Path - MSK 2 MCQ (MD2)

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

  • It is a chronic, multisystem, progressive autoimmune disorder (correct)
  • Is a localized, non-systemic condition.
  • Typically spares the joints.
  • Primarily affects a single organ system.

Which of the following is a common site of involvement in rheumatoid arthritis, aside from the joints?

  • Liver
  • Brain
  • Salivary and lacrimal glands (correct)
  • Pancreas

What is the approximate female to male ratio in terms of incidence for rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

  • 3:1 (correct)
  • 1:3
  • 1:5
  • 1:1

What percentage of patients with rheumatoid arthritis are HLA-DR4 positive?

<p>75% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The presence of which antibody is characteristically elevated in the serum of individuals with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>Rheumatoid Factor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The severity of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) tends to correlate with the levels of:

<p>Rheumatoid Factor (RF) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cell types is most directly responsible for tissue damage in Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>T cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cytokine activates macrophages and resident synovial cells?

<p>IFN-γ (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cytokine recruits neutrophils and monocytes?

<p>IL-17 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cytokine stimulates bone resorption?

<p>RANKL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which set of cytokines stimulates resident synovial cells to secrete proteases that destroy hyaline cartilage?

<p>TNF and IL-1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA), what is the initiating cell?

<p>CD4+ helper T cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first stage of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

<p>Triggering (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What results in elevated ACPA production?

<p>Citrullination of proteins active T-cells and B-cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the targeting stage of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA), what describes the main events?

<p>Synovitis and joint swelling. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the fulminant stage of rheumatoid arthritis, which pathological process contributes to joint damage?

<p>Synovial hyperplasia and pannus formation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes fibrous fusion in the fulminant stage of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>Ankylosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical clinical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Symmetrical joint involvement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In rheumatoid arthritis, what joints are typically affected in the hands and feet?

<p>MCP and PIP joints (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The joints lead to radial deviation of the wrist, and which other deformities?

<p>Ulnar deviation of the fingers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Systemic symptoms of RA can include:

<p>Pulmonary fibrosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the pathological findings in the joints of an individual with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>Dense inflammatory infiltrate and lymphocytosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the inflammatory exudate in the joints called?

<p>Pannus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pathological changes does pannus formation lead to?

<p>A fibrous ankylosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical component observed in Rheumatoid nodules?

<p>Central 'necrobiotic' collagen rimmed by palisaded macrophages (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What arteries are affected in Vasculitis?

<p>Small, medium and large arteries (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include:

<p>Vasculitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis?

<p>Osteoarthritis is mechanical while Rheumatoid Arthritis is autoimmune. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the involvement of inflammation in Osteoarthritis versus Rheumatoid Arthritis?

<p>Inflammation may exacerbate cartilage damage in osteoarthritis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pathology begins with small joints in ___ and begins with weight bearing joints in ___.

<p>Rheumatoid Arthritis / Osteoarthritis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathogenic abnormality in osteoarthritis?

<p>Mechanical injury to articular cartilage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of Gout?

<p>Precipitation of urate crystals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After how many years of hyperuricemia does gout usually present?

<p>20-30 years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A genetic condition associated with Gout is:

<p>X-linked HGPRT abnormalities (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the crystal deposition disease where CPP crystals are rhomboid and positively birefringent?

<p>CPPD (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A key difference between Gout and CPPD is that Gout's crystals are ___ and CPPD's crystals are ___.

<p>needle-like and negatively birefringent / rhomboid and positively birefringent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a symptom of Reactive Arthritis?

<p>arthritis, nongonococcal urethritis or cervicitis and conjunctivitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Reactive arthritis often presents days to weeks after what?

<p>Genitourinary or gastrointestinal infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following infections is least associated with Reactive Arthritis?

<p>Streptococcus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dystrophic calcification, commonly seen in the late stages of CPPD, differs mechanistically from metastatic calcification primarily by?

<p>The prior existence of tissue damage enabling mineral deposition despite normal serum calcium and phosphate levels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the usual pattern of joint involvement in rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Symmetrical involvement of small joints (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis, what is the role of TNF?

<p>Stimulates resident synovial cells to secrete proteases that destroy hyaline cartilage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the triggering stage in the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>Anti-citrullinated peptide antibody (ACPA) production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two factors lead to elevated ACPA production?

<p>Genetic factors and environmental factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Symmetrical joint involvement is a key feature of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA). What does symmetrical presentation mean in the context of RA?

<p>The same joints are affected on both sides of the body. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which joint deformities can result from Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>Swan-neck and boutonnière deformities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the name for the fibrous fusion of a joint seen in the fulminant stage of rheumatoid arthritis?

<p>Ankylosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary composition of the inflammatory exudate found in the joints of individuals with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>Fibrin and protein-rich fluid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are rheumatoid nodules typically found?

<p>In the hand, arm, foot and elbow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best characterizes the role of inflammatory mediators in osteoarthritis?

<p>Secondary role, exacerbating cartilage damage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initiating cell in the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

<p>CD4+ helper T cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In rheumatoid arthritis, the pathological changes in the joints include lymphocytosis. What key feature characterizes this process?

<p>Dense inflammatory infiltrate, particularly severe lymphocytosis in joints (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the fulminant stage of RA, synovial hyperplasia occurs. What is another term to describe this?

<p>Pannus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is associated with Gout?

<p>Hyperuricemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the crystals found in Gout?

<p>Negatively birefringent needle-like crystals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is part of the classic triad associated with Reactive Arthritis?

<p>Arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristics describe CPP crystals?

<p>Rhomboid and positively birefringent (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The pathophysiology of gout involves several key steps. Which process directly leads to tissue damage and the formation of tophi?

<p>Activation of the inflammatory cascade in joints. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with joint pain, urethritis, and conjunctivitis following a recent gastrointestinal infection. Which condition is most likely the cause?

<p>Reactive arthritis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In crystal arthropathies, what is the underlying process that leads to joint inflammation?

<p>The precipitation of crystals in the joints, triggering inflammation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is pannus?

<p>A fibrous tissue overgrowth that invades the joint space (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which interleukin recruits neutrophils and monocytes?

<p>IL-17 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following joints are commonly affected in rheumatoid arthritis in the hands and feet?

<p>Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and Proximal interphalangeal joints (PIP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which systemic symptom is NOT associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

<p>Weight gain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the synovitis and joint swelling stage of RA pathogenesis, what type of cytokines are elevated?

<p>TNF-alpha and IL-17A (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most important cytokine for treatment in RA?

<p>TNF (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the long term consequence of immunosuppression?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which crystal shape is associated with CPPD?

<p>Rhomboid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would cause an increase in urate secretion?

<p>Drugs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary abnormality in osteoarthritis?

<p>Mechanical Injury (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pattern is seen in vasculitis?

<p>Leukocytoclastic pattern (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is least related to development of gout?

<p>Gender (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a symptom of crystal arthropathies?

<p>Joint Inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Other than arthritis, what other symptoms occur in Reactive Arthritis?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the maturation stage of rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following processes occurs?

<p>Initiation at the site of secondary lymphoid tissue or bone marrow. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating potential genetic factors predisposing individuals to rheumatoid arthritis. Based on current understanding, which gene would be most relevant to investigate?

<p>HLA-DR4 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the correct order of stages in RA?

<p>Triggering, maturation, targeting, fulminant. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given that cellular and humoral immune responses are both adaptive immunity, what would be the best treatment option?

<p>None of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60 year old patient presents in your clinic with the following symptoms. They include arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis, mono and oligoarticular. Which of the following is the likely cause.

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likelihood of developing gout if an individual has hyperuricemia?

<p>Only 10% of individuals with hyperuricemia develop gout usually after 20 to 30 years. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between reactive and septic arthritis? Select all that apply.

<p>One is immunologically mediated and one is due to direct infection of the joint. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which metabolic bone disease is also known as 'osteitis deformans'?

<p>Paget's disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the impact of osteoporosis on bone strength?

<p>Compromised bone strength (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is directly associated with mortality in individuals who have osteoporosis?

<p>Other chronic diseases associated with osteoporosis are the factor that lead to death (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of bone remodeling, what characterizes bone-wasting diseases like osteoporosis?

<p>Increased bone resorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant attributing factor to osteoporosis related to age?

<p>Age related changes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Trabecular, forearm, and spinal fractures characterize which type of osteoporosis?

<p>Type I (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the use of X-rays in diagnosing osteoporosis?

<p>Insensitive means of detection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In metabolic bone diseases, what does the term 'osteopenia' refer to?

<p>A condition of decreased bone mineral density, but less severe than osteoporosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of osteomalacia and rickets?

<p>Defective mineralization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical features is commonly observed in individuals with osteomalacia?

<p>Bone pain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What alterations are typically observed in serum concentrations in individuals with osteomalacia?

<p>Low to normal calcium, low phosphate, reduced vitamin D (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory findings are characteristically observed in osteomalacia?

<p>Increased osteoid seams on bone biopsy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Lack of negative feedback (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effects of excessive parathyroid hormone (PTH) on bone?

<p>Increased bone resorption (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Increased osteoclast number and activity with a characteristic tunnelling or dissecting pattern is associated with?

<p>Hyperparathyroidism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the usual course of Paget's disease of bone?

<p>Three phases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the loss of distinction between cortex and medulla, seen in the late stages of Paget's disease?

<p>Loss of distinction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the p62/sequestosome 1 (SQSTM1) gene in Paget's disease?

<p>Genetic causes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key histological feature observed in the acute phase of Paget's disease?

<p>Focal mosaic pattern of bone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of bisphosphonate treatment in Paget's disease?

<p>Decreasing Alkaline Phosphate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason that osteoporotic fractures lead to mortality?

<p>Fractures lead to further disease and/or lack of mobility. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old woman presents with a hip fracture after a fall from standing height. Her bone mineral density T-score is -3.0. Which management is most appropriate?

<p>Initiation of bisphosphonate therapy, along with calcium and Vitamin D supplementation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying the effects of different interventions on osteoporosis. Which outcome measure would be MOST sensitive for detecting a change in bone density over a 1-year period?

<p>Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) of the lumbar spine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteomalacia, what is the specific relationship between serum calcium and phosphate levels?

<p>Serum phosphate levels decline before, or disproportionately to serum calcium decline. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with advanced secondary hyperparathyroidism due to chronic kidney disease. Which skeletal manifestation are they LEAST likely to exhibit?

<p>Chondrocalcinosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following diagnosis of Paget’s disease, a patient is found to have an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level but no demonstrable bony abnormalities on X-ray. What is the most appropriate next step?

<p>Perform a bone scan to evaluate the extent of the disease. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is bone quality?

<p>Composition of bone architecture, turnover, and damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fracture site is NOT associated with Osteoporosis?

<p>Skull (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the progenitor osteoblast cells as we age?

<p>They tend to differentiate into fat cells instead of osteoblast cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does osteomalacia radiology show?

<p>Generalised osteopenia and multiple bilateral and symmetric cortical lucencies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has osteomalacia due to cancer that is phosphate wasting. What Vitamin D resistance best describes this?

<p>End organ insensitivity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In primary hyperparathyroidism, what percentage of people that have this condition have a parathyroid adenoma?

<p>80% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the outcome of NET that results from bone resulting in increased activity?

<p>Increased release of calcium from bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A late sign of Paget's disease is:

<p>May extend into soft tissue if florid disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What histological result is apparent with diagnostic features?

<p>Primarily woven bone, focal mosaic pattern of bone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can happen with primary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Increased osteoclastic activity which also causes increased osteoblastic activity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A long term intravenous treatment to help increase bone density carries potential risks to the patient. What is a key risk?

<p>Immunosuppression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What bone cells go unchecked in sclerosing bone diseases?

<p>Osteoblasts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What features distinguish osteolysis in Paget disease from other lytic bone lesions?

<p>Rapidly expands causing cortical thickening and expansion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of Paget's disease, what differentiates the use of bisphosphonates from surgical intervention?

<p>Bisphosphonates induce long-term remission without addressing deformity; surgery addresses complications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential outcome of bone fractures associated with osteoporosis?

<p>Compromised mobility (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes the reduced bone mineral density that is not severe enough to be classified as osteoporosis?

<p>Osteopenia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best defines osteomalacia?

<p>Softening of bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of Vitamin D in osteomalacia?

<p>Enhances bone mineralization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteomalacia, what contributes to alterations in the serum concentrations?

<p>Changes in calcium, phosphorous, and vitamin D (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical laboratory finding in individuals with osteomalacia?

<p>Low serum calcium and phosphate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Parathyroid adenoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a direct effect of excessive parathyroid hormone (PTH) on bone?

<p>Increased bone resorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the bone resorption process seen in hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Dissecting or tunneling bone resorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an accurate description of the usual course of Paget's disease of bone?

<p>Cyclical pattern of bone destruction and regrowth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the late stages of Paget's disease, what change occurs in the bone that is observable radiologically?

<p>Loss of distinction between cortex and medulla (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key function of the p62/sequestosome 1 (SQSTM1) gene in the context of Paget's disease?

<p>Regulating pathways in osteoclasts (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary intended action of bisphosphonate medications in the treatment of Paget's disease?

<p>Reduce osteoclast activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic mutation is most closely associated with Paget's disease of bone?

<p>SQSTM1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the acute phase of Paget's disease of bone, which histological feature is most characteristic?

<p>Focal mosaic pattern of lamellar bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes bone quality?

<p>Bone architecture, turnover, and damage accumulation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might long-term intravenous bisphosphonate treatment carry potential risks?

<p>Reduced kidney function (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In sclerosing bone diseases, which of the following cellular activities goes unchecked, leading to increased bone density?

<p>Osteoclast resorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature distinguishes osteolysis in Paget's disease from other lytic bone lesions?

<p>Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is examining potential genetic factors that could lead to rheumatoid arthritis. Which gene would be the most relevant to examine?

<p>HLA-DRB1 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes the NET result and increased activity from bone?

<p>Release of Ca2+ from bone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What serum level concentrations can indicate that you are developing osteomalacia?

<p>Low to normal serum calcium, low phosphate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What alteration is present on radiology results of osteomalacia?

<p>Generalised osteopenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which situation can lead to Vitamin D resistance when a patient also has waste phosphate that requires Vitamin D?

<p>Cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

As we age, progenitor osteoblast cells are morphing into what other cells?

<p>Fat cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fracture is an unlikely indicator of Osteoporosis?

<p>Ankle Fracture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old with a hip fracture after falling. The bone mineral density T-score is -3.0. What is the most appropriate treatment?

<p>Prescription medication, bisphosphonate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteomalacia, there is a relationship that reflects calcium and phosphate levels. Which selection reflects this?

<p>Serum calcium is low to normal, while phosphate is low. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has advanced secondary hyperparathyroidism due to chronic kidney disease. Which location is least likely to exhibit?

<p>Increased bone density (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a Pagets disease diagnosis, there is an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level. However, there is no demonstrable bony abnormalities on the x-ray. What is the next appropriate step?

<p>Monitor patient's condition and reassess. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the late signs of Paget's disease?

<p>Loss of distinction between bone cortex and medulla (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the early stages of Paget's disease, what histological result can identify it when providing diagnostic features?

<p>Hypernucleated osteoclasts with up to 100 nuclei. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When handling Paget's disease, what can be done to support the patient?

<p>Intravenous treatment to increase bone density (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key distinction between surgical action and bisphosphonates for Paget's disease?

<p>Bisphosphonates reduce symptoms, while surgical action assists the patient with mobility in some cases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can happen as a result from primary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Elevated calcium (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs when there is reduced Vitamin D during osteomalacia?

<p>Increased alkaline phosphatase levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the use of x-rays in diagnosing osteoporosis?

<p>X-rays are relatively insensitive and primarily detect fractures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes the use and effectiveness of a bone biopsy?

<p>A bone biopsy assists and determines the type of metabolic bone diseases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bone remodeling processes is characteristic of bone-wasting diseases like osteoporosis?

<p>Increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes endogenous reductions when pertaining to Vitamin D?

<p>Sunlight (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In sclerosing bone diseases, which type of bone cellular process goes unchecked?

<p>Osteoclast mediation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the diagnosis is unclear for a Bone Scan, what is the next best step?

<p>Bone Biopsy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for the late-stage progression of imaging results where there is not a clear imaging outcome?

<p>Loss of distinction between cortex and medulla (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of hypophosphaternica and neoplasticism, what form of osteomalacia is present?

<p>Oncogenic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common metabolic bone disease?

<p>Osteoporosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In osteoporosis, compromised bone strength leads to an increased risk of:

<p>Fracture (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What two factors determine bone strength?

<p>Bone density and bone quality (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a typical fracture site associated with osteoporosis?

<p>Hip (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of osteoporotic fragility fractures?

<p>They result from a fall from standing height or less. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main concern regarding osteoporosis?

<p>Association with mortality and co-morbidities (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In bone-wasting diseases like osteoporosis, what process is exaggerated?

<p>Bone resorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for the amount of mineral per volume in bone?

<p>Bone Mineral Density (BMD) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What leads to accelerated bone loss following menopause?

<p>Sharp decline in estrogen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of osteoprotegerin in the bone remodeling process?

<p>Inhibits osteoclast activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Histologically, what cellular change is seen in osteoporosis?

<p>Increased adipocytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which biochemical marker, measured in serum, is specifically indicative of bone formation?

<p>Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tool has become the 'gold standard' for osteoporosis diagnosis?

<p>Densitometry (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the T-score range in densitometry that defines osteopenia?

<p>-1 to -2.5 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes osteomalacia?

<p>Defective mineralization of organic matrix (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of osteomalacia?

<p>Severe vitamin D deficiency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What vitamin deficiency states are specifically associated with osteomalacia or Rickets?

<p>Vitamin D Deficiency (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is most linked to Rickets and/or Osteomalacia?

<p>Lack of Vitamin D (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What alterations in serum concentrations are typically observed in osteomalacia?

<p>Low to normal calcium, low phosphate, alteration in vitamin D (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are pseudofractures (Looser zones)?

<p>Incomplete fractures due to compressive forces in osteomalacia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of osteomalacia, what does the term 'Impaired metabolism' refer to regarding bone?

<p>A decrease in hydroxyapatite within the bone matrix (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition can result in bowed legs or deformed bones?

<p>Lack of Vitamin D and weight bearing Activity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes primary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Excessive and uncontrolled neoplastic or hyperplastic parathyroid hormone production (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinctive bone change observed in hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Dissecting/tunnelling bone resorption (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

<p>Parathyroid adenoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome of increased osteoclast activity secondary to production of PTH?

<p>High parathyroid levels is going to stimulate more extraction of calcium from Bones (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three phases of Paget's disease of bone?

<p>Osteolytic, mixed, and osteoblastic/sclerotic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Diagnostic results of Paget's Disease include

<p>Osteitis deformans and elevated ALP (alkaline Phosphatase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Histologically, what pattern is seen in the acute phase of Paget's disease of bone?

<p>Focal mosaic pattern of lamellar bone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does osteolytic activity relate to sclerosteosis?

<p>A mutation occurs that goes unchecked. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding bone remodeling, what signifies the initiation of the process?

<p>Secretion of RANKL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

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Study Notes

Autoimmune Arthritis

  • Inflammatory and autoimmune processes can affect joints as part of systemic involvement.
  • Autoimmune arthritides include rheumatoid arthritis (RA), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), psoriatic arthritis, Behçet disease, and ankylosing spondylitis.
  • Systemic autoimmune arthritides and 'connective tissue disorders' are often used interchangeably.
  • Please also refer to immunology lectures.

Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • RA is a common, chronic, multisystem, progressive autoimmune disorder.
  • RA primarily involves the joints, but most patients have at least one other site of involvement.
  • Seldom can RA present with no joint involvement
  • Other sites of involvement include skin, lung, heart, pericardium, subcutis, vessels, salivary and lacrimal glands, with common presentations including rheumatoid nodules and vasculitis.
  • The incidence where Females > Males is 3:1
  • Approximately 0.5-1% of the population is affected, with variations in prevalence depending on ethnicity and a slight familial tendency.
  • If you have a family member with SLE or scleroderma, the likelihood of developing RA goes up substantially
  • Onset commonly occurs in the 30s and 40s across all age groups, with the disease following a progressive and relapsing-remitting course.
  • Some may first be diagnosed in their 70s that have had it since 30s/40s
  • Rheumatoid arthritis is most commonly seen as a pediatric arthritis
  • 75% of patients are HLA-DR4 positive.
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis is unrelated to rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease which is caused by post-streptococcal infection.

Immunology of Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • Raised serum Ig is typical, often exhibiting a characteristic antibody against Ig, known as Rheumatoid Factor (RF).
  • Not everyone who has RF is positive will have RA, and vice versa
  • Seronegative arthritis is RF negative, at least initially, with RF levels tending to correlate with severity.
  • RF levels may sero convert over time
  • Evidence indicates that disease progression is driven more by cellular immune mechanisms than humoral ones.
  • Cellular & humoral immune responses are both adaptive immunity

Pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • RA is initiated by CD4+ helper T cells.
  • Exact triggers are mostly unknown, with interplay between susceptibility genes (HLA) and environmental factors.
  • A lot of patients have a history of infection
  • Failure of immune tolerance, and more common in smokers/ex smokers
  • Pathological changes are mediated by cytokines released by CD4+ T cells in a immune cascade.
  • HLA-DR4 is the susceptibility gene
  • IFN-γ from Th1 cells activates macrophages and resident synovial cells.
  • IL-17 from Th17 cells recruits neutrophils and monocytes.
  • RANKL expressed on activated T cells stimulates bone resorption.
  • TNF and IL-1 from macrophages stimulate resident synovial cells to secrete proteases that destroy hyaline cartilage.
  • TNF has become extremely important in treatment.

Stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • The four stages of RA include triggering, maturation, targeting, and fulminant.
  • Stage 1, Triggering stage involves anti-citrullinated peptide antibody (ACPA) production.
  • Elevated ACPA production is caused by a combination of genetics and environment.
  • Causal genetic factors include genes associated with MHC, particularly HLA-DR4 ("Shared epitope" hypothesis) and predicting response to treatment: HLA-DRB1, TRAF1, and others.
  • Environmental factors could be noxious agents such as smoke and silica and infectious agents, Epstein-Barr Virus, and dietary factors influencing the gut.
  • Stage 2, Maturation stage is initiated at the site of secondary lymphoid tissue or bone marrow.
  • Citrullination of proteins active T-cells and B-cells results in more ACPA production.
  • Stage 3, The Targeting Stage involves synovitis and joint swelling, and ACPA leads to elevation in cytokines e.g. TNF-alpha, IL-17A etc.
  • Stage 3 also involves infiltration of monocytes, macrophages, mast cells, DC cells, T and B cells which are the predominant cell types.
  • Stage 4, the Fulminant stage, involves pannus, and synovial hyperplasia encroaches on articular cartilage.
  • This involves an inappropriate attempts at healing & repair coupled with inflammation
  • There is bone and cartilage destruction, and impacts joint capsules and ligaments.
  • Fibrous fusion results in ankylosis.

Clinical Presentation of Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • Clinical presentation includes fatigue, malaise, musculoskeletal pain (worse in the morning), and localized joint symptoms persisting and progressing over weeks to months, and unpredictable course.
  • Wax and wanes, good days & bad days
  • Generally symmetrical and small joints >> large joints (usually distal→proximal progression and frequency).
  • Hands & feet
  • In hands and feet, MCP and PIP joints of all digits are affected, which leads to radial deviation of the wrist, ulnar deviation of the fingers, and flexion-hyperextension of fingers (swan-neck and boutonnière deformities).
  • Systemic symptoms and lesions vary, and can include pulmonary fibrosis from lung lesions and skin and subcutaneous nodules, and purpura, or range of other symptoms.
  • Sequelae include joint fusion, deformity of joints, disability, and side effects of immunosuppression.

Pathological Findings of Rheumatoid Arthritis in Joints

  • The result is a protein and lymphocyte rich inflammatory infiltrate.
  • Like in tonsils
  • This includes severe lymphocytosis in joints, lymphoid tissue with germinal centers and secondary follicles, and plasma cells producing autoantibodies including anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies/ACPAs, IgM and IgA against IgG Fc regions.
  • Oedematous, thickened, and hyperplastic synovium and fibrin rich exudate (pannus).
  • A pannus will form a layer on a surface.
  • Angiogenesis results in increased vascularity
  • Osteoclastic activity in subchondral bone lead to bone microcysts and collapse.
  • A fibrous ankylosis, which ossifies into bone, forms between the joint spaces
  • healing process similiar to a fracture

Pathological Findings - Extra-articular

  • Rheumatoid nodules are necrotic cores rimmed by palisaded macrophages (special type of granuloma), hand, arm, foot, elbow.
  • Necrobotic granuloma
  • Vasculitis is typically leukocytoclastic pattern, small and large arteries, purpura of skin and nails, ulcers of skin, can also affect internal organs such as the pleura, pericardium, and lung, leading to chronic pulmonary fibrosis, and eyes (uveitis and keratoconjunctivitis).
  • Non-healing
  • Tendonitis and myositis also occurs and contributes to deformities
  • Non-specific

Comparative Features of Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • Osteoarthritis is caused by mechanical injury to articular cartilage, while Rheumatoid Arthritis is autoimmunity.
  • Inflammation exacerbates cartilage damage in Osteoarthritis, while cartilage destruction is caused by T-cells and antibodies to joint antigens in Rheumatoid Arthritis.
  • Joint involvement is primarily weight bearing joints in Osteoarthritis while Rheumatoid Arthritis small joints of fingers and progresses to multiple joints.
  • Pathologically, Osteoarthritis has cartilage degeneration and fragmentation, bone spurs, subchondral cysts; minimal inflammation whereas Rheumatoid Arthritis has inflammatory pannus invading and destroying cartilage; severe chronic inflammation; joint fusion (ankylosis).
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis has various antibodies present, including ACPA and rheumatoid factor.
  • Osteoarthritis has no serum antibodies while Rheumatoid Arthritis involvement extends to other organs (lungs, heart, others).

Crystal Arthropathies: Urate (Gout)

  • Hyperuricemia leads to precipitation of urate crystals in joints, activation of inflammatory cascade, tissue damage, and formation of articular and subcutaneous tophi.
  • Gout usually appears after 20-30 years of hyperuricemia.
  • About 10% of individuals with hyperuricemia develop gout.
  • Risk factors to Gout include age of the person and duration of the hyperuricemia, sex (males > females), genetic predisposition including X-linked HGPRT abnormalities and some inherited forms, alcohol consumption, diet including high urates (offal, red meat, soft drinks, seafood, beer, corn syrup), and the use of thiazides.

Crystal Arthropathies: CPPD (Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease)

  • CPPD is caused by calcium pyrophosphate deposition.
  • This used to be known a Pseudo gout
  • Usually people over 50 are affected, mostly asymptomatic and may be associated with same process that causes DJD.
  • degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis)
  • If symptoms present it is very similar to Gout , however treatment is different as there is no specific management (symptom relief only).

Reactive (postinfectious) arthritis

  • Immunologically mediated, not due to direct joint infection.
  • This is a common Differential Diagnosis for young people with joint pain
  • Reactive arthritis has a Triad of arthritis, nongonococcal urethritis or cervicitis and conjunctivitis.
  • Includes mono or oligoarticular arthritis that occurs days to weeks after genitourinary (Chlamydia) or gastrointestinal infection (Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia, Campylobacter and others).
  • Usually lasts for up to 6 months, symptoms may recur and if chronic can result in joint fusion and tendon changes.

Septic Arthritis / Osteomyelitis

  • Refer to microbiology notes and workshop specimens.

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