Upgrade 1
314 Questions
38 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Due to a malfunction the crew decided to return to the airport of departure; to avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning PIC requested to reset the FLT ALT. Which feature of the system would be affected?

  • The system will recalculate pressurization for the departure airport
  • The pressurization will increase ventilation and will be lost possibly
  • The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost (correct)
  • Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning.

    • There is NO reversion from vertical speed modes (VNAV or MCP) to level change mode when MIN speed is reached and the flaps are greater than 12.5.

  • FALSE
  • TRUE (correct)

    • In which case the Cross Bus Tie Relay does NOT automatically open?

  • glide slope capture during a flight director ILS approach
  • glide slope capture during an autopilot ILS approach
  • localizer capture during a flight director or autopilot ILS approach (correct)
  • bus transfer switch positioned to OFF

    • If the SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN position during landing or rejected takeoff, the auto speed brake system operates when these conditions occur (Choose the WRONG statement):

    <p>autobrakes activated in RTO mode</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Standby Attitude indicator is powered by the .......... bus and remains powered after the loss of all normal AC power as long as ........... power is available.

    <p>battery / battery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches stop operation of the main electric and autopilot trim when the control column movement opposes trim direction. When the STAB TRIM override switch is positioned to OVERRIDE, .................. trim can be used regardless of control column position.

    <p>main electric</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Engaging an Autopilot (A/P) in CMD while executing Go Around above 400 feet, engages the A/P and F/D in .......... for pitch mode.

    <p>TO/GA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The APU start cycle may take as long as ....... seconds.

    <p>120</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Placing the master lights switch in the TEST position will result in a master caution recall and any stored fault will cause the associated light to remain illuminated when the switch is released.

    <p>TRUE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE/Smokehood) devices for crew use are stowed throughout the airplane. The PBE is placed over the head, and when activated, provides appoximately _____ to over ______ minutes of oxygen depending upon the device used.

    <p>15 - 20</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicate?

    <p>All choices are correct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The APU bleed air valve permits APU bleed air to flow to the bleed air duct. The valve closes automatically when the APU is shut down. How is the APU bleed air valve operated?

    <p>DC controlled and pressure operated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the probe heat system powered automatically? (consider Probe Heat Swithches in AUTO position)

    <p>When either engine is running.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to normal when engine anti-ice is positioned OFF if wing anti-ice has NOT been used in flight.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When G/S captured, which mode is A/T engaged automaticaly?

    <p>MCP SPD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Select the CORRECT statement about Auto Flight System (AFS).

    <p>All choices are correct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Select the CORRECT statement about flight director display.

    <p>All choices are correct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT statement when an Autopilot (A/P) is engaged in CMD after Take Off;

    <p>All choices are correct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does the MCP IAS/MACH display blank?

    <p>All choices are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT statement for Audio Systems and Audio Control Panels (ACP).

    <p>All choices are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of BOTH position of ACP filter switch?

    <p>all answers are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    APU Generator can meet electrical power requirements for all ground conditions and most flight conditions.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    IDGs supply....

    <p>3 phase, 115 volts, 400 Hz alternating current</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement about electrical system.

    <p>The static inverter converts 115V AC power from the transfer bus to 24V DC power to supply the DC standby bus during the loss of normal electrical power.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values, what will be shown in TMD ?

    <p>A/T LIM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which warnings or lights on the aft overhead panel will cause to illuminate the Master Caution warning and ENG annunciator?

    <p>All choices are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During ground starts EEC monitors engine parameters. Which of followings are detected by the EEC?

    <p>All choices are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0º to 1100º C prior to normal EGT rise and, which light may cycle on and off several times?

    <p>LOW OIL PRESSURE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT option for approach idle selection.

    (I) In flight flaps are in landing configuration

    (II) On the ground flaps are landing configuration

    (III) In flight ENGINE ANTI ICE is ON for either engine

    (IV) On the ground ENGINE ANTI ICE is ON

    <p>I or III</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement for engine fire system.

    <p>Normally, one detector loop must sense a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine overheat or fire alert.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the features that Yaw Damper provides?

    <p>all choices are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY Light-Illuminated (amber) - indicates low quantity in standby hydraulic reservoir and ............. armed. STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW PRESSURE Light-Illuminated (amber) - indicates output pressure of standby pump is low and and armed only ............... or automatic standby function is activated.

    <p>always / when selected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The EFS module is armed whenever an inhibit condition is not present. Which one of the following is NOT an inhibit condition?

    <p>above 25.000 ft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Captain’s control wheel is connected by cables to the aileron Power Control Units (PCUs) through the aileron feel and centering unit. If the spoiler system is jammed, force applied to the Captain’s control wheel provides roll control from the ailerons.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tip of green speed trend vector arrow indicates predicted airspeed in the next ....... seconds based on the current airspeed and acceleration.

    <p>10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The VNAV descent path starts at the calculated top of descent (T/D) point and includes waypoint altitude restrictions. The path is based on........... (Choose the WRONG statement)

    <p>autopilot selection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Regarding FMC operation; which of these match correctly?

    <p>RTE LEGS page – to modify the route and monitor route progress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The required actions to perform the driftdown after selecting the left or right ENG OUT mode:

    • disengage A/T

    • set max cont. thrust on operating engine (N1 line)

    • set MCP speed to ENG OUT SPD

    • set MCP altitude to MAX ALT or lower

    • select LVL CHG

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the severe turbulence air penetration speed at climb?

    <p>280 kias/.76M whichever is lower</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum widht for straight section of taxiway?

    <p>15 m</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the max alt for APU bleed + electirical load?

    <p>10.000 ft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the One Engine Inoperative maximum crosswind components for WET runway (width 45 m or greater whenever reverse thrust is used)?

    <p>20 knots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum allowable crosswind limit for CAT II landing?

    <p>10 kt</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does the pilot flying call for the non-normal checklist?

    <p>all choices are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If an amber caution light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall but extinguishes after MASTER CAUTION reset, completion of the associated checklist is required.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is CORRECT about engine shutdown in flight?

    <p>Checklists directing an engine shutdown must be evaluated by the captain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who performs the memory items?

    <p>According to area of responsibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If an amber caution light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall but extinguishes after MASTER CAUTION reset, completion of the associated checklist is required.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT choice for QRH NNC reading.

    <p>PF must acknowledge that information was heard and understood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For a climb RA in landing configuration, follow the planned lateral flight path unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition may the approach be continued after a TERRAIN GPWS Caution occurs?

    <p>when flying under daylight VMC, and positive visual verification is made that no obstacle or terrain hazard exists, the alert may be regarded as cautionary.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Do not follow a DESCEND (fly down) RA issued below ........... feet AGL.

    <p>1000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Predictive windshear warning aural alert during takeoff roll is "WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD".

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the folowing is NOT a memory item for "Loss of Thrust On Both Engines" checklist?

    <p>Autothrottle (if engaged)........Disengage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED Light-Illuminated (amber) – in–flight:

    • SPEED BRAKE lever is beyond the ARMED position, and • TE flaps extended MORE than (not including) flaps ...... , or radio altitude less than ........ feet

    <p>10, 800</p> Signup and view all the answers

    DRAG REQUIRED CDU Message is shown when Airspeed is ....... kts or more above FMC target speed or within 5 kts of Vmo/Mmo.

    <p>10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    With assumed temperature method; the authorized maximum thrust reduction is ...... percent below any certified rating.

    <p>25</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Do not deploy the speedbrakes in flight at radio altitudes less than ....... feet.

    <p>1000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Takeoff with light coatings of frost up to ...... mm in thickness on ............ due to cold fuel, is permissable, however, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces, tab surfaces, upper wing surfaces and balance panel cavities must be free of snow or ice.

    <p>3 , lower surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After takeoff, when flaps are NOT up, the bottom of the Maximum Maneuver Speed amber bar indicates the placard speed for the...............

    <p>next flap</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An engine fire occured during take-off roll. Which of the following condition is NOT a requirement to discharge the second fire bottle by memory?

    <p>Engine Fire Checklist has totally completed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During takeoff at rotation, which one of the following new alert can be heard in the cockpit?

    <p>WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement about Predictive Windshear alerts?

    <p>Actual windshear warnings are inhibited by a predictive windshear warning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement about Windshear Warning?

    <p>GPWS windshear detection begins at 50feet RA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following equipments do NOT illuminate red Master Fire Warning (FIRE WARN) lights in case of fire?

    <p>Lavatory</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following does NOT activate takeoff configuration warning when both thrust levers are advanced for takeoff?

    <p>Leading edge devices are configured for takeoff</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which condition(s) does the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminate?

    <p>All choices are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the landing gear lever in the OFF position.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does not disarm the autobrake during rollout?

    <p>Stowing the thrust reversers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    With the Center (CTR) tank FUEL PUMP switches ON, continuous illumination of one LOW PRESSURE light for 10 seconds illuminates MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG non-normal flight condition for The Nitrogen Generator System (NGS) automatically shuts down.

    <p>Trailing edge flaps disagree</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is supplied by hydraulic system B?

    <p>Normal brakes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum pressure for hydraulic systems?

    <p>3500 psi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hydraulic system pressure is used to power the hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid for Power Transfer Unit operation?

    <p>A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which unit is connected through a standpipe to the standby hydraulic reservoir?

    <p>System B reservoir</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Expanded Localizer Scale is displayed when; The autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode, Deviation is slightly more than ...........dot and track is within degrees of .........the MCP selected course, A rectangle equals ½ dot deviation.

    <p>1/2, 5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    System A and B reservoirs are pressurized by .................

    <p>bleed air</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The brake accumulator is pressurized by hydraulic system .....

    <p>B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the landing gear lever in the .......

    <p>OFF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Acquisition alerting occurs ...... feet before reaching the selected altitude, a white box shows around the selected altitude display and the box around the current altitude becomes bold. A momentary tone sounds. At ........ feet from selected altitude, the selected altitude box no longer shows

    <p>900 , 300</p> Signup and view all the answers

    INCREASE DESCENT RAs are inhibited below approximately ...... feet radio altitude

    <p>1500</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates when there is an overheat condition caused by bleed air leak from; Bleed air duct leak in left engine strut ............................ Left-Hand Air Conditioning Bay ................................. Bleed Duct From APU

    <p>left inboard wing leading edge , keel beam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative? ........ knots below ........ ft

    <p>250 , 10000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct order for Autopilot Flight Director Systems (AFDSs) pitch attitude commands when in TO/GA Take Off mode? ........... degrees nose down until 60 knots IAS, ........... degrees nose up after 60 knots IAS, pitch is commanded to maintain MCP + ....... kts

    <p>10 , 15 , 20</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The VHF ...... antenna is located on the lower fuselage, VHF ..... is on the upper fuselage (Comm System/VHF antennas).

    <p>2 , 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    28 volt DC power is supplied by three ............ , which are energized from the ................ busses.

    <p>Transformer Rectifiers Unit , AC transfer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If N2 is below idle and the start lever is in idle (IN FLIGHT); which igniters are energized when the engine start switch is placed in the CONT position? .................

    <p>both</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The cargo fire DISCH light illuminates when a bottle is discharged indicating the fire suppression system has been fully activated. It may take up to ......... seconds for the light to illuminate.

    <p>30</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which position of the oxygen regulator is used for the associated case?

    1-When needed to supply positive pressure to remove contaminants ............

    2-When positive pressure is not needed but contamination of the flight deck air exist ............

    3-When prolonged use is needed and the situation allows ............

    <p>emergency , 100% , normal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the course of action when PREDICTIVE windshear warning occurs during approach?

    • perform the ........................... or, • at pilot’s discretion, perform .....................

    <p>windshear escape maneuver , a normal go-around</p> Signup and view all the answers

    APU start attempts are not recommended above ............. feet for loss of both engine driven generators.

    <p>25000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write "APU FIRE" memory items:

    1. ............................................., rotate to the stop and hold for .................

    2. .......................

    <p>APU fire switch-CONFIRM-Pull , one second , APU Switch-OFF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write "ENGINE OVERHEAT" memory items:

    1. Autothrottle (if engaged).....Disengage
    2. ................. (affected engine)-Confirm- ..........
    3. If the ENGINE OVERHEAT light stays illuminated
    4. ..................................

    <p>Thrust lever , close , Go to Engine FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Seperation checklist</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write "Loss Of Thrust On Both Engines" memory items:

    1. ..............................................
    2. .............................................
    3. When EGT decreases: Engine start levers (both) . . . . . . ...................
    4. If EGT reaches a redline or there is no increase in EGT within 30 seconds ................................... (affected engine)-Confirm- ......................... If EGT again reaches a redline or there is no increase in EGT within 30 seconds, repeat as needed.

    <p>Engine start switches (both)-FLT , Engine start levers (both)-CUTOFF , IDLE detent , Engine start lever , CUTOFF, then IDLE detent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    With the main tank fuel pump No. 1 FWD Switch ON, the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operates automatically to transfer any remaining center tank fuel to main tank number .............. fuel tank.

    <p>1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Both engines are normally pressure fed from the center tank until the center tank quantity decreases to near zero. The engines are normally then pressure fed from ......................

    <p>respective main tanks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    "SPEED" deviation callout (during climb, cruise and descent) shall be done for speed deviations of ......... knots.

    <p>+10/-10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two conditions for ELEC light to illuminate? A fault exists in; ........ power system or .........power system.

    <p>DC , standby</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When stopping is assured during RTO maneuver:

    • Start movement of the REVERSE THRUST LEVERS to reach the ............ before ............... After the engines are at reverse idle, move the REVERSE THRUST LEVERS to ............ position.

    <p>idle detent , taxi speed , stowed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The APP mode permits selecting the second A/P to engage in CMD. This arms the second A/P for automatic engagement after LOC and G/S capture and when descent ................. occurs.

    <p>below 1500 feet RA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT memory items in CORRECT order for ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation Checklist.

    I. Autothrottle (if engaged) . . . . . . . . . . .Disengage

    II. If the engine fire switch or ENG OVERHEAT light is illuminated: Engine fire switch .......rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second.

    III. Engine fire switch (affected engine) . . . . . . Confirm . . . . . . . . Pull

    IV. Thrust lever (affected engine).......Confirm..........Close

    V. Engine start lever (affected engine).......Confirm..........Cutoff

    VI. If after 30 seconds, If the engine fire switch or ENG OVERHEAT light stays illuminated: Engine fire switch .......rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second.

    <p>I , IV , V, III , II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following indications may be unreliable during "Airspeed Unreliable"?

    <p>FPV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When will all emergency lights illuminate automatically? (Emergency Exit Lights Switch-Armed)

    <p>DC Bus No - 1 fals or AC power is turned off</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Passenger Cabin Signs in AUTO position FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs; automatically illuminate when;

    <p>Flaps of gear are extended</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Speeds which exceed current flap placard or gear placard speed can be selected from MCP.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the followings can NOT communicate on "Service Interphone System"?

    <p>Tower</p> Signup and view all the answers

    COCKPIT VOICE RECORDER AUTO mode operates automatically from …….. engine start until …… minutes after last engine shutdown.

    <p>first/5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement (Engines shut down).

    <p>It is possible to power one transfer bus with external power and one transfer bus with APU power.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement for "STANDBY POWER Switch in OFF" position.

    <p>STANDBY PWR OFF light does not illuminate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    REVERSER Light on Engine Panel does not illuminate for...........

    <p>Isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is in commanded position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In flight; if the APU is only source of electrical power, how will automatic load shedding react?

    <p>All galley busses and main busses are automatically shed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does FAULT light mean on OVERHEAT/FIRE Protection Panel ?

    <p>With the overheat detector switch in NORMAL- indicates both detector loops for an engine have failed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Speed Trim Failure (SPEED TRIM FAIL) Light indicates failure of a single FCC channel when MASTER CAUTION light recall is activated and light extinguishes when the system is reset.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM Light illuminates during landing that wheel speed has dropped below .......... kts, and the speedbrake lever is not in the DOWN position.

    <p>60</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The trim authority for autopilot trim is .......... units.

    <p>0.05 to 14.5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the reason for "aileron trim should not be applied when autopilot is engaged"?

    <p>It can result in an out of trim condition and an abrupt rolling movement when the autopilot is disengaged.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Bottom of the Maximum Operating Speed (red and black) bar indicates the maximum speed as limited by the lowest of the following. (Choose the WRONG statement)

    <p>spoiler placard speed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Related to Radio Altitude, which one is CORRECT?

    <p>Turns amber when below radio altitude minimums</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the latitude/longitude position is not within 4 NM of the origin airport, the CDU scratchpad message ..................... is displayed.

    <p>VERIFY POSITION</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following condition does NOT result with the FMC transitions out of “on approach”?

    <p>engine failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For RVSM operations what is the maximum in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude display ?

    <p>200 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the severe turbulence air penetration speed at descent?

    <p>280 kias/.76M/250 kias whichever is lower</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component for dry and runway more than 2500m?

    <p>15 knots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the placard speed for landing gear EXTENDED operation?

    <p>320 kias / 0.82 mach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flight crew cycling (pulling and resetting) of a circuit breaker to clear a non-normal condition is NOT recommended, unless directed by a non-normal checklist.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Troubleshooting (taking steps beyond published non-normal checklist steps) are strongly recommended by Boeing.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Troubleshooting should only be considered when completion of published NNC results in an unacceptable situation.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For a severe fire, smoke or fumes situation, which actions are CORRECT?

    1-Pilots can land overweight

    2-Pilots can land in an out of limit tailwind

    3-Pilot can land on an off airport

    4-ditching

    <p>1 - 2- 3- 4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write the CORRECT order to do for a non-normal situation:

    1-Analyze the situation

    2-Maintain aircraft control

    3-Recognize and announce the non-normal situation

    4-Call and complete NNC

    5-Evaluate the need to land

    6-Review all OTHER alerts and do other NNCs as needed

    <p>3-2-1-4-6-5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the exception about changing gear or flap configuration, in Approach to Stall or Stall Recovery during liftoff?

    <p>If flaps are UP, call for flaps 1.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one is WRONG for a TCAS climb resolution advisory (RA) maneuvers in landing configuration?

    <p>changing flaps and gear configuration prohibited</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Use flight director commands when performing GPWS Warning maneuver.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Predictive windshear warning aural alert during takeoff roll is "WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD".

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    (Flaps 40) Flap load relief operation: • retracts to 30 if airspeed exceeds ...... knots, • re–extends to 40 when airspeed is reduced below ........ knots.

    <p>163 , 158</p> Signup and view all the answers

    LNAV provides steering commands to the next waypoint. If selected, LNAV engages when laterally within .......nautical miles of the active route leg. If outside of ....nautical miles of the active route leg, LNAV engages if on an intercept heading of .....degrees or less

    <p>3 , 3 , 90</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In LNAV, the AFDS tracks the holding pattern using up to ...... degrees bank angle

    <p>30</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below ....... feet AFE.

    <p>1000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For TCAS symbols on ND; the arrow indicates traffic climbing or descending at a rate >= ....... fpm.

    <p>500</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hydraulic system normal pressure is ...... psi.

    <p>3000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If hydraulic system ..... pressure is low or system ..... fails, System ......automatically supplies pressure to the alternate brake system.

    <p>B , B , A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Normal brake system is powered by hydraulic system .....and Alternate brake system is powered by hydraulic system .......

    <p>B , A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is off or IRS not aligned, or in flight below ........ feet RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued below ....... feet RA)

    <p>2300 , 1200</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Above which altitude it is NOT recommended to use wing-anti ice due to possible pressurization problem? FL ......

    <p>350</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a generator is lost during a F/D TO or GA, or while in dual F/D APP mode below ........ feet, the FCC on the unaffected side positions the F/D command bars on both attitude indicators.

    <p>800</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If the remote electronics unit or ACP malfunctions, the ACP cannot control the remote electronics unit. Audio system operation can be switched to a degraded mode by placing the ALT NORM switch to ALT. Write the "RADIO AVAILABLE FOR TRANSMISSION AND RECEPTION" for captain, first officer and observer stations: I. Captain - ............ II. F/O - .............. III. Observer - .............

    <p>VHF-1 , VHF-2 , VHF-1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does "TR UNIT" amber caution light on AC and DC Metering Panel illuminate? ........................... any TR has failed ........................... TR1 failed; or TR2 and TR3 failed

    <p>on the ground , in flight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Blinking of Crew Alerts on Upper DU (Start Valve Open/Low Oil Pressure/Oil Filter Bypass) is inhibited during landing below ........ feet RA until ......... seconds after touchdown.

    <p>200 , 30</p> Signup and view all the answers

    (Engine Start) During battery start with no power on the airplane, the EEC is NOT powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than ......... % N2

    <p>15</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fire extinguishing system does NOT have flight deck indication of extinguisher discharge? ......................

    <p>Lavatory</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the course of action if predictive windshear warning occurs during takeoff roll (WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD aural)?

    • before V1, ............................ • after V1, ..........................................

    <p>reject takeoff , perform the Windshear Escape Maneuver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write missing RTO maneuver items:

    •Call stop • Simultaneously ...........................and ................. • Apply maximum manual wheel brakes or verify operation of RTO autobrake. If RTO autobrake is selected, monitor system performance and apply manual wheel brakes if the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates or deceleration is not adequate •............................... • Apply REVERSE THRUST up to the maximum amount consistent with conditions • Continue maximum braking until certain the airplane can stop on the runway

    <p>Call &quot;STOP&quot; , close THRUST LEVERS , disengage AUTO THROTTLE , Raise SPEED BRAKE lever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Before 80 knots, reject the takeoff for any of the following:

    • .................................... • system failure(s) •...................................... • tire failure •..................................... • fire or fire warning • predictive windshear warning • if a side window opens • if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly.

    <p>Engine failure , abnormal airspeed acceleration , abnormal airframe vibration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write "LANDING CONFIGURATION" memory items:

    <p>Assure correct airplane landing configuration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) Alert Displayed (amber); • main tanks differ by more than ........ kgs • displayed below main tank with lower fuel quantity • displayed until imbalance is reduced to ...... kgs

    <p>453 , 91</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the fuel tank capacities? Center Tank: ........... kgs. Each Main Tank: .......... kgs.

    <p>13066 , 3915</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition arms the amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light?

    <p>When standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a leak develops in the Hydraulic System A engine–driven pump or its related lines; how much fluid is displayed at the quantity indicator?

    <p>20</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a leak develops in the Hydraulic System A electric motor–driven pump or its related lines; how much fluid is displayed on the quantity indicator?

    <p>Zero</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Rapid fueling and defueling is accomplished at the ........................ Pressure fueling station in the ....... wing.

    <p>single point - right</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The manual De-fueling valve is located:

    <p>Outboard of the Number 2 engine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Antiskid protection is NOT provided on alternate brake system.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the graphical representation of surrounding terrain more than 2.000 feet above airplane's current altitude ?

    <p>dotted red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does the PSEU light illuminate?

    <p>An overwing exit flight lock failed to disengage whhen commanded on the ground</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the aural alert for reversal maneuver from initial descend RA?

    <p>CLIMB, CLIMB NOW</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement about Windshear Warning?

    <p>Aural alert for Windshear warning (actual) is two tone siren followed by WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD,WINDSHEAR AHEAD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Landing Altitude Indication (amber); the crosshatched area indicates the FMC landing altitude for the destination runway or airport, or the landing altitude for departure runway or airport until .......... NM from departure or ......... the distance to destination, whichever occurs first.

    <p>400 , half of</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement when the BATTERY (BAT) Switch is in OFF position.

    <p>Removes power from hot battery bus when battery is only power source.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During ground starts, which one of the followings is NOT monitored by EEC?

    <p>N2 start limit exceedances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the EEC affected by a single DEU (Display Electronic Unit) failure?

    <p>Both EECs revert to alternate mode and the ALTN lights illuminate.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Flap Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) provides a TE flap load relief function which protects the flaps from excessive air loads.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT statement for the given condition; "an airplane looses Hydraulic System A without engine failure at liftoff and landing gear lever is selected to UP position (engines are operating normally)?

    <p>Landing Gear will not be retracted</p> Signup and view all the answers

    One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What may be the result ?

    <p>Indicates a failure of either primary or standby pack control. Extinguishes when Master Caution is reset.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Operating on standby electrical power, ......

    <p>CAPT PITOT light doesn't illuminate for a failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the MCP speed condition symbol for underspeed?

    <p>A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following may cause autopilot A to disengage in case of heavy demand?

    <p>Loss of system A engine driven hydraulic pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement about communication system/degraded audio system operation.

    <p>Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS, and windshear are also heard through the speakers and headsets at preset volumes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ground Service switch provides ground power directly to the AC ground service busses. These busses do NOT power.........

    <p>Galley busses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Standby Power Off (STANDBY PWR OFF) Light does NOT illuminate for one of the following busses?

    <p>hot battery bus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    EEC provides, …………….. in both normal and alternate modes.

    <p>N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    *****Which of the followings is NOT provided by the EEC in BOTH Normal and Alternate modes?

    <p>EGT redline exceedances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately …………….., spoiler deflection is initiated.

    <p>10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The YAW DAMPER Switch automatically moves to OFF, the amber YAW DAMPER light illuminates and the YAW DAMPER switch cannot be reset to ON when any of the following conditions occur. (Choose the WRONG statement)

    <p>A FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to OFF or STBY RUD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The First Officer’s control wheel is connected by cables to the spoiler Power Control Units (PCUs) through the spoiler mixer. If the aileron control system is jammed, force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The air data modules convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs. Each pitot air data module is connected to all pitot probes; Cross connection is available. If one side fails, other side provides information.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the followings are NOT PFD Failure Flags?

    <p>TCASS OFF, WX+T, POS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The CDU message INSUFFICIENT FUEL is displayed if predicted fuel at destination will be ....... kg or less.

    <p>900</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Regarding FMC operation; when does the approach phase begin?

    <p>two miles from the first waypoint of selected approach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum crosswind component for WET runway (width 45 m or greater)?

    <p>25 knots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The use of reduced thrust based on the assumed temperature method is allowed on contaminated / slippery runways.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum alowable headwind component limit when conducting a dual channel CAT III landing?

    <p>25 kts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed only?

    <p>17000ft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a smoke, fire or fumes situation becomes uncontrollable, the flight crew should consider ____.

    <p>land immediately at the nearest suitable airport</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Do not follow a DESCEND (fly down) RA issued below ........... feet AGL.

    <p>1000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following is the Predictive Windshear warning alert during approach?

    <p>&quot;GO–AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flight crew are expected to do non-normal maneuvers from memory.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To prevent excessive structural loads from increased Mach at higher altitude, flap extension above .......... feet should NOT be attempted.

    <p>20000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The reduced climb setting gradually increases to full rated climb thrust by .......... feet

    <p>15000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits with Flaps DOWN are ........... g to ........... g.

    <p>+2.0 , 0.0</p> Signup and view all the answers

    On Navigation Display White Dashed runway centerlines extend ............ NM.

    <p>14.2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the conditions for Landing Gear Transfer Unit operation?

    1. ..............
    2. ............. drops below a limit value.
    3. LANDING GEAR lever is positioned .............. 4.Either main landing is NOT ................

    <p>Airborne , No 1 engine RPM , UP , up and locked</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The GPWS provides the aural alert BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE when roll angle exceeds ...... degrees , ....... degrees , .............. degrees above 130 ft AGL.

    <p>35 , 40 , 45</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During takeoff and landing, new predictive windshear caution alerts are inhibited between ......... knots and ....... feet RA, and new warning alerts between ...... knots and ....... RA.

    <p>80 , 400 , 100 , 50</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates when there is an overheat condition caused by bleed air leak from;

    1. ................
    2. Right inboard Wing Leading Edge
    3. ....................

    <p>Right Engine Strut , Right hand air condition bay</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The WING ANTI–ICE switch automatically trips OFF at ............ when the air/ground sensor goes to the .............. mode.

    <p>airborne, air</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a reduced thrust takeoff, a second press of the TO/GA switch above ........... feet above field elevation, thrust levers advance toward full GA thrust.

    <p>800</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For a dual A/P approach, the second VHF NAV receiver must be tuned to the ILS frequency and the corresponding A/P engaged in CMD prior to .......... ft

    <p>800</p> Signup and view all the answers

    External jacks for use by maintenance can be added to the system by use of the .............................. switch.

    <p>Service Interphone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    It is not possible to power one transfer bus with ............... power and one transfer bus with ................ power. In flight, each ........... normally powers its own transfer bus.

    <p>external , APU , IDG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The EEC automatically controls idle operation. These idle operations are;

    1. .............. idle
    2. flight minimum idle
    3. ............... idle

    <p>ground , approach</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A wet start occurs if the EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE. If a wet start is detected, the EEC turns off the ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine ........ seconds after lever is moved to IDLE.

    <p>15</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write the missing affected systems when the Engine Fire Switch is pulled UP:

    Closes both the ............ valve and the .................. valve. Closes the engine bleed air valve resulting in loss of wing anti-ice to the affected wing and closure of bleed air operated pack valve

    Trips the ..............................

    Closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve. The engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light is deactivated

    Disables ..................... for the related engine.

    <p>engine fuel shutoff , spar fuel shutoff , generator control relay and breaker , thrust reverser</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Checklist titles in upper case (such as AUTOBRAKE DISARM) are ...................... by a light, alert, or other indication. Checklist titles in upper and lower case (such as Window Damage) are ....................

    <p>annunciated , not annunciated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A sensor in main tank No. ........ allows monitoring of fuel temperature. The temperature indicating system uses ......... electrical power.

    <p>1 , AC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Nitrogen Generation System (NGS) converts bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air (NEA) during all phases of flight. The NEA is delivered to the ................ tank to reduce flammability of the tank.

    <p>center</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which hydraulic system pressure is used to power the hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid for Power Transfer Unit operation?

    <p>A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which components are powered by standby hydraulic system?

    <p>Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps and slats (extend only), stanby yaw damper.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does "OVERHEAT" light on Hydraulic panel illuminate?

    <p>Electric motor driven pump has overheated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If hydraulic system B pressure is low or system B fails, System A automatically supplies pressure to the alternate brake system.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Landing gear warning cutout switch silences aural indication at flaps UP through 10 and above 200 feet RA.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT order for alert prioritization.

    I. TCAS

    II. GPWS

    III. ACTUAL WINDSHEAR

    <p>III , II , I</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicates brake accumulator pressure: • normal pressure ............ psi • maximum pressure ........... psi • normal precharge ............ psi

    <p>2900-3600 , 3600-4000 , 1000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Inflight one bleed source can supply necessary bleed air to both pack simultaneously.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    With the radio altimeter of the relevant side inoperative, the Autopilot (A/P) will disengage ...... seconds after LOC and GS capture.

    <p>2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Antiskid protection is NOT provided on alternate brake system.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The wingtip swings the largest arc while turning and determines the minimum obstruction clearance path. Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within ________________ of the wing tip or within ____________ of the nose.

    <p>(17.8 feet / 5.4 m) – ( 24.3 feet / 7.4 m)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground and in flight.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Air Systems, Isolation valve position is affected by the APU bleed air switch position.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following(s) are electrically heated?

    I. Pitot probes

    II. TAT Probe

    III. Alpha vanes

    IV. Static Ports

    <p>Only I , II and III</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What will be the FMA Autothrottle (A/T) modes in sequence when a normal TO is excecuted with A/T armed?

    ....... until TO/GA switch pushed, ....... after TO/GA switch pushed to 84 knots, ........ 84 knots to 800 feet above field elevation.

    <p>ARM - N1 - THR HLD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a reduced thrust takeoff, a second press of the TO/GA switch below .......... feet above field elevation will change the thrust limit mode to GA and N1 reference bugs to increase to .......... thrust, thrust levers will not be in motion.

    <p>800 / full GA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement for DC Power system.

    <p>Hot battery bus and switched hot battery bus are always connected to the battery. There is no switch for these circuits.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Standby Power Off (STANDBY PWR OFF) Light does NOT illuminate for one of the following busses?

    <p>hot battery bus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement about Engine system.

    <p>&quot;ON&quot; in view on EEC switches, means engine ratings are provided at rated thrust or higher.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with a ........ gross weight, ................ center of gravity and ................ thrust when the autopilot is not engaged.

    <p>low/aft/high</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing altitude?

    <p>8400</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flight crew cycling (pulling and resetting) of a circuit breaker to clear a non-normal condition is NOT recommended, unless directed by a non-normal checklist.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When a checklist challenge does NOT end with "switch or lever", then the challenge refers to system status. Example "Landing gear ... Down", refers to the status of of landing gear, not just the position of lever.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    On the ground, flight crew reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be done once with the Captain's discretion.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Braking action less than medium, neither ............... nor ................... shall be performed.

    <p>tailwind landings , tailwind takeoffs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Autobrake RTO (on ground)– automatically applies maximum brake pressure when thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above .......... knots.

    <p>88</p> Signup and view all the answers

    GPWS provides Windshear Warning alerts below ........ ft.

    <p>1500</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Predictive windshear alerts are available approximately ......... seconds after the weather radar begins scanning for windshear.

    <p>12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many zone temperature controller(s) installed for aft cabin section?

    <p>1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pushing COCKPIT VOICE RECORDER "ERASE" switch for ........ seconds will erase all four channels and operative only when airplane is ............... and the ............. is set.

    <p>2 , on the ground , parking brake</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the conditions for "DRIVE" light to illuminate? • ............ failure, or • ...................... , or • IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature, or • IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch.

    <p>IDG , engine shutdown</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In case of a related system failure; ENGINE CONTROL light will iluminate when engine is operating and, airplane on ground and below ........... kts prior to takeoff or approximately ............ seconds after touchdown.

    <p>80 , 30</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After an engine failure, ENGINE FAIL Alert remains until: • .................. ; or • start lever moved to CUTOFF; or • ....................... pulled.

    <p>engine recovers , engine fire switch</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by ........... bus and ............... bus.

    <p>AC transfer , Battery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fuel Configuration (CONFIG) Alert Displayed (amber); • either engine running • center fuel tank quantity greater than ............. kgs • both center fuel tank pump switches positioned ...............

    <p>726 , OFF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the following conditions is NOT neded for Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU) automatic operation?

    <p>Nose gear is not down and locked</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fuel valve(s) may be closed by pulling an engine fire switch ?

    <p>The Engine Valve and Spar Valve.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the meaning of "TOO LOW FLAPS" aural alert?

    <p>Unsafe terrain clerance at low airspeed with flaps not in normal landing position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    ……………… page displays the REF NAV DATA page to display information about waypoints, navaids, airports, and runways. On the ground, displays the SUPP NAV DATA page if SUPP is entered in the scratchpad prior to selection.

    <p>Navigation Data (NAV DATA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    (RDR-4000 WX Radar System) The nominal flight path weather envelope is ±........ feet with respect to the expected flight path.

    <p>4000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In Air Systems; what will happen if all Temperature Selectors are positioned to OFF?

    <p>Left and Right packs maintain fixed temperature (The left pack 75°F (24°C) and the right pack 65°F (18°C)).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    ******If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, the PACK, MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lights illuminate. What is the pack operating criteria?

    <p>The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive temperatures cause the pack to trip off.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Static Ports are heated.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of aircraft may provide command airspeeds for Autothrottle (A/T) and Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)?

    <p>FMC or MCP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement for DC Power system.

    <p>Hot battery bus and switched hot battery bus are always connected to the battery. There is no switch for these circuits.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    *******During a normal reverse sequence; what does the illuminated REVERSER (amber) light indicate?

    <p>A normal indication if the light extinguishes after 10 seconds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the correct statement for EEC in soft Alternate mode.

    <p>Both ON and ALTN may be in view if EEC has automatically switched to soft alternate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The First Officer’s control wheel is connected by cables to the spoiler Power Control Units (PCUs) through the spoiler mixer. If the aileron control system is jammed, force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which control surface is NOT monitored by Flight Control LOW PRESSURE Lights on the Overhead Panel?

    <p>flaps</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The air data modules convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs. Each pitot air data module is connected to all pitot probes; Cross connection is available. If one side fails, other side provides information.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Turn construction is based upon FMC criteria which assumes that LNAV is engaged. Which one of the followings is NOT one of the reason that LNAV turn may OVERSHOOT or route discontinuity may appear?

    <p>selected bank angle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component for dry and runway more than 2500m?

    <p>15 knots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Do not use the look ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions; within _______ of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.

    <p>15 NM</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Write missing types of Airplane Operation?

    1. ........................
    2. .......................
    3. Visual flight (VFR)
    4. ......................
    5. Reduced Vertical Separation (RVSM) Operation
    6. Icing conditions
    7. Automatic Coupled Approach or Automatic Landing at Cat II Weather Minima (dual channel only)
    8. Automatic Coupled Approach or Automatic Landing at Cat IIIA Weather Minima (dual channel only)
    9. Night Flight

    <p>Required Navigation Performance (RNP) , Instrument Flight (IFR) , over water operations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    AOA Disagree Alert (amber) Indicates the Captain’s (left) and First Officer’s (right) angle of attack values disagree by more than ......... degrees; for more than .......... continuous seconds.

    <p>10 , 10</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pushing full rudder pedal turns nose wheel up to ........ degrees and Nose Wheel Steering Wheel turns nose wheel up to ......... degrees; in either direction.

    <p>7 , 78</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Predictive windshear alerts are available approximately ........ seconds after the weather radar begins scanning for windshear.

    <p>12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    (Pressurization manual mode operation) Outflow valve is powered by ........ electric system.

    <p>DC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many electric generators are required for Dual channel A/P operation ? ........

    <p>2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the LNAV arm criteria on the ground?

    1. ...........in flight plan
    2. ......... entered in FMC
    3. track of first leg within ...... degrees of runway heading
    4. both flight director switches have been switched on

    <p>origin runway , active route , 5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) Start Limit Redlines are Displayed (red); • until the engine achieves stabilized idle(approximately ....... % N2). • for ground starts and some in-flight starts as determined by the ......... (system).

    <p>59 , EEC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    APU EGT indicator remains powered for ........ minutes after shutdown.

    <p>5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    There are some situations where the flight crew must land at the nearest suitable airport. These situations include, but are not limited to, conditions where:

    • the non-normal checklist includes the item .........

    • only one hydraulic system remains (the standby system is considered a hydraulic system) • any other situation determined by the flight crew to have a significant adverse effect on safety if the flight is continued • ....................... continues • only one ........... remains

    <p>plan to land at the nearest suitable airport , fire or smoke , AC source</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During "Aborted Engine Start" checklist; if Engine Start switch is in GND, motoring the engine for 60 seconds starts at ................

    <p>engine start lever is cutoff</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The following indications are reliable for "Airspeed Unreliable":

    1. ...............
    2. N1
    3. ..............
    4. ..............

    <p>Attitude , ground speed , radio altitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a leak occurs in the Hydraulic Standby System, how much fluid remains in the system B reservoir?

    <p>70%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A fuel scavenge jet pump is located in the center fuel tank. What condition(s) must exist before this pump will operate ?

    <p>The number 1 main tank must decrease to approximately 1/2 and the number 1 main tank forward pump must be ON.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Passenger oxygen system automatically deploys when cabin altitude exceeds .......... feet and supply oxygen for approximately ....... minutes.

    <p>14000 / 12</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of aircraft provides N1 limits and target N1 for the Autothrottle (A/T)?

    <p>Flight Management Computer (FMC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the MCP speed condition symbol for overspeed ?

    <p>B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which indication is NOT dependent on the EEC?

    <p>Oil Quantity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Compression of ............... landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers to deploy. Compression of the ................ main landing gear strut enables the ground spoilers to deploy.

    <p>any / right</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The trim authority for manual trim is ...............units.

    <p>-0.20 to 16.9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Below 2000 feet radio altitude, the FMC transitions to go-around logic from approach logic when any of the following events occur. (Choose the WRONG statement)

    <p>engine failure on final</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which one of the followings is NOT one of the mode that the FMC calculates a reference thrust?

    <p>Descent</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The use of reduced thrust based on the assumed temperature method is allowed on contaminated / slippery runways.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In case of an automatic display of secondary engine parameters due to engine oil quantity, correct action is to ....

    <p>Continue normal engine operation unless a limit is exceeded</p> Signup and view all the answers

    uring takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective between ........ and ....... knots

    <p>40 , 60</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The components of Flight Management System are: • flight management computer system (FMCS) • ........... • autothrottle (A/T) • .......... • .........

    Signup and view all the answers

    Holding in icing conditions with flaps ............ is prohibited.

    <p>extended</p> Signup and view all the answers

    GPWS provides Windshear Warning alerts below ............ ft.

    <p>1500</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Autothrottle Disengage Light illuminates AMBER (flashing): inflight, flaps ................... , and airspeed differs from commanded value by ..................... knots and is not approaching commanded value.

    <p>not up , +10/-5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The thrust reversers can be deployed when either radio altimeter senses less than ........ feet altitude or the air/ground safety sensor is in the ........... mode.

    <p>10 , ground</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In flight resetting of a tripped circuit breaker procedure is ..................... unless directed by a non-normal checklist. However a tripped circuit breaker maybe reset ............. , after a short cooling period (approximately ....... minutes), if in the judgement of the captain, the situation resulting from the circuit breaker trip has a significant adverse effect on safety.

    <p>not recommended , once , 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the WRONG statement for Hydraulic System?

    <p>ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC PUMPS switches in OFF position energize blocking valve in pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When are the NEW predictive windshear caution alerts inhibited during takeoff and landing?

    <p>Between 80 knots and 400 feet RA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When Approaching to STALL, complete the recovery:

    • Check airspeed and adjust thrust as needed • ........................... • .................................. • ...........................................

    <p>Establish pitch attitude , Return to the desired flight path , Re-engage the autopilot and autothrottle if desired</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The EFS module increases hydraulic system ........... pressure to the elevator feel and centering unit during a stall. This approximately ............ control column forces.

    <p>A / doubles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of using either pair of Stabilizer Trim Switches (spring-loaded to neutral) while autopilot engaged?

    <p>automatically disengages the autopilot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum depth contamination limitations on WET or Contaminated Runways for Dry snow?

    <p>101.6 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    fault in the parking brake system may cause the .................... light to illuminate.

    <p>ANTISKID INOP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The electrical standby power system consists of:

    • static inverter • AC standby bus

    • DC standby bus

    • battery bus • hot battery bus • ............................. • main battery • .............................

    <p>Switched hot battery bus , auxiliary battery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What conditions cause ENGINE FAIL alert to display? • engine operating below sustainable idle (less than
    .......... % N2); and • engine start lever in .............

    <p>50 , idle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    As flight parameter indications of windshear, unacceptable flight path deviations are recognized as uncontrolled changes from normal steady state flight conditions below 1000 feet AGL, in excess of any of the following:

    • .......... knots indicated airspeed • 500 fpm vertical speed • ......... ° pitch attitude • ................ displacement from the glideslope • unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time.

    <p>15 , 5 , 1 dot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fuel LOW Alert Displayed (amber); • fuel tank quantity less than ............... kgs in related main tank • display remains until fuel tank quantity is increased to ................kgs.

    <p>907 , 1134</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Choose the CORRECT statement for the given condition; "an airplane looses Hydraulic System A without engine failure at liftoff and landing gear lever is selected to UP position (engines are operating normally)?

    <p>Landing Gear will not be retracted</p> Signup and view all the answers

    REFILL indication may illuminate when hydraulic quantity is less than _____ % and when airplane is ________ with both engines _________ or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

    <p>76, on ground, shutdown</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Are the fuel quantity indicators operative when the main battery and the auxiliary battery are the only source of electrical power?

    <p>All indicators are operative.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    "SPEED" deviation callout (during takeoff) shall be done when speed is .............

    <p>below V2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    With the A/T Arm switch at ARM, the A/T go–around mode is armed: • when descending below ........ feet RA, • when above ......... feet RA with flaps ............ or .............. captured • with or without the AFDS engaged.

    <p>2000 , 2000 , not up , G/S</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Abnormal Descent Scenario

    • During a malfunction, the crew decided to return to the airport of departure.
    • The Pilot in Command (PIC) requested to reset the Flight Altitude (FLT ALT) to avoid the "OFF SCHED DESCENT" warning.

    Aircraft System Affected

    • The system feature affected is the Flight Level Computer, which is responsible for calculating and warning of descent rates.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    Description

    Identify the system feature affected when reseting FLT ALT to avoid OFF SCHED DESCENT warning. Learn about aircraft systems and safety protocols.

    More Like This

    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Open
    Browser
    Browser