduced Thrust (FLEX) Takeoff Regulations: FLEX take off is not allowed on contaminated runways.
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Maximum Thrust Reduction in Percent from Full Thrust: 25%.
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Engine Out Fuel Consumption Increase: 31%.
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Cruise Engine Failure Initial Drift-Down Speed (Obstacle Strategy): Green dot speed.
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Final Reserve Fuel Definition: 30 minutes holding at 1500ft AGL in clean configuration at the destination alternate.
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Abnormal Landing Runway Length: Max 60% of available runway.
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VS1G and V2 Relation: 1.13
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Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) Determinant: The lowest of both the certified limit and performance-limited takeoff weights.
Mass & Balance/Servicing
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Allowed Traffic Load (Loadsheet): 19185 kg.
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Index Correction for 15 pax in Cabin Section C (Loadsheet): +4.
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Index Effect of 3000kg in CPT 4 (Loadsheet): +5.
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Correction for Pax in CO (Loadsheet): -1.
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Ground Electrical Power Receptacle Location: Nose section forward of nose gear bay.
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Maximum Re-fuelling Pressure: 55 psi.
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APU Oil Filling Point: By the rear right door.
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Refuelling/Defueling Panel Location: On the centre fuselage, inboard of the number 2 engine.
Emergency Procedures
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Loss of Braking (Autobrake not selected): Maintain brake pressure, disable anti-skid and nosewheel steering; use brakes normally, maintaining a minimum of 1000psi.
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Emergency Descent Immediate Actions: Put on crew oxygen masks; disconnect autopilot; trim throttles to idle; descend at VMO (maximum operating speed).
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TCAS "Climb" Message Initial Actions: Turn off autopilot; set to TOGA power; set vertical speed to the green band.
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IAS Unreliable After Takeoff (Before Slat Retraction): Turn off autopilot; do not move flaps.
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GPWS “Pull Up” Alert Initial Actions: Turn off autopilot; set to TOGA power; follow pitch demands on Flight Director.
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Emergency Cockpit Exit Procedure: Leave via a sliding window using its associated escape rope, or force the cockpit door in either direction.
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Rejected Take-off Procedure: Monitor brake response, assume manual control if necessary.
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Windshear Warning Airborne Actions: Set to TOGA power; follow Flight Director pitch demands; maintain gear/flap configuration.
Special Requirements "EFIS"
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ECAM Upper DU Failure System Display/Status: Use the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM control panel.
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LDG INHIBIT on ECAM E/WD: Appears automatically below 800 ft radio altitude.
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ECAM Control Panel RCL Push-button Function: Pressing the ECAM Control Panel RCL button for more than 3 seconds recalls any messages in CANCELLED CAUTIONS.
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SYSTEM DISPLAY ELECTRICS Page Appearance: An ELECTRICS page on the system display, with no other cautions or warnings, indicates a primary failure.
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Permanent Status Page Information: Gross Weight.
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ECAM Failure Identification: Independent failures are identified by a star (*).
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Gear Down Approach Action: The STS page appears on the lower ECAM display.
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PFD Speed Symbol: Selected speed is represented by a magenta speed bug.
FMS
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Managed Speed Increase on Approach (Speed Bug): The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the PERF page.
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FMA (Lateral) Indication for Go-Around: The initial track of the go-around procedure.
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Alpha Floor Activation: Available at all times in flight (not engaged if ATHR is turned off).
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ATC Descent Rate Increase During Managed Descent: Push the altitude knob on the FCU.
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"LAND" FMA Activation: Engages at 400 ft radio altitude and to leave this mode before FLARE is annunciated, select a HDG or V/S on the FCU.
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Selected 100 kts Speed with Flaps/Slats Retracted and ATHR ON: The aircraft will fly at the VLS.
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PFD Digital Altitude Color Change: Diverging >250’ from FCU altitude will cause the altitude to turn amber in color.
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Climb Altitude Constraint Indication: A magenta star on the MCDU PERF CLIMB page.
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