Aviation Regulations Quiz

Questions and Answers

How can hazardous attitudes that contribute to poor pilot judgment be effectively counteracted?

Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.

What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?

Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).

What is the antidote for MACHO?

Taking chances is foolish.

What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?

Recognition of hazardous thoughts. Signup and view all the answers

What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?

Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote. Signup and view all the answers

To help manage cockpit stress, what must pilots do?

Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears. Signup and view all the answers

What does good cockpit stress management begin with?

Good life stress management. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction when the passengers for a charter flight arrive almost an hour late?

Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. Signup and view all the answers

What is the worst that could happen regarding INVULNERABILITY?

What is the worst that could happen. Signup and view all the answers

In the context of IMPULSIVITY, why do the pilot and passengers want to hurry?

They want to hurry and get going, before things get worse. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the MACHO reaction when a pilot emerges from a cloud near a helicopter?

He flies a little closer, just to show him. Signup and view all the answers

What is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude?

Follow the rules. They are usually right. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction when a pilot determines they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff?

Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. Signup and view all the answers

You are landing at a Class D airport with the tower not in operation. Which of the following airspace rules apply?

Class E surface rules apply Signup and view all the answers

For VFR operations, the vertical limits of victor airways extend from?

1200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Signup and view all the answers

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for?

Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas. Signup and view all the answers

In the contiguous U.S., an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above?

10,000 feet MSL Signup and view all the answers

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace?

A transponder with 4096 code for Mode S, and Mode C capability. Signup and view all the answers

While in flight, if a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

The helicopter. Signup and view all the answers

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft?

At the lower altitude. Signup and view all the answers

During a night operation, if the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2 and the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way?

The pilot of aircraft #1. Signup and view all the answers

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?

The pilot of the multiengine airplane. Signup and view all the answers

An airplane is overtaking another airplane. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

The airplane being overtaken. Signup and view all the answers

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?

The helicopter. Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?

200 knots. Signup and view all the answers

One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and 2500 feet AGL of a Class D airport. What should your speed be?

200 knots. Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?

1500 feet AGL and 3 miles. Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

True Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?

True Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

True Signup and view all the answers

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of?

10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL. Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?

3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below. Signup and view all the answers

When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?

Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. Signup and view all the answers

At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

True Signup and view all the answers

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, what is required?

The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight. Signup and view all the answers

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying?

More than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course. Signup and view all the answers

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is?

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere. Signup and view all the answers

What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?

29.92" Hg. Signup and view all the answers

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, what should the pilot do?

Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. Signup and view all the answers

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to?

4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. Signup and view all the answers

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to?

4 NM, up to and including 2,000 feet AGL. Signup and view all the answers

You are operating out of a non-towered satellite airport within Class C airspace. What is required?

Your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport without an operating control tower within the Class C airspace area?

True Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

True Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

True Signup and view all the answers

When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs?

31.00. Signup and view all the answers

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. Signup and view all the answers

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts?

True Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at?

3,823 feet MSL. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is?

Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (EDU) is?

700 feet AGL. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 8) The floor of the Class E airspace over the Auburn airport (AUN) is?

2,239 feet MSL. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 53, point 1) This thin black shaded line is most likely?

A military training route. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 54, point 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

2,901 feet MSL. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 9) The alert area depicted within the magenta lines is an area in which?

There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 54, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is?

An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. Signup and view all the answers

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of?

Class D airspace. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 4) The highest obstruction within 10 NM of Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?

662 feet. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 6) Van Vleck Airport is?

A nonpublic use airport. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 52, point 4) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east-southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?

827 feet. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 54, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK), which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of?

Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 53, point 3) You are approaching Madera (MAE) airport from the northwest at 1,000 feet MSL, and flight visibility is 1 SM. Should you remain in Class E airspace until entering the traffic pattern?

No, you would have to descend and remain clear of Class E airspace. Signup and view all the answers

When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. Signup and view all the answers

While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned?

Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 51) When exiting a runway, you are clear of the active runway when you pass?

Past the solid-line side of sign 'G'. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 51) The red sign 'D' would most likely be found?

At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 51) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

'H'. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 51) When taxiing up at an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which sign?

'H'. Signup and view all the answers

(Refer to figure 51) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?

'D'. Signup and view all the answers

With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use?

Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional and nose-wheel type airplanes. Signup and view all the answers

When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, which action is recommended and for what primary reason?

Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. Signup and view all the answers

A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is?

Maintaining a safe airspeed. Signup and view all the answers

Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?

A power-on approach and power-on landing. Signup and view all the answers

A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the?

Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway. Signup and view all the answers

What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and rotating red light ahead and at your altitude?

Headed away from you. Signup and view all the answers

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.

The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll. Signup and view all the answers

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by?

Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake. Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?

Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. Signup and view all the answers

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?

Past the point where the jet touched down. Signup and view all the answers

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. Signup and view all the answers

With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?

True Signup and view all the answers

Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?

True Signup and view all the answers

As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience?

Symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness. Signup and view all the answers

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should?

Use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Signup and view all the answers

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?

Drowsiness. Signup and view all the answers

Rapid breathing associated with hyperventilation would most likely result in?

Carbon dioxide leaving the body. Signup and view all the answers

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?

Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Signup and view all the answers

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should?

Slow the breathing rate. Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

True Signup and view all the answers

Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as?

True Signup and view all the answers

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should?

Rely on aircraft instrument indications. Signup and view all the answers

Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations?

True Signup and view all the answers

When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush, what could a pilot do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to the conditions?

Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the landing gear to air-dry. Signup and view all the answers

Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. Signup and view all the answers

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a?

Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. Signup and view all the answers

The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot?

Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. Signup and view all the answers

Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to?

Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff'. Signup and view all the answers

The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by?

Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. Signup and view all the answers

Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include?

Peer pressure, get there itis, loss of positional or situational awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. Signup and view all the answers

An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves?

Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Airspace and Operations

At Class D airports without tower operations, apply Class E surface rules or combination of Class E up to 700 feet AGL and Class G to the surface.
Vertical limits of VFR victor airways extend from 1200 feet AGL to the bottom of overlying controlled airspace.
A coded transponder with altitude reporting is mandatory in Class A, B, and C airspace areas.
In contiguous U.S., an operable transponder with Mode C is required above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding airspace at or below 2500 feet AGL.
Transponder needed for Class B operations includes 4096 code for Mode S and Mode C capability.

Right-of-Way Regulations

Helicopters have right-of-way over airplanes when converging at a 90° angle and positioned on the right.
Aircraft at lower altitude have right-of-way during landing approaches.
During night operations, the pilot of aircraft seeing only the green light has right-of-way.
In convergence situations, a single-engine airplane has precedence over a multiengine airplane if approaching from the left.

Operational Standards and Regulations

An airplane overtaking another has the right-of-way; the overtaken plane must expect a pass on the right.
For aircraft to take off or land in Class D airspace under special VFR, visibility must be at least 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
VFR flight visibility is 3 miles, with 1000 feet above and 500 feet below cloud requirements in Class C, D, and E airspace.
Minimum visibility in Class B airspace requires pilot to receive ATC clearance prior to operation.

Flight Visibility and Altitudes

Minimum visibility for VFR flights increases to 5 statute miles at altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL.
Minimum altitude for IFR flight is 2000 feet above highest obstacle in mountainous terrain, and 1000 feet elsewhere.
Maximum indicated airspeed in airspace under Class B is 200 knots.
Helicopter operations must expect to be overtaken during flight; helicopters have right-of-way.

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)

ADM process is systematic for determining the best course of action during flight.
A pilot must recognize hazardous attitudes and correct them with learned antidotes, such as "taking chances is foolish" for macho attitudes.
Situational awareness and problem recognition are critical features of risk management in flight.
Drowsiness is a common symptom of hyperventilation, which pilots should manage by slowing their breathing rate.

Emergency and Safety Protocols

In case of complete engine failure post-takeoff, maintaining safe airspeed is paramount.
During turbulence on approach, increasing airspeed slightly optimizes control.
Wake turbulence considerations advise taking off past the point of a jet's touchdown when avoiding its vortices.
Pilots need to manage cockpit stress through relaxation techniques and rational thinking in stressful situations.

Blue and magenta colors on sectional charts depict airports with control towers, with blue indicating Class B, C, D, and E airspace.
For entering or exiting Class D airspace, pilots must communicate with ATC within specified distance and altitude parameters.
The floor of Class E airspace varies, with specific altitudes marked for safety and regulatory compliance.
A dashed blue circle indicates Class D airspace boundaries on sectional charts.

Miscellaneous Regulations and Procedures

Pilots should utilize left turns when approaching non-towered airports in Class G airspace.
To avoid risks associated with taxiing in strong winds, ailerons should be positioned opposite the wind direction.
During takeoff behind larger jets, becoming airborne before reaching their flight path minimizes wake turbulence hazards.
Good life stress management is foundational for effective cockpit stress management.### Impulsivity
Characterized by a sense of urgency to take action, often to avoid worsening situations.

MACHO Reaction

Occurs when a pilot encounters a dangerous situation, such as being close to a helicopter while flying IFR (Instrument Flight Rules).
The MACHO reaction is exemplified by the pilot's instinct to fly closer to the helicopter as a display of bravado.

ANTIAUTHORITY Hazardous Attitude

Recognizing hazardous thoughts is crucial for pilot safety.
The antidote to ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME attitude emphasizes adherence to regulations: "Follow the rules. They are usually right."

RESIGNATION Reaction

This reaction occurs when a pilot faces an overloaded situation, such as exceeding maximum gross weight for takeoff.
The pilot exemplifies resignation by acknowledging external factors (extra weight) that were not communicated until the last moment, reflecting a lack of proactive decision-making.

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Description

Test your knowledge on aviation regulations, including airspace rules and VFR operations. This quiz covers essential concepts relevant to pilots navigating various airspaces and their operational limits. Perfect for beginners and seasoned pilots alike!