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Questions and Answers
A patient with intermittent asthma requires a quick-relief medication for acute bronchospasm. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial agent?
A patient with intermittent asthma requires a quick-relief medication for acute bronchospasm. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial agent?
- Inhaled Fluticasone
- Inhaled Salmeterol
- Inhaled Albuterol (correct)
- Oral Prednisone
Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs) are indicated for long-term control of asthma but should always be prescribed in conjunction with which class of medication?
Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs) are indicated for long-term control of asthma but should always be prescribed in conjunction with which class of medication?
- Short-acting beta-2 agonists (SABAs)
- Leukotriene modifiers
- Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) (correct)
- Anticholinergics
Which of the following inhaled corticosteroids is available for asthma management?
Which of the following inhaled corticosteroids is available for asthma management?
- Fluticasone (correct)
- Cromolyn
- Montelukast
- Zileuton
A patient with moderate persistent asthma is currently managed with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. According to asthma guidelines, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in long-term control?
A patient with moderate persistent asthma is currently managed with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. According to asthma guidelines, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in long-term control?
Which leukotriene modifier acts by inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase, thus reducing leukotriene production?
Which leukotriene modifier acts by inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase, thus reducing leukotriene production?
A patient with exercise-induced asthma requires a medication to prevent bronchospasm prior to exercise. Which of the following agents is MOST suitable for this purpose?
A patient with exercise-induced asthma requires a medication to prevent bronchospasm prior to exercise. Which of the following agents is MOST suitable for this purpose?
Which of the following medications for asthma has a narrow therapeutic index and requires drug level monitoring?
Which of the following medications for asthma has a narrow therapeutic index and requires drug level monitoring?
Ipratropium is classified as which type of respiratory medication?
Ipratropium is classified as which type of respiratory medication?
According to COPD treatment guidelines, a patient in Group A (low risk, fewer symptoms) should initially be treated with which of the following?
According to COPD treatment guidelines, a patient in Group A (low risk, fewer symptoms) should initially be treated with which of the following?
For a COPD patient in Group D (high risk, more symptoms), which of the following is a recommended initial treatment strategy?
For a COPD patient in Group D (high risk, more symptoms), which of the following is a recommended initial treatment strategy?
In COPD management, when are inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) typically recommended?
In COPD management, when are inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) typically recommended?
Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with inhaled corticosteroid use and can be minimized by rinsing the mouth after inhalation?
Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with inhaled corticosteroid use and can be minimized by rinsing the mouth after inhalation?
A patient is prescribed intranasal phenylephrine for allergic rhinitis. What duration of use should be recommended to minimize the risk of rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa)?
A patient is prescribed intranasal phenylephrine for allergic rhinitis. What duration of use should be recommended to minimize the risk of rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa)?
Which class of medications is considered the MOST effective for treating allergic rhinitis?
Which class of medications is considered the MOST effective for treating allergic rhinitis?
First-generation antihistamines are associated with which common adverse effects that are less pronounced with second-generation agents?
First-generation antihistamines are associated with which common adverse effects that are less pronounced with second-generation agents?
A patient with allergic rhinitis also has hypertension. Which class of decongestants should be used with caution, especially in oral formulations?
A patient with allergic rhinitis also has hypertension. Which class of decongestants should be used with caution, especially in oral formulations?
Which of the following is an example of a second-generation antihistamine?
Which of the following is an example of a second-generation antihistamine?
Benzonatate is an antitussive medication that works through which mechanism?
Benzonatate is an antitussive medication that works through which mechanism?
Which of the following antitussive agents is a synthetic derivative of morphine but with a better adverse effect profile?
Which of the following antitussive agents is a synthetic derivative of morphine but with a better adverse effect profile?
For which type of cough is benzonatate typically considered most appropriate?
For which type of cough is benzonatate typically considered most appropriate?
A patient taking theophylline for asthma should be monitored for signs of toxicity. Which of the following adverse effects is MOST indicative of theophylline toxicity?
A patient taking theophylline for asthma should be monitored for signs of toxicity. Which of the following adverse effects is MOST indicative of theophylline toxicity?
Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody used in severe persistent asthma that works by binding to and inhibiting IgE?
Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody used in severe persistent asthma that works by binding to and inhibiting IgE?
Systemic corticosteroids, like oral prednisone, are used in asthma for which specific purpose?
Systemic corticosteroids, like oral prednisone, are used in asthma for which specific purpose?
What is a critical step in using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to ensure effective medication delivery to the lungs?
What is a critical step in using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to ensure effective medication delivery to the lungs?
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of COPD?
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of COPD?
According to the provided information, what is considered the first-line oral treatment for erectile dysfunction?
According to the provided information, what is considered the first-line oral treatment for erectile dysfunction?
Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors, such as sildenafil and tadalafil, exert their therapeutic effect in erectile dysfunction by preventing the degradation of which intracellular signaling molecule?
Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors, such as sildenafil and tadalafil, exert their therapeutic effect in erectile dysfunction by preventing the degradation of which intracellular signaling molecule?
Based on the provided chart, which of the following PDE-5 inhibitors has the most rapid onset of action, reaching peak concentration in approximately 30-45 minutes?
Based on the provided chart, which of the following PDE-5 inhibitors has the most rapid onset of action, reaching peak concentration in approximately 30-45 minutes?
Which PDE-5 inhibitor is noted for its extended duration of action, allowing for consideration of once-daily dosing?
Which PDE-5 inhibitor is noted for its extended duration of action, allowing for consideration of once-daily dosing?
How does the consumption of a high-fat meal affect the absorption of sildenafil and vardenafil?
How does the consumption of a high-fat meal affect the absorption of sildenafil and vardenafil?
A patient taking a PDE-5 inhibitor reports experiencing a temporary bluish tinge to their vision. Which of the following pharmacological mechanisms is the MOST likely explanation for this adverse effect?
A patient taking a PDE-5 inhibitor reports experiencing a temporary bluish tinge to their vision. Which of the following pharmacological mechanisms is the MOST likely explanation for this adverse effect?
Why is the concurrent use of nitrates contraindicated in patients taking PDE-5 inhibitors?
Why is the concurrent use of nitrates contraindicated in patients taking PDE-5 inhibitors?
What is the primary mechanism of action of alprostadil in the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
What is the primary mechanism of action of alprostadil in the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
Which of the following is a common route of administration for alprostadil in the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
Which of the following is a common route of administration for alprostadil in the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
What is the typical duration of action for alprostadil when administered via intraurethral suppository?
What is the typical duration of action for alprostadil when administered via intraurethral suppository?
What is the primary mechanism of action of alpha-1 antagonists in the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
What is the primary mechanism of action of alpha-1 antagonists in the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
What is the main clinical benefit of using alpha-1 antagonists in the management of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
What is the main clinical benefit of using alpha-1 antagonists in the management of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
To minimize the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with alpha-1 antagonists, when is the MOST appropriate time to administer these medications?
To minimize the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with alpha-1 antagonists, when is the MOST appropriate time to administer these medications?
Floppy iris syndrome is a potential adverse effect associated with alpha-1 antagonists and is of particular concern in patients undergoing which type of surgery?
Floppy iris syndrome is a potential adverse effect associated with alpha-1 antagonists and is of particular concern in patients undergoing which type of surgery?
What is the mechanism of action of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors in treating Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
What is the mechanism of action of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors in treating Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
How long does it typically take for 5-alpha reductase inhibitors to demonstrate a noticeable therapeutic effect in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
How long does it typically take for 5-alpha reductase inhibitors to demonstrate a noticeable therapeutic effect in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
What is a significant long-term difference in the effects of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors compared to alpha-1 antagonists in the management of BPH?
What is a significant long-term difference in the effects of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors compared to alpha-1 antagonists in the management of BPH?
What is a major adverse effect of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors that necessitates caution in handling the medication, particularly for women of childbearing potential?
What is a major adverse effect of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors that necessitates caution in handling the medication, particularly for women of childbearing potential?
If monotherapy with an alpha-1 antagonist is insufficient to manage a patient's BPH symptoms, what is a recommended next step in pharmacological treatment, according to the information provided?
If monotherapy with an alpha-1 antagonist is insufficient to manage a patient's BPH symptoms, what is a recommended next step in pharmacological treatment, according to the information provided?
A patient is prescribed vardenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications should be avoided or used with extreme caution due to the risk of QT prolongation and potential for serious cardiac arrhythmias?
A patient is prescribed vardenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications should be avoided or used with extreme caution due to the risk of QT prolongation and potential for serious cardiac arrhythmias?
Flashcards
Drug with Narrow Therapeutic Window
Drug with Narrow Therapeutic Window
Theophylline
Short-Acting Beta-2 Agonists (SABA)
Short-Acting Beta-2 Agonists (SABA)
Albuterol, Levalbuterol
Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonists (LABA)
Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonists (LABA)
Salmeterol, Formoterol
Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICS)
Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICS)
Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Fluticasone, Mometasone
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Systemic Corticosteroids
Systemic Corticosteroids
Prednisone, Methylprednisolone
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Leukotriene Modifiers
Leukotriene Modifiers
Zileuton, Zafirlukast, Montelukast
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Short-Acting Cholinergic Antagonist
Short-Acting Cholinergic Antagonist
Ipratropium
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Long-Acting Cholinergic Antagonist
Long-Acting Cholinergic Antagonist
Tiotropium
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Anti-IgE Monoclonal Antibody
Anti-IgE Monoclonal Antibody
Omalizumab
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Interleukin-5 Antagonists
Interleukin-5 Antagonists
Mepolizumab, Benralizumab, Reslizumab
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Initial COPD Treatment (Group A)
Initial COPD Treatment (Group A)
Bronchodilator (SABA, LABA), LAMA
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Initial COPD Treatment (Group B)
Initial COPD Treatment (Group B)
LAMA or LABA
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Initial COPD Treatment (Group C)
Initial COPD Treatment (Group C)
LAMA + LABA or LABA + ICS
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Initial COPD Treatment (Group D)
Initial COPD Treatment (Group D)
LAMA + LABA + ICS
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Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonists (LABA) for COPD
Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonists (LABA) for COPD
Indacaterol, Olodaterol, Vilanterol, Aformoterol, Formoterol, Salmeterol
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Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonists (LAMA)
Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonists (LAMA)
Aclidinium, Tiotropium, Glycopyrrolate, Umeclidinium
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Second-Generation Antihistamines
Second-Generation Antihistamines
Claritin, Zyrtec, Allegra
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Intranasal Corticosteroids for Allergic Rhinitis
Intranasal Corticosteroids for Allergic Rhinitis
Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Fluticasone, Mometasone, Triamcinolone
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Intranasal decongestants (Alpha agonists)
Intranasal decongestants (Alpha agonists)
Phenylephrine, Oxymetazoline
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Contraindications with Pseudoephedrine
Contraindications with Pseudoephedrine
HTN, tachycardia, palpitations, insomnia
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Treatment for Exercise-Induced Asthma
Treatment for Exercise-Induced Asthma
SABA
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Agent for non-productive cough
Agent for non-productive cough
Benzonatate
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Cough Suppressants
Cough Suppressants
Opioids (Codeine, Dextromethorphan)
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What is Erectile Dysfunction (ED)?
What is Erectile Dysfunction (ED)?
The inability to achieve or maintain a penile erection for satisfactory sexual activity; first-line treatment is PDE-5 inhibitors.
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Duration of Action (DOA) of PDE-5 Inhibitors?
Duration of Action (DOA) of PDE-5 Inhibitors?
PDE-5 inhibitors: Sildenafil and vardenafil - ~4 hours. Tadalafil - up to 36 hours. Avanafil - shortest duration.
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Contraindications with PDE5 inhibitors?
Contraindications with PDE5 inhibitors?
Men on nitrates for angina, as it can cause severe hypotension. Also dronedarone with vardenafil.
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Mechanism of Action: PDE-5 Inhibitors
Mechanism of Action: PDE-5 Inhibitors
PDE-5 inhibitors increase cGMP, leading to smooth muscle relaxation, vasodilation, and increased blood flow into the corpus cavernosum.
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Common Side Effects of PDE-5 Inhibitors
Common Side Effects of PDE-5 Inhibitors
Headache, flushing, dyspepsia, nasal congestion, and visual disturbances (PDE-6 inhibition).
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Gynecomastia: Side effect of which drug class?
Gynecomastia: Side effect of which drug class?
5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors
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Drugs Affecting Urinary Flow vs. Prostate Size
Drugs Affecting Urinary Flow vs. Prostate Size
Alpha-1 antagonists (e.g., tamsulosin) are prescribed to improve urinary flow, while 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (e.g., finasteride) shrink the prostate.
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Handling Precautions: 5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors
Handling Precautions: 5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors
Pregnant women should not handle finasteride or dutasteride due to teratogenic effects. Wear gloves.
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Medications Increasing Cataract Risks
Medications Increasing Cataract Risks
Alpha-1 antagonists like tamsulosin, used for BPH, increase the risk of floppy iris syndrome during cataract surgery.
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Alpha-1 Antagonists: Disease Progression?
Alpha-1 Antagonists: Disease Progression?
Alpha-1 Antagonists do NOT stop disease progression; they help symptomatically.
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Alpha-1 selectivity: Benefit of alpha-1a?
Alpha-1 selectivity: Benefit of alpha-1a?
Alpha-1a-selective antagonists (Tamsulosin, Silodosin) target prostate receptors, reducing risk of systemic hypotension compared to Alpha-1a/1b-antagonists.
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Erectile Dysfunction (ED)
- ED involves the inability to maintain a penile erection for successful sexual activity.
- Causes include vascular disease, diabetes, depression, hypertension (HTN), multiple sclerosis (MS), medications, and prostatic surgery.
- First-line treatment for ED is PDE-5 inhibitors.
- Other treatments include alprostadil and penile implants.
Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) Inhibitors
- Mechanism of Action (MOA): Inhibit PDE-5 degradation of cGMP, allowing cGMP-mediated arteriole smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus cavernosum, leading to increased blood flow and prolonged erection.
- First-line treatment for ED.
- Agents include sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil, and avanafil.
PDE-5 Inhibitors: Duration of Action (DOA) and Peak Concentration
- Avanafil: Time to peak concentration is 30-45 minutes (fastest).
- Sildenafil & Vardenafil: Take 1 hour before activity, on an empty stomach, DOA approximately 4 hours.
- Sildenafil: Time to peak concentration is 60 minutes.
- Vardenafil: Time to peak concentration is 60 minutes.
- Tadalafil: Longer time to peak (120 minutes), but has a longer DOA, allowing for once-daily dosing or PRN use.
- Avanafil: Quickest onset.
PDE-5 Inhibitors: Kinetics
- Sildenafil and Vardenafil: Take 1 hour before activity on an empty stomach; duration of action approximately 4 hours.
- Tadalafil: Longer time to peak, longer duration of action allows for once-daily dosing or PRN.
- Avanafil: Quickest onset.
- All are metabolized by CYP3A4.
- Dose adjustment is required in mild to moderate hepatic impairment.
- Avoid use in severe hepatic impairment.
- Food interaction: The absorbtion of Sildenafil and Vardenafil is reduced when taken with fatty foods.
PDE-5 Inhibitors: Adverse Drug Events (ADEs)
- Most common side effects include headache, flushing, dyspepsia, and nasal congestion.
- Disturbances of color vision (PDE-6 inhibition) may occur (blue tinted vision).
- Sudden hearing loss is a possible side effect.
- Tadalafil can cause back pain and myalgias (PDE-11 inhibition).
- Priapism is a rare, medical emergency (longer than 4 hours).
PDE-5 Inhibitors: Interactions
- Contraindicated with nitrates.
- Additive hypotensive effects with alpha-blockers (typically end in "zosin").
- Decrease the dose with potent 3A4 inhibitors.
- Do not use vardenafil with dronedarone due to QT prolongation.
Alpha-Blockers for ED
- Additive hypotensive effects with alpha-blockers.
Alprostadil
- MOA: Synthetic prostaglandin E1 that allows for relaxation of smooth muscle and arteriole dilation in the corpus cavernosum, increasing blood flow and causing prolonged erection.
- Administered as an intraurethral suppository or intrapenile injection.
- Used in patients who are not candidates for oral therapy, also in patients on nitrates.
- Kinetics: Minimal systemic absorption. Its also used in patients on Mitrates or any patient taking nitrates.
- Suppository: Onset in 5-10 minutes, duration 30-60 minutes.
- Injection: Onset in 2-25 minutes, duration 30-60 minutes.
- Adverse effects include hypotension (rare), headache (rare), local penile, urethral, and testicular pain, and priapism.
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
- Characterized by benign enlargement of the prostate gland, which encroaches on the urethra, causing urinary hesitancy and frequency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying.
- Significantly impacts quality of life
- Pharmacologic therapies include alpha-1 antagonists, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors, and phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors.
- Tadalafil can be used for BPH, sometimes in combination with other BPH medications.
Alpha-1 Antagonists for BPH
- MOA: Block alpha-1 receptors in the prostate, leading to smooth muscle relaxation.
- Doxazosin, terazosin, and alfuzosin affect both alpha-1a and alpha-1b receptors, greater risk of hypotension.
- Tamsulosin and silodosin are more selective for alpha-1a receptors and preferred and help to relieve BPH symptoms.
- Used to improve urine flow and provide symptomatic improvement in BPH but do not reduce prostate size or stop disease progression.
- Agents include terazosin, doxazosin, alfuzosin, tamsulosin, and silodosin.
Alpha-1 Antagonists: Kinetics
- Administered orally with food.
- Duration is 8-22 hours, with peak effect 1-4 hours after administration.
- Silodosin requires dose adjustment in renal impairment and is contraindicated if severe.
- Take at BEDTIME to reduce risk of fainting!.
Alpha-1 Antagonists: Adverse Drug Events (ADEs)
- Dizziness, headache, orthostatic hypotension, drowsiness, nasal congestion, and tachycardia, retrograde ejaculation.
- Inhibition of ejaculation, retrograde ejaculation.
- Floppy iris syndrome during eye surgery (risk for cataract surgery)
- Alfuzosin has QT prolongation.
5-alpha Reductase Inhibitors for BPH
- Used to treat BPH with testes > 40g.
- MOA: Inhibit 5-alpha reductase, blocking the conversion of testosterone to DHT, preventing DHT stimulation of the prostate, leading to prostate shrinkage and improved urine flow, SLOW Dx progression!.
- Used to decrease prostate size and improve symptoms in BPH.
- Takes 6-12 months to be effective, takes long time.
- Can be combined with alpha-1 antagonists if BPH drug didn't work alone
- Agents include finasteride and dutasteride
- Takes 6-12 months to be effective.
5-alpha Reductase Inhibitors: Adverse Drug Events (ADEs)
- Sexual dysfunction, even after discontinuation.
- Decreased ejaculate, decreased libido, ED.
- Gynecomastia.
- Oligospermia/Low sperm count.
- Teratogenic: Women who are pregnant or of childbearing age should not handle the medication, as it can be absorbed through the skin!
- Reversible! If stop the agent, Side effects may reduce.
Agent That Increases Risk of Cataracts
- Floppy iris syndrome, a side effect of alpha-1 antagonists, increases the risk for cataract surgery.
Unique Handling Requirement
- Women who are pregnant or of childbearing age should not handle finasteride or dutasteride (5-alpha reductase inhibitors) due to teratogenic effects and skin absorption.
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