Aviation Regulations Block 1 Quiz
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Questions and Answers

The controller is responsible for anticipating the existence of wake turbulence.

False

Which purposes are certified tower radar displays used for? (Select all that apply)

  • Determine an aircraft's identification (correct)
  • Provide weather updates
  • Provide aircraft with radar traffic advisories (correct)
  • Inform pilots about runway conditions

    • What must be done when an aircraft reports a ground-based NAVAID malfunction?

    Request a report from a second aircraft.

    The primary digital maps used by the Tower are listed under the ______.

    <p>Plexiglass</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Digital maps other than Maps 1, 2, and 15 must be displayed at all times.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should the altimeter setting be issued when the barometric pressure is greater than 31.00 inches Hg?

    <p>Advise pilots to remain set on altimeter 31.00 until reaching final approach segment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should controllers prioritize when communicating with aircraft?

    <p>Clearances and control instructions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the term with its correct definition:

    <p>NAVAID = Navigational Aid used in aviation RVR = Runway Visual Range ATC = Air Traffic Control VFR = Visual Flight Rules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Aircraft must maintain at or below 1,000 feet MSL until the departure end of the runway.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates a NAVAID is not functional?

    <p>When it is in alarm.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does Block 3 refer to in aircraft documentation?

    <p>Number, Type Aircraft and Equipment Suffix</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is represented by Block 6?

    <p>Proposed Departure Time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a large 'V' signify in Block 9?

    <p>VFR departures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are identified types of departures? (Select all that apply)

    <p>M = MYERS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A check mark in Block 12 indicates that the departure time was passed to AMOPS.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The altitude information for arriving aircraft is recorded in Block ___

    <p>9</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An 'X' is used to delete climb/descend and maintain arrows.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the tower pattern weather minimums for VFR outside downwind?

    <p>3100/3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following VFR entry points with their locations:

    <p>X-Ray West = North VFR pattern X-Ray East = South VFR pattern Sky-Ten = Inside traffic pattern Ranch = Associated with 32R</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum airspeed during simulated flame-out maneuvers?

    <p>205 knots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tower must approve SFOs if more than 15 aircraft are inside of 15 miles of the field.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tactical initials are approved to any runway when an SFO aircraft has been cleared from High Key.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aircraft are not allowed to land out of practice SFO maneuvers?

    <p>Both A and B</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What altitude should pilots maintain during the night VFR traffic pattern?

    <p>1,600 feet MSL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pilots will hold at __________ West or Sky Ten at 10,000 feet MSL.

    <p>X-Ray</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if an aircraft reports a ground-based NAVAID malfunction?

    <p>Request a report from a second aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should tower controllers have visual contact with the aircraft during SI-SFO?

    <p>By 3 NM final</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum acceptable tailwind component for continuous operations at Tyndall?

    <p>5 knots</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Runway selection can be changed for convenience without any operational considerations.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The pilot must report '__________' as they approach.

    <p>10-mile SFO/PFO</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following runway with their corresponding information:

    <p>Runway 14 = Used for IFR traffic patterns if ECP is on Runway 34 Runway 32 = Preferred runway unless tailwind is 5 knots or greater Runway 14L = Normal operations for ASR approaches Runway 14R = Used for inside right downwind recovery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What will occur if Tower cancels an approach?

    <p>Terminate SFO</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be obtained before continuing a radar-monitored approach closer than three miles from touchdown?

    <p>Verbal clearance from the tower controller</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The phraseology 'CANCEL TAKEOFF CLEARANCE' can be used after an aircraft has started its takeoff roll solely for the purpose of meeting traffic management requirements.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should a pilot inform ATC about after receiving approval for a stop-and-go?

    <p>Any delay on the runway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The airplane may conduct operations on a closed or unsafe runway at their own ________.

    <p>risk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which information must be provided to arriving aircraft as part of landing clearance?

    <p>Current landing information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?

    <p>A preplanned IFR procedure for obstacle clearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pilots must always receive ATC clearance before flying a Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR).

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What additional handling priority is given to civil air ambulance flights?

    <p>Priority handling when identified as 'MEDEVAC'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Advisories regarding traffic are issued by ATC to assist aircraft avoiding __________.

    <p>observed traffic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the override capability does not exist?

    <p>Transmit urgent instructions on the emergency frequency.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    USAF control towers can inform departing IFR military aircraft to change to departure control frequency before takeoff.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible phraseology for changing a route of flight in a previously issued clearance?

    <p>Change (portion of route) to read (new portion of route).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The altitude at which aircraft will descend after the break is _____ feet.

    <p>1600</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a restriction for tactical arrivals?

    <p>Breaks cannot be initiated beyond one mile past departure end.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    VFR aircraft are automatically authorized to execute the missed approach procedure.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the required clearance for a missed approach due to an unplanned go-around?

    <p>At departure end, turn left heading 040, climb and maintain 3,000 feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is mentioned as a procedure when an aircraft commences a missed approach?

    <p>It may be vectored at or above the MVA/MIA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Can a takeoff clearance be canceled solely for the purpose of meeting traffic management requirements after an aircraft has started its takeoff roll?

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required to approve a pilot's request to cross Class C or Class D surface areas?

    <p>Traffic conditions permit</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be ensured before transferring control of an aircraft?

    <p>Eliminate any potential conflict with other aircraft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Visual separation is prohibited behind __________ aircraft.

    <p>super</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is simultaneous opposite direction VFR operations authorized?

    <p>When two-way radio communication is established</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum separation required between two successive IFR departures during a TDW outage?

    <p>2 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Is it acceptable to cancel a SI-SFO inside of 5-mile Simulated Flameout Final?

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the average airspeed during a maneuver in SFO?

    <p>205 KIAS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the entry point for SI-SFO on Runway 14?

    <p>10 NM extended runway centerline at 9,500 feet MSL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flights will not reenter for a __________ initial.

    <p>tactical</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Wake turbulence procedures are applied only behind larger aircraft.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Block Information - Aircraft Procedures

    • Block 1: Aircraft call sign.
    • Block 3: Number, type of aircraft, and equipment suffix if applicable.
    • Block 4: Computer Identification Number (CID).
    • Block 5: Beacon code assigned to the aircraft.
    • Block 6: Proposed departure time from the airport.
    • Block 7: Requested altitude for the flight.
    • Block 8: Departure airport and/or estimated time of arrival.
    • Block 9: Filed route of flight or any remarks.
    • Block 9A: Destination airport for departures.

    Departure Procedures and Indicators

    • Block 8: Include runway number with "OD" for opposite direction departures, noted in red.
    • Block 9: Use large "V" for VFR departures; circle the stereo type if taxi call passed to RAPCON.
    • Additional indicators:
      • Large red "E" for emergency flights.
      • "NS" for non-standard formations.
      • "DV" for Distinguished Visitors.
      • "QC" for aircraft requesting quick climb.
    • Block 10: Indicate the actual runway of departure, if not 14R/32L.
    • Block 12: Record departure time and mark (√) when passed to AMOPS.
    • Block 13: Note any requested release time differing from IFR release time.
    • Block 14: Document IFR release time or mark as "RTD" for tower discretion releases.

    Arrival Procedures and Indicators

    • Block 9: Apply large "V" for VFR arrivals; include altitude information and restrictions.
    • Identification of emergency flights with large red "E" and non-standard formations with "NS".
    • Block 10, 13, 16: Document inbound VFR reporting points and specify approach types.
    • Report for a straight-in approach following VFR pattern types.

    Operational Corrections

    • Corrections made by drawing a single line through the incorrect information.
    • New altitude information should be placed adjacent to the original indicated data.
    • Record initials beside corrections for accountability.

    Runway and Barrier Information

    • Runway Systems:
      • BAK-12 and MB-60 arresting systems installed at specific positions relative to runway thresholds.
      • Configuration changes for barriers may take up to 45 minutes for inside runways and up to 1 hour for outside.

    Communication Procedures

    • Use specific phraseology for departures and landings over raised barriers.
    • Digital maps and radar displays are essential for local controllers for identification and traffic advisories.
    • Radar displays, meant primarily for controller use, are not radar services for pilots.

    VFR Traffic and Pattern Procedures

    • Weather Minimums:
      • Standard VFR ceiling ranging from 1,100 to 3,100 feet with visibility requirements specified.
    • Reporting Points: Defined entry and reporting points direct aircraft for pattern entry and landing intents.
    • Closed Traffic: Procedures to be observed for entering or exiting closed traffic patterns.
    • Breakout Procedures: Guidelines on executing a breakout from the VFR pattern including altitude adjustments.

    Go-Around and SFO/PFO Patterns

    • Go-arounds must maintain a climb/descend as directed by the tower.
    • SFO/PFO Weather Minimums: Required ceiling and visibility for F-16/F-35 during practice maneuvers.
    • SFO/PFO patterns must adhere to stipulated airspace restrictions and visual separation from other aircraft.

    Airspeed and Altitude Regulations

    • Average airspeed range for SFO/PFO determined by fuel and weight, typically 180-230 knots.
    • High key and low key altitudes specified for overhead patterns with limits on how many can hold at these points.

    These concise notes summarize critical operational details and protocols for aircraft departure, arrival, and traffic management at controlled airfields, ensuring safe and efficient operations in the airspace.### Tower Controller Responsibilities

    • Visual contact or radar display of aircraft must be maintained by 3 NM to avoid breaking out SI-SFO.
    • Clearance for AE-SFO approaches requires initiation from the south or west of extended runway centerlines, specifically between PAM TACAN radials 140 and 320.
    • Aircraft must approach from 7,000'-10,000' feet and are typically directed to the inside runway (14R/32L).
    • Pilots wishing to re-enter for AE-SFO must request this with Tower to coordinate with RAPCON.

    AE-SFO Procedures

    • Pilot must convey intentions to RAPCON, including altitude and location to commence.
    • Upon approval from Tower, pilots receive confirmation to proceed with "AE-SFO approved from (location) at (altitude)."
    • Once approaching a defined point, Tower will clear the aircraft for a low approach or give alternate instructions.
    • Approaches can be canceled by Tower, with a clear statement of termination.

    Traffic Management

    • No IFR or VFR aircraft may be between 10 NM to 2 NM final once an aircraft is cleared for AE-SFO.
    • Suspended departures are mandated until the AE-SFO aircraft completes its approach.

    Night VFR Traffic Pattern

    • VFR patterns flown south of the airfield, with IFR traffic prioritized.
    • Pilots must maintain 1,600 feet MSL while requesting patterns from Tower and turn to crosswind at departure end.

    Radar Traffic Patterns

    • Normal radar pattern altitude is 1,600 feet, with approaches available to all runways, primarily Runway 14L/32R.

    IFR Recovery Procedures

    • W470 and Tyndall MOA aircraft must coordinate with MRU/ARU prior to returning to base (RTB).
    • Recovery routing is specified via OYSTE for runway 32 and TROWT for runway 14.
    • Established radar separation requirements include 5 miles for single aircraft and 10 miles for flights.

    SPLSH and FELEX Recovery Procedures

    • Transition procedures outline direct routes with altitude maintenance of 6,000 feet before expecting approach clearance or radar vectors after reaching SPLSH.

    Communication Protocols

    • In case of ground-based NAVAID malfunctions, controllers follow procedures for verification and activation of standby equipment, notifying technical operations if necessary.
    • Visual separation is employed under specific conditions, prohibiting operations behind super aircraft to prevent wake turbulence issues.

    Runway Usage and Changes

    • Preferred runways are 32R/L, used unless tailwinds exceed 5 knots, with operational concerns factored into final runway decisions.
    • PAPI lights are utilized for landing runways, and barrier configuration changes may incur significant delays.
    • Each NAVAID must have monitoring capabilities, and controllers are responsible for ensuring functionality through regular checks and coordination with pilots regarding status.

    Runway Condition Reading

    • Runway Visual Range (RVR) reports aid pilots in determining visibility for landing, which should be communicated to ensure safety, especially under low visibility conditions.

    Clearance and Separation Policy

    • Takeoff clearances are to be canceled only for safety reasons; pilots must maintain separation from arriving aircraft to avoid conflicts and ensure safe operations.### Simultaneous Departures and Takeoffs
    • Simultaneous takeoffs allowed from parallel runways or helicopter courses with centerlines at least 2,500 feet apart, diverging by 15 degrees or more post-departure.
    • When both aircraft are using an RNAV SID, a minimum separation of 1 mile is required for courses diverging by 10 degrees or more.
    • For centerlines separated by 700 to 2,500 feet, simultaneous takeoffs allowed if courses diverge by 15 degrees or more, following specific release distances.

    VFR Release for IFR Departure

    • Authorization for VFR departure from IFR flight plan requires approval from applicable facilities before granting VFR clearance.
    • Pilot must contact the facility on the specified frequency for clearance post-departure authorization.
    • If a facility cannot provide clearance, inform the pilot and recommend a ground delay.

    Terminal Separation Procedures

    • Departing aircraft must be separated from arriving aircraft on final approach by 2 miles minimum, increasing to 3 miles (5 miles at 40+ NM) within 1 minute after takeoff.
    • Reduced Same Runway Separation (RSRS) is authorized for specific aircraft but prohibited in emergencies or when safety concerns arise.

    Single Engine Jet Procedures

    • F-16/F-35 weather minimums: Ceiling minimum 1,000 feet above initial reporting point and visibility 5 miles.
    • SFO (Simulated Flame Out) maneuvers approved only between sunrise and sunset; prior request to Tyndall Radar Approach Control mandatory.
    • SFO airspace defined as cylindrical block from surface to 10,000 feet MSL, controlled by Tower.

    Overhead SFO Pattern Procedures

    • Maximum of four aircraft holding at SFO pattern reporting points; approval denied if >15 aircraft are within 15 miles of the field.
    • Each aircraft must inform Tower 30 seconds prior to High Key, providing altitude updates.
    • SFOs cannot terminate in full stop landings; specific cut-offs for landmark separation must be maintained.

    Straight-In SFO Approaches (SI-SFO)

    • ATC requires no preceding aircraft on final upon pilot’s 10-mile report for SI-SFO.
    • Tower must visually identify the SI-SFO aircraft by 5 NM, breakout procedures in place as required.

    Tactical Arrival Procedures

    • Flights will request tactical initials, entering at designated VFR entry points at 300-350 knots.
    • Approved tactical initials must adhere to specified altitude until breaking.

    Wake Turbulence Procedures

    • Apply wake turbulence separation rules for aircraft operating behind larger aircraft requiring separation.
    • Wake turbulence cautionary advisories are issued to aircraft potentially affected by wake turbulence.
    • Report NAVAID issues, coordinate actions based on a secondary aircraft’s report, and either activate standby equipment or inform maintenance for unresolved issues.
    • GPS or WAAS anomalies require recording of specific aircraft information and advising nearby aircraft of potential unreliability.

    Digital Maps and Radar Services

    • Certified tower radar displays are designated for aircraft identification and advisories but are not considered full radar services for pilots.
    • Uncertified tower display workstations should only be used for visual assistance, not for operational radar services.

    Special Handling for Dangerous Cargo

    • Military aircraft carrying hazardous materials require special handling when indicated in the flight plan remarks.

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