Questions and Answers
How can hazardous attitudes that contribute to poor pilot judgment be effectively counteracted?
Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).
What is the antidote for MACHO?
Taking chances is foolish.
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
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What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?
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To help manage cockpit stress, what must pilots do?
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What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
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Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction when the passengers for a charter flight arrive almost an hour late?
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What is the worst that could happen regarding INVULNERABILITY?
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In the context of IMPULSIVITY, why do the pilot and passengers want to hurry?
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Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the MACHO reaction when a pilot emerges from a cloud near a helicopter?
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What is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude?
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Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction when a pilot determines they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff?
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You are landing at a Class D airport with the tower not in operation. Which of the following airspace rules apply?
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For VFR operations, the vertical limits of victor airways extend from?
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A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for?
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In the contiguous U.S., an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above?
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What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace?
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While in flight, if a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
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Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft?
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During a night operation, if the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2 and the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way?
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A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
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An airplane is overtaking another airplane. Which airplane has the right-of-way?
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An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
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What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
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One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and 2500 feet AGL of a Class D airport. What should your speed be?
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What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?
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Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
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Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
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Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
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The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of?
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What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
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When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
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At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
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To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, what is required?
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VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying?
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is?
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What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
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When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, what should the pilot do?
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When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to?
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When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to?
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You are operating out of a non-towered satellite airport within Class C airspace. What is required?
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Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport without an operating control tower within the Class C airspace area?
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Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
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Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
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When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs?
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How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
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Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (EDU) is?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 8) The floor of the Class E airspace over the Auburn airport (AUN) is?
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(Refer to figure 53, point 1) This thin black shaded line is most likely?
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(Refer to figure 54, point 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 9) The alert area depicted within the magenta lines is an area in which?
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(Refer to figure 54, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is?
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When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 4) The highest obstruction within 10 NM of Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 6) Van Vleck Airport is?
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(Refer to figure 52, point 4) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east-southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?
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(Refer to figure 54, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK), which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of?
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(Refer to figure 53, point 3) You are approaching Madera (MAE) airport from the northwest at 1,000 feet MSL, and flight visibility is 1 SM. Should you remain in Class E airspace until entering the traffic pattern?
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When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
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While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned?
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(Refer to figure 51) When exiting a runway, you are clear of the active runway when you pass?
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(Refer to figure 51) The red sign 'D' would most likely be found?
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(Refer to figure 51) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?
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(Refer to figure 51) When taxiing up at an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which sign?
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(Refer to figure 51) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?
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With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use?
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When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, which action is recommended and for what primary reason?
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A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is?
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Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
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A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the?
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What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and rotating red light ahead and at your altitude?
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Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.
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During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by?
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Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
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To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
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When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
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With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
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Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
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As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience?
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To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should?
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Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
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Rapid breathing associated with hyperventilation would most likely result in?
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Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
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To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should?
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Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?
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Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as?
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To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should?
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Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations?
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When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush, what could a pilot do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to the conditions?
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Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
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Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a?
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The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot?
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Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to?
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The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by?
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Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include?
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An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves?
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Study Notes
Airspace and Operations
- At Class D airports without tower operations, apply Class E surface rules or combination of Class E up to 700 feet AGL and Class G to the surface.
- Vertical limits of VFR victor airways extend from 1200 feet AGL to the bottom of overlying controlled airspace.
- A coded transponder with altitude reporting is mandatory in Class A, B, and C airspace areas.
- In contiguous U.S., an operable transponder with Mode C is required above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding airspace at or below 2500 feet AGL.
- Transponder needed for Class B operations includes 4096 code for Mode S and Mode C capability.
Right-of-Way Regulations
- Helicopters have right-of-way over airplanes when converging at a 90° angle and positioned on the right.
- Aircraft at lower altitude have right-of-way during landing approaches.
- During night operations, the pilot of aircraft seeing only the green light has right-of-way.
- In convergence situations, a single-engine airplane has precedence over a multiengine airplane if approaching from the left.
Operational Standards and Regulations
- An airplane overtaking another has the right-of-way; the overtaken plane must expect a pass on the right.
- For aircraft to take off or land in Class D airspace under special VFR, visibility must be at least 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
- VFR flight visibility is 3 miles, with 1000 feet above and 500 feet below cloud requirements in Class C, D, and E airspace.
- Minimum visibility in Class B airspace requires pilot to receive ATC clearance prior to operation.
Flight Visibility and Altitudes
- Minimum visibility for VFR flights increases to 5 statute miles at altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL.
- Minimum altitude for IFR flight is 2000 feet above highest obstacle in mountainous terrain, and 1000 feet elsewhere.
- Maximum indicated airspeed in airspace under Class B is 200 knots.
- Helicopter operations must expect to be overtaken during flight; helicopters have right-of-way.
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)
- ADM process is systematic for determining the best course of action during flight.
- A pilot must recognize hazardous attitudes and correct them with learned antidotes, such as "taking chances is foolish" for macho attitudes.
- Situational awareness and problem recognition are critical features of risk management in flight.
- Drowsiness is a common symptom of hyperventilation, which pilots should manage by slowing their breathing rate.
Emergency and Safety Protocols
- In case of complete engine failure post-takeoff, maintaining safe airspeed is paramount.
- During turbulence on approach, increasing airspeed slightly optimizes control.
- Wake turbulence considerations advise taking off past the point of a jet's touchdown when avoiding its vortices.
- Pilots need to manage cockpit stress through relaxation techniques and rational thinking in stressful situations.
Airport Placements and Navigation
- Blue and magenta colors on sectional charts depict airports with control towers, with blue indicating Class B, C, D, and E airspace.
- For entering or exiting Class D airspace, pilots must communicate with ATC within specified distance and altitude parameters.
- The floor of Class E airspace varies, with specific altitudes marked for safety and regulatory compliance.
- A dashed blue circle indicates Class D airspace boundaries on sectional charts.
Miscellaneous Regulations and Procedures
- Pilots should utilize left turns when approaching non-towered airports in Class G airspace.
- To avoid risks associated with taxiing in strong winds, ailerons should be positioned opposite the wind direction.
- During takeoff behind larger jets, becoming airborne before reaching their flight path minimizes wake turbulence hazards.
- Good life stress management is foundational for effective cockpit stress management.### Impulsivity
- Characterized by a sense of urgency to take action, often to avoid worsening situations.
MACHO Reaction
- Occurs when a pilot encounters a dangerous situation, such as being close to a helicopter while flying IFR (Instrument Flight Rules).
- The MACHO reaction is exemplified by the pilot's instinct to fly closer to the helicopter as a display of bravado.
ANTIAUTHORITY Hazardous Attitude
- Recognizing hazardous thoughts is crucial for pilot safety.
- The antidote to ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME attitude emphasizes adherence to regulations: "Follow the rules. They are usually right."
RESIGNATION Reaction
- This reaction occurs when a pilot faces an overloaded situation, such as exceeding maximum gross weight for takeoff.
- The pilot exemplifies resignation by acknowledging external factors (extra weight) that were not communicated until the last moment, reflecting a lack of proactive decision-making.
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Description
Test your knowledge on aviation regulations, including airspace rules and VFR operations. This quiz covers essential concepts relevant to pilots navigating various airspaces and their operational limits. Perfect for beginners and seasoned pilots alike!