Upgrade 1

Due to a malfunction the crew decided to return to the airport of departure; to avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning PIC requested to reset the FLT ALT. Which feature of the system would be affected?

There is NO reversion from vertical speed modes (VNAV or MCP) to level change mode when MIN speed is reached and the flaps are greater than 12.5.

In which case the Cross Bus Tie Relay does NOT automatically open?

If the SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN position during landing or rejected takeoff, the auto speed brake system operates when these conditions occur (Choose the WRONG statement):

The Standby Attitude indicator is powered by the .......... bus and remains powered after the loss of all normal AC power as long as ........... power is available.

Control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches stop operation of the main electric and autopilot trim when the control column movement opposes trim direction. When the STAB TRIM override switch is positioned to OVERRIDE, .................. trim can be used regardless of control column position.

Engaging an Autopilot (A/P) in CMD while executing Go Around above 400 feet, engages the A/P and F/D in .......... for pitch mode.

The APU start cycle may take as long as ....... seconds.

Placing the master lights switch in the TEST position will result in a master caution recall and any stored fault will cause the associated light to remain illuminated when the switch is released.

Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE/Smokehood) devices for crew use are stowed throughout the airplane. The PBE is placed over the head, and when activated, provides appoximately _____ to over ______ minutes of oxygen depending upon the device used.

What does an illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicate?

The APU bleed air valve permits APU bleed air to flow to the bleed air duct. The valve closes automatically when the APU is shut down. How is the APU bleed air valve operated?

When is the probe heat system powered automatically? (consider Probe Heat Swithches in AUTO position)

Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to normal when engine anti-ice is positioned OFF if wing anti-ice has NOT been used in flight.

When G/S captured, which mode is A/T engaged automaticaly?

Select the CORRECT statement about Auto Flight System (AFS).

Select the CORRECT statement about flight director display.

Choose the CORRECT statement when an Autopilot (A/P) is engaged in CMD after Take Off;

When does the MCP IAS/MACH display blank?

Choose the CORRECT statement for Audio Systems and Audio Control Panels (ACP).

What is the function of BOTH position of ACP filter switch?

APU Generator can meet electrical power requirements for all ground conditions and most flight conditions.

IDGs supply....

Choose the WRONG statement about electrical system.

If FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values, what will be shown in TMD ?

Which warnings or lights on the aft overhead panel will cause to illuminate the Master Caution warning and ENG annunciator?

During ground starts EEC monitors engine parameters. Which of followings are detected by the EEC?

During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0º to 1100º C prior to normal EGT rise and, which light may cycle on and off several times?

Choose the CORRECT option for approach idle selection.

(I) In flight flaps are in landing configuration

(II) On the ground flaps are landing configuration

(III) In flight ENGINE ANTI ICE is ON for either engine

(IV) On the ground ENGINE ANTI ICE is ON

Choose the WRONG statement for engine fire system.

What are the features that Yaw Damper provides?

STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY Light-Illuminated (amber) - indicates low quantity in standby hydraulic reservoir and ............. armed. STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW PRESSURE Light-Illuminated (amber) - indicates output pressure of standby pump is low and and armed only ............... or automatic standby function is activated.

The EFS module is armed whenever an inhibit condition is not present. Which one of the following is NOT an inhibit condition?

The Captain’s control wheel is connected by cables to the aileron Power Control Units (PCUs) through the aileron feel and centering unit. If the spoiler system is jammed, force applied to the Captain’s control wheel provides roll control from the ailerons.

Tip of green speed trend vector arrow indicates predicted airspeed in the next ....... seconds based on the current airspeed and acceleration.

The VNAV descent path starts at the calculated top of descent (T/D) point and includes waypoint altitude restrictions. The path is based on........... (Choose the WRONG statement)

Regarding FMC operation; which of these match correctly?

The required actions to perform the driftdown after selecting the left or right ENG OUT mode:

• disengage A/T

• set max cont. thrust on operating engine (N1 line)

• set MCP speed to ENG OUT SPD

• set MCP altitude to MAX ALT or lower

• select LVL CHG

What is the severe turbulence air penetration speed at climb?

What is the minimum widht for straight section of taxiway?

What is the max alt for APU bleed + electirical load?

What is the One Engine Inoperative maximum crosswind components for WET runway (width 45 m or greater whenever reverse thrust is used)?

What is the maximum allowable crosswind limit for CAT II landing?

When does the pilot flying call for the non-normal checklist?

If an amber caution light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall but extinguishes after MASTER CAUTION reset, completion of the associated checklist is required.

Which statement is CORRECT about engine shutdown in flight?

Who performs the memory items?

If an amber caution light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall but extinguishes after MASTER CAUTION reset, completion of the associated checklist is required.

Choose the CORRECT choice for QRH NNC reading.

For a climb RA in landing configuration, follow the planned lateral flight path unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action.

In which condition may the approach be continued after a TERRAIN GPWS Caution occurs?

Do not follow a DESCEND (fly down) RA issued below ........... feet AGL.

The Predictive windshear warning aural alert during takeoff roll is "WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD".

Which one of the folowing is NOT a memory item for "Loss of Thrust On Both Engines" checklist?

SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED Light-Illuminated (amber) – in–flight:

• SPEED BRAKE lever is beyond the ARMED position, and • TE flaps extended MORE than (not including) flaps ...... , or radio altitude less than ........ feet

DRAG REQUIRED CDU Message is shown when Airspeed is ....... kts or more above FMC target speed or within 5 kts of Vmo/Mmo.

With assumed temperature method; the authorized maximum thrust reduction is ...... percent below any certified rating.

Do not deploy the speedbrakes in flight at radio altitudes less than ....... feet.

Takeoff with light coatings of frost up to ...... mm in thickness on ............ due to cold fuel, is permissable, however, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces, tab surfaces, upper wing surfaces and balance panel cavities must be free of snow or ice.

After takeoff, when flaps are NOT up, the bottom of the Maximum Maneuver Speed amber bar indicates the placard speed for the...............

An engine fire occured during take-off roll. Which of the following condition is NOT a requirement to discharge the second fire bottle by memory?

During takeoff at rotation, which one of the following new alert can be heard in the cockpit?

Choose the WRONG statement about Predictive Windshear alerts?

Choose the WRONG statement about Windshear Warning?

Which one of the following equipments do NOT illuminate red Master Fire Warning (FIRE WARN) lights in case of fire?

Which one of the following does NOT activate takeoff configuration warning when both thrust levers are advanced for takeoff?

In which condition(s) does the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminate?

Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the landing gear lever in the OFF position.

Which of the following does not disarm the autobrake during rollout?

With the Center (CTR) tank FUEL PUMP switches ON, continuous illumination of one LOW PRESSURE light for 10 seconds illuminates MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights.

Choose the WRONG non-normal flight condition for The Nitrogen Generator System (NGS) automatically shuts down.

Which component is supplied by hydraulic system B?

What is the maximum pressure for hydraulic systems?

Which hydraulic system pressure is used to power the hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid for Power Transfer Unit operation?

Which unit is connected through a standpipe to the standby hydraulic reservoir?

Expanded Localizer Scale is displayed when; The autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode, Deviation is slightly more than ...........dot and track is within degrees of .........the MCP selected course, A rectangle equals ½ dot deviation.

System A and B reservoirs are pressurized by .................

The brake accumulator is pressurized by hydraulic system .....

Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the landing gear lever in the .......

Acquisition alerting occurs ...... feet before reaching the selected altitude, a white box shows around the selected altitude display and the box around the current altitude becomes bold. A momentary tone sounds. At ........ feet from selected altitude, the selected altitude box no longer shows

INCREASE DESCENT RAs are inhibited below approximately ...... feet radio altitude

Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates when there is an overheat condition caused by bleed air leak from; Bleed air duct leak in left engine strut ............................ Left-Hand Air Conditioning Bay ................................. Bleed Duct From APU

What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative? ........ knots below ........ ft

What is the correct order for Autopilot Flight Director Systems (AFDSs) pitch attitude commands when in TO/GA Take Off mode? ........... degrees nose down until 60 knots IAS, ........... degrees nose up after 60 knots IAS, pitch is commanded to maintain MCP + ....... kts

The VHF ...... antenna is located on the lower fuselage, VHF ..... is on the upper fuselage (Comm System/VHF antennas).

28 volt DC power is supplied by three ............ , which are energized from the ................ busses.

If N2 is below idle and the start lever is in idle (IN FLIGHT); which igniters are energized when the engine start switch is placed in the CONT position? .................

The cargo fire DISCH light illuminates when a bottle is discharged indicating the fire suppression system has been fully activated. It may take up to ......... seconds for the light to illuminate.

Which position of the oxygen regulator is used for the associated case?

1-When needed to supply positive pressure to remove contaminants ............

2-When positive pressure is not needed but contamination of the flight deck air exist ............

3-When prolonged use is needed and the situation allows ............

What is the course of action when PREDICTIVE windshear warning occurs during approach?

• perform the ........................... or, • at pilot’s discretion, perform .....................

APU start attempts are not recommended above ............. feet for loss of both engine driven generators.

Write "APU FIRE" memory items:

1. ............................................., rotate to the stop and hold for .................

2. .......................

Write "ENGINE OVERHEAT" memory items:

1. Autothrottle (if engaged).....Disengage
2. ................. (affected engine)-Confirm- ..........
3. If the ENGINE OVERHEAT light stays illuminated
4. ..................................

Write "Loss Of Thrust On Both Engines" memory items:

1. ..............................................
2. .............................................
3. When EGT decreases: Engine start levers (both) . . . . . . ...................
4. If EGT reaches a redline or there is no increase in EGT within 30 seconds ................................... (affected engine)-Confirm- ......................... If EGT again reaches a redline or there is no increase in EGT within 30 seconds, repeat as needed.

With the main tank fuel pump No. 1 FWD Switch ON, the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operates automatically to transfer any remaining center tank fuel to main tank number .............. fuel tank.

Both engines are normally pressure fed from the center tank until the center tank quantity decreases to near zero. The engines are normally then pressure fed from ......................

"SPEED" deviation callout (during climb, cruise and descent) shall be done for speed deviations of ......... knots.

What are the two conditions for ELEC light to illuminate? A fault exists in; ........ power system or .........power system.

When stopping is assured during RTO maneuver:

• Start movement of the REVERSE THRUST LEVERS to reach the ............ before ............... After the engines are at reverse idle, move the REVERSE THRUST LEVERS to ............ position.

The APP mode permits selecting the second A/P to engage in CMD. This arms the second A/P for automatic engagement after LOC and G/S capture and when descent ................. occurs.

Choose the CORRECT memory items in CORRECT order for ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation Checklist.

I. Autothrottle (if engaged) . . . . . . . . . . .Disengage

II. If the engine fire switch or ENG OVERHEAT light is illuminated: Engine fire switch .......rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second.

III. Engine fire switch (affected engine) . . . . . . Confirm . . . . . . . . Pull

IV. Thrust lever (affected engine).......Confirm..........Close

V. Engine start lever (affected engine).......Confirm..........Cutoff

VI. If after 30 seconds, If the engine fire switch or ENG OVERHEAT light stays illuminated: Engine fire switch .......rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second.

Which one of the following indications may be unreliable during "Airspeed Unreliable"?

When will all emergency lights illuminate automatically? (Emergency Exit Lights Switch-Armed)

Passenger Cabin Signs in AUTO position FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs; automatically illuminate when;

Speeds which exceed current flap placard or gear placard speed can be selected from MCP.

Which one of the followings can NOT communicate on "Service Interphone System"?

COCKPIT VOICE RECORDER AUTO mode operates automatically from …….. engine start until …… minutes after last engine shutdown.

Choose the WRONG statement (Engines shut down).

Choose the WRONG statement for "STANDBY POWER Switch in OFF" position.

REVERSER Light on Engine Panel does not illuminate for...........

In flight; if the APU is only source of electrical power, how will automatic load shedding react?

What does FAULT light mean on OVERHEAT/FIRE Protection Panel ?

The Speed Trim Failure (SPEED TRIM FAIL) Light indicates failure of a single FCC channel when MASTER CAUTION light recall is activated and light extinguishes when the system is reset.

The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM Light illuminates during landing that wheel speed has dropped below .......... kts, and the speedbrake lever is not in the DOWN position.

The trim authority for autopilot trim is .......... units.

What is the reason for "aileron trim should not be applied when autopilot is engaged"?

Bottom of the Maximum Operating Speed (red and black) bar indicates the maximum speed as limited by the lowest of the following. (Choose the WRONG statement)

Related to Radio Altitude, which one is CORRECT?

If the latitude/longitude position is not within 4 NM of the origin airport, the CDU scratchpad message ..................... is displayed.

Which of the following condition does NOT result with the FMC transitions out of “on approach”?

For RVSM operations what is the maximum in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude display ?

What is the severe turbulence air penetration speed at descent?

What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component for dry and runway more than 2500m?

What is the placard speed for landing gear EXTENDED operation?

Flight crew cycling (pulling and resetting) of a circuit breaker to clear a non-normal condition is NOT recommended, unless directed by a non-normal checklist.

Troubleshooting (taking steps beyond published non-normal checklist steps) are strongly recommended by Boeing.

Troubleshooting should only be considered when completion of published NNC results in an unacceptable situation.

For a severe fire, smoke or fumes situation, which actions are CORRECT?

1-Pilots can land overweight

2-Pilots can land in an out of limit tailwind

3-Pilot can land on an off airport

4-ditching

Write the CORRECT order to do for a non-normal situation:

1-Analyze the situation

2-Maintain aircraft control

3-Recognize and announce the non-normal situation

4-Call and complete NNC

5-Evaluate the need to land

6-Review all OTHER alerts and do other NNCs as needed

What is the exception about changing gear or flap configuration, in Approach to Stall or Stall Recovery during liftoff?

Which one is WRONG for a TCAS climb resolution advisory (RA) maneuvers in landing configuration?

Use flight director commands when performing GPWS Warning maneuver.

The Predictive windshear warning aural alert during takeoff roll is "WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD".

(Flaps 40) Flap load relief operation: • retracts to 30 if airspeed exceeds ...... knots, • re–extends to 40 when airspeed is reduced below ........ knots.

LNAV provides steering commands to the next waypoint. If selected, LNAV engages when laterally within .......nautical miles of the active route leg. If outside of ....nautical miles of the active route leg, LNAV engages if on an intercept heading of .....degrees or less

In LNAV, the AFDS tracks the holding pattern using up to ...... degrees bank angle

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below ....... feet AFE.

For TCAS symbols on ND; the arrow indicates traffic climbing or descending at a rate >= ....... fpm.

Hydraulic system normal pressure is ...... psi.

If hydraulic system ..... pressure is low or system ..... fails, System ......automatically supplies pressure to the alternate brake system.

Normal brake system is powered by hydraulic system .....and Alternate brake system is powered by hydraulic system .......

The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is off or IRS not aligned, or in flight below ........ feet RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued below ....... feet RA)

Above which altitude it is NOT recommended to use wing-anti ice due to possible pressurization problem? FL ......

If a generator is lost during a F/D TO or GA, or while in dual F/D APP mode below ........ feet, the FCC on the unaffected side positions the F/D command bars on both attitude indicators.

If the remote electronics unit or ACP malfunctions, the ACP cannot control the remote electronics unit. Audio system operation can be switched to a degraded mode by placing the ALT NORM switch to ALT. Write the "RADIO AVAILABLE FOR TRANSMISSION AND RECEPTION" for captain, first officer and observer stations: I. Captain - ............ II. F/O - .............. III. Observer - .............

When does "TR UNIT" amber caution light on AC and DC Metering Panel illuminate? ........................... any TR has failed ........................... TR1 failed; or TR2 and TR3 failed

Blinking of Crew Alerts on Upper DU (Start Valve Open/Low Oil Pressure/Oil Filter Bypass) is inhibited during landing below ........ feet RA until ......... seconds after touchdown.

(Engine Start) During battery start with no power on the airplane, the EEC is NOT powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than ......... % N2

Which fire extinguishing system does NOT have flight deck indication of extinguisher discharge? ......................

What is the course of action if predictive windshear warning occurs during takeoff roll (WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD aural)?

• before V1, ............................ • after V1, ..........................................

Write missing RTO maneuver items:

•Call stop • Simultaneously ...........................and ................. • Apply maximum manual wheel brakes or verify operation of RTO autobrake. If RTO autobrake is selected, monitor system performance and apply manual wheel brakes if the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates or deceleration is not adequate •............................... • Apply REVERSE THRUST up to the maximum amount consistent with conditions • Continue maximum braking until certain the airplane can stop on the runway

Before 80 knots, reject the takeoff for any of the following:

• .................................... • system failure(s) •...................................... • tire failure •..................................... • fire or fire warning • predictive windshear warning • if a side window opens • if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly.

Write "LANDING CONFIGURATION" memory items:

Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) Alert Displayed (amber); • main tanks differ by more than ........ kgs • displayed below main tank with lower fuel quantity • displayed until imbalance is reduced to ...... kgs

What are the fuel tank capacities? Center Tank: ........... kgs. Each Main Tank: .......... kgs.

Which condition arms the amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light?

If a leak develops in the Hydraulic System A engine–driven pump or its related lines; how much fluid is displayed at the quantity indicator?

If a leak develops in the Hydraulic System A electric motor–driven pump or its related lines; how much fluid is displayed on the quantity indicator?

Rapid fueling and defueling is accomplished at the ........................ Pressure fueling station in the ....... wing.

The manual De-fueling valve is located:

Antiskid protection is NOT provided on alternate brake system.

What is the graphical representation of surrounding terrain more than 2.000 feet above airplane's current altitude ?

When does the PSEU light illuminate?

What is the aural alert for reversal maneuver from initial descend RA?

Choose the WRONG statement about Windshear Warning?

Landing Altitude Indication (amber); the crosshatched area indicates the FMC landing altitude for the destination runway or airport, or the landing altitude for departure runway or airport until .......... NM from departure or ......... the distance to destination, whichever occurs first.

Choose the WRONG statement when the BATTERY (BAT) Switch is in OFF position.

During ground starts, which one of the followings is NOT monitored by EEC?

How is the EEC affected by a single DEU (Display Electronic Unit) failure?

The Flap Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) provides a TE flap load relief function which protects the flaps from excessive air loads.

Choose the CORRECT statement for the given condition; "an airplane looses Hydraulic System A without engine failure at liftoff and landing gear lever is selected to UP position (engines are operating normally)?

One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What may be the result ?

Operating on standby electrical power, ......

What is the MCP speed condition symbol for underspeed?

Which one of the following may cause autopilot A to disengage in case of heavy demand?

Choose the WRONG statement about communication system/degraded audio system operation.

Ground Service switch provides ground power directly to the AC ground service busses. These busses do NOT power.........

Standby Power Off (STANDBY PWR OFF) Light does NOT illuminate for one of the following busses?

EEC provides, …………….. in both normal and alternate modes.

*****Which of the followings is NOT provided by the EEC in BOTH Normal and Alternate modes?

When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately …………….., spoiler deflection is initiated.

The YAW DAMPER Switch automatically moves to OFF, the amber YAW DAMPER light illuminates and the YAW DAMPER switch cannot be reset to ON when any of the following conditions occur. (Choose the WRONG statement)

The First Officer’s control wheel is connected by cables to the spoiler Power Control Units (PCUs) through the spoiler mixer. If the aileron control system is jammed, force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers.

The air data modules convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs. Each pitot air data module is connected to all pitot probes; Cross connection is available. If one side fails, other side provides information.

Which of the followings are NOT PFD Failure Flags?

The CDU message INSUFFICIENT FUEL is displayed if predicted fuel at destination will be ....... kg or less.

Regarding FMC operation; when does the approach phase begin?

What is the maximum crosswind component for WET runway (width 45 m or greater)?

The use of reduced thrust based on the assumed temperature method is allowed on contaminated / slippery runways.

What is the maximum alowable headwind component limit when conducting a dual channel CAT III landing?

What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed only?

If a smoke, fire or fumes situation becomes uncontrollable, the flight crew should consider ____.

Do not follow a DESCEND (fly down) RA issued below ........... feet AGL.

Which one of the following is the Predictive Windshear warning alert during approach?

Flight crew are expected to do non-normal maneuvers from memory.

To prevent excessive structural loads from increased Mach at higher altitude, flap extension above .......... feet should NOT be attempted.

The reduced climb setting gradually increases to full rated climb thrust by .......... feet

Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits with Flaps DOWN are ........... g to ........... g.

On Navigation Display White Dashed runway centerlines extend ............ NM.

What are the conditions for Landing Gear Transfer Unit operation?

1. ..............
2. ............. drops below a limit value.
3. LANDING GEAR lever is positioned .............. 4.Either main landing is NOT ................

The GPWS provides the aural alert BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE when roll angle exceeds ...... degrees , ....... degrees , .............. degrees above 130 ft AGL.

During takeoff and landing, new predictive windshear caution alerts are inhibited between ......... knots and ....... feet RA, and new warning alerts between ...... knots and ....... RA.

Right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates when there is an overheat condition caused by bleed air leak from;

1. ................
2. Right inboard Wing Leading Edge
3. ....................

The WING ANTI–ICE switch automatically trips OFF at ............ when the air/ground sensor goes to the .............. mode.

During a reduced thrust takeoff, a second press of the TO/GA switch above ........... feet above field elevation, thrust levers advance toward full GA thrust.

For a dual A/P approach, the second VHF NAV receiver must be tuned to the ILS frequency and the corresponding A/P engaged in CMD prior to .......... ft

External jacks for use by maintenance can be added to the system by use of the .............................. switch.

It is not possible to power one transfer bus with ............... power and one transfer bus with ................ power. In flight, each ........... normally powers its own transfer bus.

The EEC automatically controls idle operation. These idle operations are;

1. .............. idle
2. flight minimum idle
3. ............... idle

A wet start occurs if the EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE. If a wet start is detected, the EEC turns off the ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine ........ seconds after lever is moved to IDLE.

Write the missing affected systems when the Engine Fire Switch is pulled UP:

Closes both the ............ valve and the .................. valve. Closes the engine bleed air valve resulting in loss of wing anti-ice to the affected wing and closure of bleed air operated pack valve

Trips the ..............................

Closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve. The engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light is deactivated

Disables ..................... for the related engine.

Checklist titles in upper case (such as AUTOBRAKE DISARM) are ...................... by a light, alert, or other indication. Checklist titles in upper and lower case (such as Window Damage) are ....................

A sensor in main tank No. ........ allows monitoring of fuel temperature. The temperature indicating system uses ......... electrical power.

The Nitrogen Generation System (NGS) converts bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air (NEA) during all phases of flight. The NEA is delivered to the ................ tank to reduce flammability of the tank.

Which hydraulic system pressure is used to power the hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid for Power Transfer Unit operation?

Which components are powered by standby hydraulic system?

When does "OVERHEAT" light on Hydraulic panel illuminate?

If hydraulic system B pressure is low or system B fails, System A automatically supplies pressure to the alternate brake system.

Landing gear warning cutout switch silences aural indication at flaps UP through 10 and above 200 feet RA.

Choose the CORRECT order for alert prioritization.

I. TCAS

II. GPWS

III. ACTUAL WINDSHEAR

Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicates brake accumulator pressure: • normal pressure ............ psi • maximum pressure ........... psi • normal precharge ............ psi

Inflight one bleed source can supply necessary bleed air to both pack simultaneously.

With the radio altimeter of the relevant side inoperative, the Autopilot (A/P) will disengage ...... seconds after LOC and GS capture.

Antiskid protection is NOT provided on alternate brake system.

The wingtip swings the largest arc while turning and determines the minimum obstruction clearance path. Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within ________________ of the wing tip or within ____________ of the nose.

The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground and in flight.

In Air Systems, Isolation valve position is affected by the APU bleed air switch position.

Which one of the following(s) are electrically heated?

I. Pitot probes

II. TAT Probe

III. Alpha vanes

IV. Static Ports

What will be the FMA Autothrottle (A/T) modes in sequence when a normal TO is excecuted with A/T armed?

....... until TO/GA switch pushed, ....... after TO/GA switch pushed to 84 knots, ........ 84 knots to 800 feet above field elevation.

During a reduced thrust takeoff, a second press of the TO/GA switch below .......... feet above field elevation will change the thrust limit mode to GA and N1 reference bugs to increase to .......... thrust, thrust levers will not be in motion.

Choose the WRONG statement for DC Power system.

Standby Power Off (STANDBY PWR OFF) Light does NOT illuminate for one of the following busses?

Choose the WRONG statement about Engine system.

The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with a ........ gross weight, ................ center of gravity and ................ thrust when the autopilot is not engaged.

What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing altitude?

Flight crew cycling (pulling and resetting) of a circuit breaker to clear a non-normal condition is NOT recommended, unless directed by a non-normal checklist.

When a checklist challenge does NOT end with "switch or lever", then the challenge refers to system status. Example "Landing gear ... Down", refers to the status of of landing gear, not just the position of lever.

On the ground, flight crew reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be done once with the Captain's discretion.

Braking action less than medium, neither ............... nor ................... shall be performed.

Autobrake RTO (on ground)– automatically applies maximum brake pressure when thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above .......... knots.

GPWS provides Windshear Warning alerts below ........ ft.

Predictive windshear alerts are available approximately ......... seconds after the weather radar begins scanning for windshear.

How many zone temperature controller(s) installed for aft cabin section?

Pushing COCKPIT VOICE RECORDER "ERASE" switch for ........ seconds will erase all four channels and operative only when airplane is ............... and the ............. is set.

What are the conditions for "DRIVE" light to illuminate? • ............ failure, or • ...................... , or • IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature, or • IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch.

In case of a related system failure; ENGINE CONTROL light will iluminate when engine is operating and, airplane on ground and below ........... kts prior to takeoff or approximately ............ seconds after touchdown.

After an engine failure, ENGINE FAIL Alert remains until: • .................. ; or • start lever moved to CUTOFF; or • ....................... pulled.

Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by ........... bus and ............... bus.

Fuel Configuration (CONFIG) Alert Displayed (amber); • either engine running • center fuel tank quantity greater than ............. kgs • both center fuel tank pump switches positioned ...............

Which one of the following conditions is NOT neded for Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU) automatic operation?

Which fuel valve(s) may be closed by pulling an engine fire switch ?

What is the meaning of "TOO LOW FLAPS" aural alert?

……………… page displays the REF NAV DATA page to display information about waypoints, navaids, airports, and runways. On the ground, displays the SUPP NAV DATA page if SUPP is entered in the scratchpad prior to selection.

(RDR-4000 WX Radar System) The nominal flight path weather envelope is ±........ feet with respect to the expected flight path.

In Air Systems; what will happen if all Temperature Selectors are positioned to OFF?

******If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, the PACK, MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lights illuminate. What is the pack operating criteria?

Static Ports are heated.

Which component of aircraft may provide command airspeeds for Autothrottle (A/T) and Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)?

Choose the WRONG statement for DC Power system.

*******During a normal reverse sequence; what does the illuminated REVERSER (amber) light indicate?

Choose the correct statement for EEC in soft Alternate mode.

The First Officer’s control wheel is connected by cables to the spoiler Power Control Units (PCUs) through the spoiler mixer. If the aileron control system is jammed, force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers.

Which control surface is NOT monitored by Flight Control LOW PRESSURE Lights on the Overhead Panel?

The air data modules convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs. Each pitot air data module is connected to all pitot probes; Cross connection is available. If one side fails, other side provides information.

Turn construction is based upon FMC criteria which assumes that LNAV is engaged. Which one of the followings is NOT one of the reason that LNAV turn may OVERSHOOT or route discontinuity may appear?

What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component for dry and runway more than 2500m?

Do not use the look ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions; within _______ of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.

Write missing types of Airplane Operation?

1. ........................
2. .......................
3. Visual flight (VFR)
4. ......................
5. Reduced Vertical Separation (RVSM) Operation
6. Icing conditions
7. Automatic Coupled Approach or Automatic Landing at Cat II Weather Minima (dual channel only)
8. Automatic Coupled Approach or Automatic Landing at Cat IIIA Weather Minima (dual channel only)
9. Night Flight

AOA Disagree Alert (amber) Indicates the Captain’s (left) and First Officer’s (right) angle of attack values disagree by more than ......... degrees; for more than .......... continuous seconds.

Pushing full rudder pedal turns nose wheel up to ........ degrees and Nose Wheel Steering Wheel turns nose wheel up to ......... degrees; in either direction.

Predictive windshear alerts are available approximately ........ seconds after the weather radar begins scanning for windshear.

(Pressurization manual mode operation) Outflow valve is powered by ........ electric system.

How many electric generators are required for Dual channel A/P operation ? ........

What is the LNAV arm criteria on the ground?

1. ...........in flight plan
2. ......... entered in FMC
3. track of first leg within ...... degrees of runway heading
4. both flight director switches have been switched on

Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) Start Limit Redlines are Displayed (red); • until the engine achieves stabilized idle(approximately ....... % N2). • for ground starts and some in-flight starts as determined by the ......... (system).

APU EGT indicator remains powered for ........ minutes after shutdown.

There are some situations where the flight crew must land at the nearest suitable airport. These situations include, but are not limited to, conditions where:

• the non-normal checklist includes the item .........

• only one hydraulic system remains (the standby system is considered a hydraulic system) • any other situation determined by the flight crew to have a significant adverse effect on safety if the flight is continued • ....................... continues • only one ........... remains

During "Aborted Engine Start" checklist; if Engine Start switch is in GND, motoring the engine for 60 seconds starts at ................

The following indications are reliable for "Airspeed Unreliable":

1. ...............
2. N1
3. ..............
4. ..............

If a leak occurs in the Hydraulic Standby System, how much fluid remains in the system B reservoir?

A fuel scavenge jet pump is located in the center fuel tank. What condition(s) must exist before this pump will operate ?

Passenger oxygen system automatically deploys when cabin altitude exceeds .......... feet and supply oxygen for approximately ....... minutes.

Which component of aircraft provides N1 limits and target N1 for the Autothrottle (A/T)?

What is the MCP speed condition symbol for overspeed ?

Which indication is NOT dependent on the EEC?

Compression of ............... landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers to deploy. Compression of the ................ main landing gear strut enables the ground spoilers to deploy.

The trim authority for manual trim is ...............units.

Below 2000 feet radio altitude, the FMC transitions to go-around logic from approach logic when any of the following events occur. (Choose the WRONG statement)

Which one of the followings is NOT one of the mode that the FMC calculates a reference thrust?

The use of reduced thrust based on the assumed temperature method is allowed on contaminated / slippery runways.

In case of an automatic display of secondary engine parameters due to engine oil quantity, correct action is to ....

uring takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective between ........ and ....... knots

The components of Flight Management System are: • flight management computer system (FMCS) • ........... • autothrottle (A/T) • .......... • .........

Holding in icing conditions with flaps ............ is prohibited.

GPWS provides Windshear Warning alerts below ............ ft.

Autothrottle Disengage Light illuminates AMBER (flashing): inflight, flaps ................... , and airspeed differs from commanded value by ..................... knots and is not approaching commanded value.

The thrust reversers can be deployed when either radio altimeter senses less than ........ feet altitude or the air/ground safety sensor is in the ........... mode.

In flight resetting of a tripped circuit breaker procedure is ..................... unless directed by a non-normal checklist. However a tripped circuit breaker maybe reset ............. , after a short cooling period (approximately ....... minutes), if in the judgement of the captain, the situation resulting from the circuit breaker trip has a significant adverse effect on safety.

Choose the WRONG statement for Hydraulic System?

When are the NEW predictive windshear caution alerts inhibited during takeoff and landing?

When Approaching to STALL, complete the recovery:

• Check airspeed and adjust thrust as needed • ........................... • .................................. • ...........................................

The EFS module increases hydraulic system ........... pressure to the elevator feel and centering unit during a stall. This approximately ............ control column forces.

What is the effect of using either pair of Stabilizer Trim Switches (spring-loaded to neutral) while autopilot engaged?

What is the maximum depth contamination limitations on WET or Contaminated Runways for Dry snow?

fault in the parking brake system may cause the .................... light to illuminate.

The electrical standby power system consists of:

• static inverter • AC standby bus

• DC standby bus

• battery bus • hot battery bus • ............................. • main battery • .............................

What conditions cause ENGINE FAIL alert to display? • engine operating below sustainable idle (less than
.......... % N2); and • engine start lever in .............

As flight parameter indications of windshear, unacceptable flight path deviations are recognized as uncontrolled changes from normal steady state flight conditions below 1000 feet AGL, in excess of any of the following:

• .......... knots indicated airspeed • 500 fpm vertical speed • ......... ° pitch attitude • ................ displacement from the glideslope • unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time.

Fuel LOW Alert Displayed (amber); • fuel tank quantity less than ............... kgs in related main tank • display remains until fuel tank quantity is increased to ................kgs.

Choose the CORRECT statement for the given condition; "an airplane looses Hydraulic System A without engine failure at liftoff and landing gear lever is selected to UP position (engines are operating normally)?

REFILL indication may illuminate when hydraulic quantity is less than _____ % and when airplane is ________ with both engines _________ or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

Are the fuel quantity indicators operative when the main battery and the auxiliary battery are the only source of electrical power?

"SPEED" deviation callout (during takeoff) shall be done when speed is .............

With the A/T Arm switch at ARM, the A/T go–around mode is armed: • when descending below ........ feet RA, • when above ......... feet RA with flaps ............ or .............. captured • with or without the AFDS engaged.