Auto-flight Systems and Backup Navigation
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What is represented by the term 'GROUND SPD MINI'?

  • The cruising speed of the aircraft
  • The average ground speed during flight
  • The maximum speed at which the aircraft can land
  • The minimum energy level at touchdown (correct)
  • What is the lowest speed target for landing?

  • VFE of Next Configuration in CONF 1
  • VFE -5 in CONF FULL
  • VLS
  • VAPP speed (correct)
  • How is VAPP computed when considering TWR HWC?

  • VAPP = VLS + 10kts
  • VAPP = VLS + 15kts
  • VAPP = VLS + (1/2 of the TWR HWC)
  • VAPP = VLS + (1/3 of the TWR HWC), or VAPP = VLS + 5kts (correct)
  • What is the gust speed target above 400ft?

    <p>GS Mini Speed Target = VAPP + (CURRENT HWC - TWR HWC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario is A Floor protection inhibited?

    <p>In the case of engine failure with flaps extended</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when the MMR can track 4 or more satellites?

    <p>It enters NAV mode and supplies data to ADIRUs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition must be met for the Predictive WindShear System to work properly during descent?

    <p>ATC should be on XPDR or Auto.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following alerts is inhibited during landing below 50ft RA?

    <p>Warning alerts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature assists the crew in escaping WindShear?

    <p>ALPHA FLOOR.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what altitude does the Predictive WindShear indication appear on the ND for the A333?

    <p>Below 1500ft.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum ground speed for A333 during which Predictive WindShear alerts will be available?

    <p>30 KT.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum number of satellites needed for the MMR to begin entering ALTAID mode?

    <p>3 satellites.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a condition for the Reactive WindShear alerts to be active?

    <p>Must be with at least CONF 1.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What controls the outboard ailerons at high speeds above 190 knots in CONF 0?

    <p>They are controlled to zero</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which condition are speed brakes inhibited?

    <p>When MLA is active</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do ground spoilers extend during a rejected takeoff?

    <p>Automatically when thrust is set to idle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a condition for the full extension of ground spoilers during landing?

    <p>When thrust levers are at idle and armed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition activates wing tip brakes?

    <p>Asymmetrical conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hydraulic power sources supply the wing tip brakes?

    <p>Blue and Green hydraulic power for Slats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what point during landing does flight mode change to flare mode?

    <p>At 100 feet altitude</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when both the APU generator and External B are connected?

    <p>Simultaneous use is not allowed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the backup for the inner ailerons on the aircraft?

    <p>SECs 1 and 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component supplies emergency AC power to the aircraft's electrical systems when all main generators fail?

    <p>Emergency Generator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum power output of the emergency generator when the RAT is powering it below 260 knots?

    <p>3.5 KVA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long can the batteries supply power when used alone?

    <p>30 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of voltage do the AC generators provide?

    <p>115/200V</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which generator can supply the entire electrical network of the aircraft?

    <p>Either Engine Generator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority order for supplying power to each AC BUS?

    <p>Engine Generator &gt; APU Generator &gt; External A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the power output of the Static Inverter?

    <p>2.5 KVA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What caution message is associated with Mode 1 of the GPWS?

    <p>SINK RATE, SINK RATE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mode of GPWS warns of excessive terrain closure rate?

    <p>Mode 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when the GPWS system is turned off?

    <p>All basic GPWS alerts are inhibited</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) do?

    <p>Displays terrain and predicts terrain conflicts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which caution message is activated during Mode 4 when the gear is up?

    <p>TOO LOW GEAR</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the EGPWS on the A332 use to compute the aircraft's relative height?

    <p>Captains BARO setting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the event of a failure in predictive GPS, which mode of GPWS is reactivated?

    <p>Mode 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens if the FMS position accuracy is insufficient on an A333?

    <p>Enhanced TCF and TAD modes are disabled</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the conditions under which auto retraction of flaps is inhibited?

    <p>When TOGA is selected.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what speed does the auto retraction of flaps occur when CONF 1 + F is selected?

    <p>200kt</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of Maneuver Load Alleviation (MLA)?

    <p>To reduce wing bending moments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which components are utilized by the MLA system to alleviate load?

    <p>Spoilers and ailerons.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which conditions is the Flap Load Relief System (FLRS) available?

    <p>In CONF 2, 3, and FULL.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when the speed exceeds VFE while FLRS is activated?

    <p>The flaps retract to the next lever position.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary condition for the Turbulence Damping Function to be active?

    <p>AP must be engaged and normal law must be active.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When does the Flap Load Relief System (FLRS) return flaps to the normal lever position?

    <p>When speed is reduced to VFE - 2.5kt.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Auto-flight (ATA-22)

    • Flight Management (FM) controls navigation radio management, performance prediction, flight planning, and display management
    • Flight Guidance (FG) controls autopilot (AP), flight director (FD), and auto thrust (A/THR) commands
    • Flight Envelope (FE) manages flight envelope and speed calculations, monitoring of parameters by FG/FE, and wind shear/CG detection

    Backup NAV

    • Provides functions for flight planning, aircraft position using onside IRS, IRS 3, or GPIRS, F-PLN on ND display, no AP/FD NAV mode, limited lateral revision, and F-PLN automatic sequencing
    • Maximum of 150 waypoints
    • Available backup NAV pages in MCDU (ref. A330: DSC 22_20 > 50-Controls and Indications > 10-MCDU – Page Description > FMS2 Thales > Back up NAV Pages/A332: replace FMS2 Thales with FMS2 Honeywell)

    Ground Speed Mini

    • Takes advantage of the aircraft's inertia during wind changes
    • Ensures ground speed is at or above GROUND SPEED MINI during approach
    • A/THR in speed mode automatically follows the speed target, efficiently managing thrust
    • Minimum energy level at touchdown (represented by GROUND SPD MINI)
    • Lowest speed target is VAPP, highest is VFE of the relevant configuration (CONF 1, 2, 3 or CONF FULL)

    Alpha Floor

    • A floor protection is triggered when the aircraft's angle of attack (AOA) is above a pre-determined threshold
    • A/THR is automatically activated and TOGA thrust is selected
    • Inhibited in case of engine failure (with flaps extended or de-rated TO selected), below 100ft at landing, and if Auto Thrust has failed

    LOC Convergence Function

    • Aims to help the aircraft intercept and capture the LOC axis, with a converging track of 20 NM from the LOC axis, when NAV mode is engaged, LOC mode is armed and the aircraft is within 20 NM of the destination runway, with the difference between the aircraft track and QFU being less than 20°
    • Enhanced LOC Capture function improves LOC capture, helping to avoid overshoot

    Land Mode

    • ENGAGEMENT CONDITIONS: LAND mode automatically engages when LOC and G/S modes are engaged and the aircraft is below 400 ft RA
    • DISENGAGEMENT CONDITIONS: LAND mode disengages upon go-around or when the flight crew engages the APPR pb. The LAND mode disables if the aircraft is on the ground for over 10 seconds.

    Electrics (ATA-24)

    • Two 3-phase AC generators driven by an IDG (115 KVA, 115/200V & 400 Hertz) providing enough power for the whole network
    • One generator covers the entire network
    • Each AC BUS is supplied in priority order by: Engine Generator, APU Generator, or External A/B (with External B having higher priority over External A)
    • Emergency Generator (8 KVA of three-phase 115/200V 400 Hz power) to supply the AC electrical systems if all main generators fail. But, 3.5 KVA of emergency power is used if the RAT drives the Green circuit and the aircraft speed is below 260kt.

    Land Recovery

    • When pressed, AC LAND RECOVERY and DC LAND RECOVERY buses recover, with all related equipments recovering (LGCIU 1, SFCC 1, BSCU channel 1, LH windshield anti-ice, LH landing light)
    • 260kt is the max speed for aircraft to work with the emergency generator.
    • Fuel pump also shuts down.

    Flight Control

    • 3 PRIM Computers that handle normal, alternate, and direct law operations, speed brake or ground spoiler control, and protection speed computation
    • 2 SEC Computers that handle direct law operations (including Yaw damper function),rudder trim, travel,and peddle limiter, allowing for control of the aircraft with total electrical failure of PRIMs (or a single PRIM failure)

    Alpha Floor Protection

    • MLA(Maneuver Load Alleviation) protects the wings from bending moments during high load factors. Uses spoilers 4,5,6 and ailerons for protection at speeds of greater than 250kt.

    Fuel System (ATA-28)

    • The wings have inner and outer tanks, each inner tank containing a fuel collector cell to maintain a fuel reservoir for the booster pumps. It will protect from negative G-force.
    • Each collector cell has two main pumps, and a standby pump located outside each cell
    • Fuel can expand by 2% with a 20°C increase in temperature
    • Two FCMC computers that calculate Aircraft GW and CG using the ZFW and CG provided by the crew
    • A X-Feed valve is associated with each engine to allow any pump to supply any engine.

    Forward Fuel Transfer

    • Transfers fuel from the center tank to the inner tanks
    • Trim tanks transfer to the inner tanks.
    • Outer tanks transfer to the inner tanks when the level drops
    • Fuel transfers for 33 mins for A332, and 25 mins for A333, with dual coupling for A333 being faster
    • Fuel in the tank can expands by 2%. 5000 kg of minimum fuel is required for takeoff
    • Temperature of the fuel should be within -47°C to +55°C.

    Engines

    • Low-pressure, intermediate pressure, and high-pressure components (involves multiple compressors and turbines stages, fuel nozzles and igniters).
    • Engine operation, (and start-up) sequences.

    Hydraulics

    • Three hydraulic systems (Green: ENG 1, ENG 2, Electric pump, and RAT; Blue: ENG 1 and Electric; Yellow: ENG 2 and Electric/hand pump)
    • Operation when one or more engines fail, the RAT automatically activates to generate power, and the operation logic. In flight.
    • The electric pump runs for 25 seconds after the flap selector switches to the up position when an engagement. Ensures timely gear retraction
    • Operation and interactions of components (pumps, accumulators, bleeds)

    Landing Gear

    • Each main gear has a four wheel, twin tandem bogie assembly with an oleo pneumatic shock absorber.
    • Hydraulic system is automatically isolated by closing a safety valve above 280kt. This valve remains closed until the landing gear is selected, and the speed is below 280kt.
    • LGCIUs receive landing gear position and status data and transmits the data to other aircraft systems
    • Nose Wheel Steering uses two actuators powered by the Green Hydraulic system.
    • Brakes use carbon multidisc brakes, with normal systems using Green Hydraulic system and alternate system using Blue HYD (backed up by the hydraulic accumulator).

    Antiskid System

    • Deactivates below 10kt (Ground Speed)
    • Compares the speed of each main gear wheel to the reference speed.
    • Brake release orders are given if the speed of the wheel is below 0.88 times reference speed.
    • Reference speed is calculated by BSCU with information from ADIRU1,2,or 3
    • The system activates on command of the Ground Spoiler extension
    • A system to protect the wheels are from locking up
    • Describes the different sensors measuring attitude and status, including pitot tubes, static pressure probes, angle-of-attack sensors, total air temperature probes, and 8 air-data modules
    • Details of GPS system and how the data from multiple GPS satellites is used for navigation.
    • Explains predictive WindShear system, and how the system operates.

    GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System)

    • Explanation of how GPWS alerts are generated
    • Describes different modes (e.g., Mode 1 to 5), including specific warnings for terrain closure, too low terrain, and descending below the glide slope. Explains how the GPWS interacts with other systems.

    TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)

    • Explains how TCAS alerts operate.
    • Descriptions of different modes based on proximity to other aircraft, and different types of alerts.

    APU (Auxiliary Power Unit)

    • Powering and operation of the APU, with the system's maximum and minimum operating limits during different configurations, and start and stop sequences given.

    Weights

    • Lists various weight components of the aircraft, including taxi fuel, reserve fuel, and passenger/cargo load
    • Provides figures for taxi weight, takeoff weight operational empty weight ,zero fuel weight, and weights for various other parts of the aircraft.

    Other

    • Tail strike tolerance, Altimeter toleranced, and RVSM conditions
    • BUSS system operation

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    Description

    This quiz covers key concepts in auto-flight systems, including Flight Management, Flight Guidance, and Flight Envelope functionalities. Additionally, it addresses the importance of backup navigation systems and their capabilities in ensuring safe flight operations. Test your knowledge on these vital aviation elements.

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