Podcast
Questions and Answers
Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of cholinergic antagonists?
Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of cholinergic antagonists?
- Enhancing the release of acetylcholine into the synapse.
- Inhibiting the synthesis of choline within the neuron.
- Binding to cholinoceptors and preventing the effects of acetylcholine. (correct)
- Promoting the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.
The term 'anticholinergic' is often used to describe drugs that block muscarinic receptors. Why is this term considered a misnomer?
The term 'anticholinergic' is often used to describe drugs that block muscarinic receptors. Why is this term considered a misnomer?
- Because these drugs actually enhance the effects of acetylcholine.
- Because these drugs also significantly affect nicotinic receptors.
- Because these drugs only antagonize muscarinic receptors. (correct)
- Because these drugs primarily affect adrenergic receptors, not cholinergic receptors.
A patient is experiencing excessive salivation and increased bronchial secretions. Which class of cholinergic antagonist would be most appropriate to alleviate these symptoms?
A patient is experiencing excessive salivation and increased bronchial secretions. Which class of cholinergic antagonist would be most appropriate to alleviate these symptoms?
- Cholinesterase inhibitors
- Ganglionic blockers
- Antimuscarinic agents (correct)
- Neuromuscular-blocking agents
Atropine is used as an antidote in certain types of poisoning because of its ability to:
Atropine is used as an antidote in certain types of poisoning because of its ability to:
A patient is administered atropine during an ophthalmic exam. Which of the following effects is most likely to occur?
A patient is administered atropine during an ophthalmic exam. Which of the following effects is most likely to occur?
Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use of scopolamine?
Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use of scopolamine?
Why are quaternary ammonium antimuscarinic drugs like ipratropium and tiotropium particularly useful in treating COPD?
Why are quaternary ammonium antimuscarinic drugs like ipratropium and tiotropium particularly useful in treating COPD?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which benztropine and trihexyphenidyl alleviate symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which benztropine and trihexyphenidyl alleviate symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
A patient with overactive bladder is prescribed an antimuscarinic agent. Which of the following is a common adverse effect they should be counseled about?
A patient with overactive bladder is prescribed an antimuscarinic agent. Which of the following is a common adverse effect they should be counseled about?
Which characteristic of trospium makes it a preferred choice for treating overactive bladder in elderly patients with dementia?
Which characteristic of trospium makes it a preferred choice for treating overactive bladder in elderly patients with dementia?
Why are ganglionic blockers rarely used therapeutically?
Why are ganglionic blockers rarely used therapeutically?
Nicotine's effects on the body are complex and depend on the dose. Which of the following is a typical effect of nicotine at low doses?
Nicotine's effects on the body are complex and depend on the dose. Which of the following is a typical effect of nicotine at low doses?
Neuromuscular-blocking agents are primarily used for what purpose in surgery?
Neuromuscular-blocking agents are primarily used for what purpose in surgery?
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers at low doses?
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers at low doses?
How can the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers be reversed?
How can the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers be reversed?
What is the mechanism of Hofmann elimination, as it relates to cisatracurium?
What is the mechanism of Hofmann elimination, as it relates to cisatracurium?
Which of the following best explains how halogenated hydrocarbon anesthetics enhance the effects of neuromuscular blockers?
Which of the following best explains how halogenated hydrocarbon anesthetics enhance the effects of neuromuscular blockers?
Succinylcholine is described as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. How does it cause muscle paralysis?
Succinylcholine is described as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. How does it cause muscle paralysis?
Which of the following adverse effects is specifically associated with succinylcholine due to its mechanism of action and metabolic effects?
Which of the following adverse effects is specifically associated with succinylcholine due to its mechanism of action and metabolic effects?
A patient with a known deficiency in plasma cholinesterase is administered succinylcholine. What is the primary concern in this situation?
A patient with a known deficiency in plasma cholinesterase is administered succinylcholine. What is the primary concern in this situation?
Which of the following is the primary reason succinylcholine is useful for rapid sequence intubation?
Which of the following is the primary reason succinylcholine is useful for rapid sequence intubation?
Which of the following medications would be LEAST likely to cause an increase in intraocular pressure?
Which of the following medications would be LEAST likely to cause an increase in intraocular pressure?
A patient undergoing surgery receives succinylcholine. Postoperatively, the patient experiences prolonged muscle paralysis and is found to have a genetic variant leading to reduced activity of pseudocholinesterase. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to manage this situation?
A patient undergoing surgery receives succinylcholine. Postoperatively, the patient experiences prolonged muscle paralysis and is found to have a genetic variant leading to reduced activity of pseudocholinesterase. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to manage this situation?
A researcher is investigating the effects of a novel drug on autonomic ganglia. The drug causes an initial increase in blood pressure and heart rate, followed by a decrease in both parameters. Which of the following mechanisms of action is most likely responsible for these effects?
A researcher is investigating the effects of a novel drug on autonomic ganglia. The drug causes an initial increase in blood pressure and heart rate, followed by a decrease in both parameters. Which of the following mechanisms of action is most likely responsible for these effects?
A patient with myasthenia gravis is being treated with a cholinesterase inhibitor. They develop bradycardia and increased salivation. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to counteract these side effects without affecting the primary treatment for myasthenia gravis?
A patient with myasthenia gravis is being treated with a cholinesterase inhibitor. They develop bradycardia and increased salivation. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to counteract these side effects without affecting the primary treatment for myasthenia gravis?
A patient with severe burns requires neuromuscular blockade. Which agent should be avoided, and why?
A patient with severe burns requires neuromuscular blockade. Which agent should be avoided, and why?
A patient is undergoing a surgical procedure, and the anesthesiologist administers both a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. What potential interaction should the surgical team be aware of?
A patient is undergoing a surgical procedure, and the anesthesiologist administers both a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and an aminoglycoside antibiotic. What potential interaction should the surgical team be aware of?
A researcher is studying the effects of different cholinergic antagonists on gastric acid secretion. Which of the following statements accurately describes the effect of atropine on gastric acid production?
A researcher is studying the effects of different cholinergic antagonists on gastric acid secretion. Which of the following statements accurately describes the effect of atropine on gastric acid production?
A patient with a history of angle-closure glaucoma is prescribed an antimuscarinic medication for overactive bladder. What is the primary concern in this scenario?
A patient with a history of angle-closure glaucoma is prescribed an antimuscarinic medication for overactive bladder. What is the primary concern in this scenario?
A researcher is studying the effects of a drug that selectively blocks M3 muscarinic receptors. Which of the following effects would be most likely observed?
A researcher is studying the effects of a drug that selectively blocks M3 muscarinic receptors. Which of the following effects would be most likely observed?
A patient in the ICU develops bradycardia and excessive respiratory secretions. The physician decides to administer atropine. What contraindication should the physician be most aware of before administering this agent?
A patient in the ICU develops bradycardia and excessive respiratory secretions. The physician decides to administer atropine. What contraindication should the physician be most aware of before administering this agent?
An experimental drug is found to selectively enhance the activity of plasma cholinesterase. How would this drug affect the duration of action of succinylcholine?
An experimental drug is found to selectively enhance the activity of plasma cholinesterase. How would this drug affect the duration of action of succinylcholine?
A 60-year-old male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed oxybutynin for overactive bladder. What potential complication related to his BPH should the physician monitor for?
A 60-year-old male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed oxybutynin for overactive bladder. What potential complication related to his BPH should the physician monitor for?
A patient receiving mechanical ventilation in the ICU requires frequent administration of neuromuscular blockers. Which strategy would be most effective in assessing the level of neuromuscular blockade and preventing over-paralysis?
A patient receiving mechanical ventilation in the ICU requires frequent administration of neuromuscular blockers. Which strategy would be most effective in assessing the level of neuromuscular blockade and preventing over-paralysis?
A new neuromuscular blocking drug, 'relaxium,' is being tested in clinical trials. Preliminary data suggests that it binds to a novel site on the nicotinic receptor, distinct from the acetylcholine binding site, and prevents ion channel opening. Cholinesterase inhibitors are found to be ineffective in reversing its effects. What is the most likely mechanism of action of 'relaxium'?
A new neuromuscular blocking drug, 'relaxium,' is being tested in clinical trials. Preliminary data suggests that it binds to a novel site on the nicotinic receptor, distinct from the acetylcholine binding site, and prevents ion channel opening. Cholinesterase inhibitors are found to be ineffective in reversing its effects. What is the most likely mechanism of action of 'relaxium'?
A patient with severe COPD is prescribed tiotropium via inhalation. The patient also starts taking an over-the-counter antihistamine containing diphenhydramine for allergy symptoms. What potential drug interaction should the patient be counselled about?
A patient with severe COPD is prescribed tiotropium via inhalation. The patient also starts taking an over-the-counter antihistamine containing diphenhydramine for allergy symptoms. What potential drug interaction should the patient be counselled about?
A researcher discovers a novel toxin that causes paralysis by selectively preventing the synthesis of choline. Which of the following drugs would be least effective in reversing the effects of this toxin?
A researcher discovers a novel toxin that causes paralysis by selectively preventing the synthesis of choline. Which of the following drugs would be least effective in reversing the effects of this toxin?
A patient is inadvertently administered an extremely high dose of atropine. Which of the following represents the most life-threatening immediate concern that requires prompt intervention?
A patient is inadvertently administered an extremely high dose of atropine. Which of the following represents the most life-threatening immediate concern that requires prompt intervention?
Which of the following is the most accurate term for drugs that selectively block muscarinic receptors?
Which of the following is the most accurate term for drugs that selectively block muscarinic receptors?
Atropine is effective in treating organophosphate poisoning due to its ability to:
Atropine is effective in treating organophosphate poisoning due to its ability to:
Which of the following is a common side effect associated with antimuscarinic drugs like oxybutynin used to treat overactive bladder?
Which of the following is a common side effect associated with antimuscarinic drugs like oxybutynin used to treat overactive bladder?
Which of the following describes the primary mechanism of action of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
Which of the following describes the primary mechanism of action of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
How do cholinesterase inhibitors reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
How do cholinesterase inhibitors reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
Succinylcholine causes muscle paralysis by:
Succinylcholine causes muscle paralysis by:
A patient with a deficiency in plasma cholinesterase is given succinylcholine. What is the primary concern?
A patient with a deficiency in plasma cholinesterase is given succinylcholine. What is the primary concern?
Which of the following correctly describes the effects of high doses of nicotine?
Which of the following correctly describes the effects of high doses of nicotine?
A patient is prescribed scopolamine. Which of the following actions of scopolamine should the patient be aware of?
A patient is prescribed scopolamine. Which of the following actions of scopolamine should the patient be aware of?
Which of the following interactions would be most likely to prolong neuromuscular blockade?
Which of the following interactions would be most likely to prolong neuromuscular blockade?
A patient undergoing surgery unexpectedly develops malignant hyperthermia after receiving succinylcholine. Which of the following is the most critical immediate step in managing this crisis?
A patient undergoing surgery unexpectedly develops malignant hyperthermia after receiving succinylcholine. Which of the following is the most critical immediate step in managing this crisis?
A researcher is studying the effects of a novel compound on neuromuscular transmission. The compound binds to nicotinic receptors but, unlike acetylcholine, causes a sustained depolarization of the motor endplate that is resistant to acetylcholinesterase. However, after prolonged exposure, the endplate repolarizes, but remains unresponsive to further stimulation. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this compound?
A researcher is studying the effects of a novel compound on neuromuscular transmission. The compound binds to nicotinic receptors but, unlike acetylcholine, causes a sustained depolarization of the motor endplate that is resistant to acetylcholinesterase. However, after prolonged exposure, the endplate repolarizes, but remains unresponsive to further stimulation. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this compound?
Which neuromuscular blocking agent is least dependent on renal or hepatic elimination?
Which neuromuscular blocking agent is least dependent on renal or hepatic elimination?
A patient with myasthenia gravis is started on pyridostigmine to manage muscle weakness. However, the patient also has a history of asthma. Which additional medication should be readily available?
A patient with myasthenia gravis is started on pyridostigmine to manage muscle weakness. However, the patient also has a history of asthma. Which additional medication should be readily available?
Which factor contributes most significantly to the short duration of action of succinylcholine?
Which factor contributes most significantly to the short duration of action of succinylcholine?
A patient undergoing general anesthesia receives a neuromuscular blocker. Post-operatively his TOF (train of four) stimulation indicates complete paralysis. Which drug would quickly reverse rocuronium or vecuronium?
A patient undergoing general anesthesia receives a neuromuscular blocker. Post-operatively his TOF (train of four) stimulation indicates complete paralysis. Which drug would quickly reverse rocuronium or vecuronium?
A novel drug is developed that selectively prevents choline transport into nerve terminals. Which of the following effects would you NOT expect to see?
A novel drug is developed that selectively prevents choline transport into nerve terminals. Which of the following effects would you NOT expect to see?
A 70-year-old male with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed oxybutynin for overactive bladder. Which potential complication should the physician closely monitor?
A 70-year-old male with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed oxybutynin for overactive bladder. Which potential complication should the physician closely monitor?
Flashcards
Cholinergic Antagonist
Cholinergic Antagonist
Agents that bind to cholinoceptors and prevent the effects of acetylcholine (ACh).
Antimuscarinic Agents
Antimuscarinic Agents
Drugs that selectively block muscarinic receptors, inhibiting muscarinic functions.
Ganglionic Blockers
Ganglionic Blockers
Drugs that block nicotinic receptors of sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia.
Neuromuscular-Blocking Agents
Neuromuscular-Blocking Agents
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Atropine
Atropine
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Mydriasis
Mydriasis
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Cycloplegia
Cycloplegia
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Xerostomia
Xerostomia
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Scopolamine
Scopolamine
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Ipratropium
Ipratropium
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Glycopyrrolate, Tiotropium, Aclidinium
Glycopyrrolate, Tiotropium, Aclidinium
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Tropicamide & Cyclopentolate
Tropicamide & Cyclopentolate
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Benztropine & Trihexyphenidyl
Benztropine & Trihexyphenidyl
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Oxybutynin, Darifenacin, Solifenacin
Oxybutynin, Darifenacin, Solifenacin
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Nicotine
Nicotine
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Neuromuscular-Blocking Agents
Neuromuscular-Blocking Agents
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Competitive Blockers
Competitive Blockers
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Sugammadex
Sugammadex
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Cholinesterase Inhibitors
Cholinesterase Inhibitors
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Halogenated Hydrocarbon Anesthetics
Halogenated Hydrocarbon Anesthetics
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Aminoglycoside Antibiotics
Aminoglycoside Antibiotics
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Depolarizing Agents
Depolarizing Agents
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Succinylcholine
Succinylcholine
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Study Notes
- Cholinergic antagonists bind to cholinoceptors (muscarinic or nicotinic) and prevent the effects of acetylcholine (ACh) and other cholinergic agonists.
- Clinically useful cholinergic antagonists selectively block muscarinic receptors.
- Anticholinergic agents is a common but imprecise term, as they only antagonize muscarinic receptors.
- Antimuscarinic agents is a more accurate term for drugs that antagonize muscarinic receptors.
- Parasympatholytics is another term for antimuscarinic agents.
- Ganglionic blockers preferentially target nicotinic receptors in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia, and are clinically less significant.
- Neuromuscular-blocking agents (mostly nicotinic antagonists) disrupt efferent impulse transmission to skeletal muscles.
- These are used as skeletal muscle relaxants during surgical anesthesia and to facilitate intubation.
Antimuscarinic Agents
- Antimuscarinic drugs like atropine and scopolamine block muscarinic receptors, inhibiting muscarinic functions.
- These drugs also block the few sympathetic neurons that are cholinergic, such as those innervating salivary and sweat glands.
- Antimuscarinic drugs have little action at skeletal neuromuscular junctions (NMJs) or autonomic ganglia because they do not block nicotinic receptors.
- Antimuscarinic drugs are used in a variety of clinical situations.
Atropine
- Atropine is a tertiary amine belladonna alkaloid with high affinity for muscarinic receptors.
- It competitively binds and prevents ACh from binding to muscarinic receptor sites.
- Atropine acts both centrally and peripherally.
- Its general actions last about 4 hours, except in the eye where effects can last for days.
- Bronchial tissue, sweat and saliva secretion, and the heart are most sensitive to atropine's inhibitory effects.
Actions
- Eye: Atropine causes mydriasis (pupil dilation), unresponsiveness to light, and cycloplegia (inability to focus for near vision).
- Intraocular pressure may rise dangerously in patients with angle-closure glaucoma.
- Gastrointestinal (GI): Atropine reduces GI tract activity and acts as an antispasmodic.
- Atropine and scopolamine are the most potent antispasmodic drugs available.
- Gastric motility is reduced, but hydrochloric acid production is not significantly affected, making atropine ineffective for treating peptic ulcers.
- Cardiovascular: Low doses cause a slight decrease in heart rate by blocking M1 receptors on inhibitory prejunctional neurons, increasing ACh release.
- Higher doses cause a progressive increase in heart rate by blocking M2 receptors on the sinoatrial node.
- Secretions: Atropine causes dry mouth (xerostomia) by blocking muscarinic receptors in salivary glands and affects sweat and lacrimal glands similarly.
Therapeutic Uses
- Ophthalmic: Used topically for mydriatic and cycloplegic effects, allowing measurement of refractive errors without interference from accommodation.
- Shorter-acting antimuscarinics like cyclopentolate and tropicamide have replaced atropine due to atropine's prolonged mydriasis (7 to 14 days vs. 6 to 24 hours with other agents).
- Antispasmodic: Used to relax the GI tract.
- Cardiovascular: Used to treat bradycardia of varying etiologies.
- Antisecretory: Used to block secretions in the upper and lower respiratory tracts prior to surgery.
- Antidote for cholinergic agonists: Used to treat organophosphate poisoning (insecticides, nerve gases), overdose of anticholinesterases like physostigmine, and some types of mushroom poisoning.
- Large doses may be required to counteract poisons, with atropine's ability to enter the CNS being important for treating central toxic effects of anticholinesterases.
Pharmacokinetics
- Atropine is readily absorbed, partially metabolized by the liver, and primarily eliminated in urine with a half-life of about 4 hours.
- Adverse effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, "sandy eyes," tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation.
- CNS effects include restlessness, confusion, hallucinations, and delirium, potentially progressing to circulatory and respiratory system collapse, and death.
- Low doses of cholinesterase inhibitors like physostigmine may be used to overcome atropine toxicity.
- Atropine can induce urinary retention and is dangerous in children due to their sensitivity to its effects, particularly rapid increases in body temperature.
Scopolamine
- Scopolamine is another tertiary amine plant alkaloid that produces similar peripheral effects to atropine, but has greater CNS action and a longer duration of action.
Actions
- Scopolamine is effective against motion sickness and blocks short-term memory.
- It produces sedation, but at higher doses can cause excitement
- Scopolamine may produce euphoria and is susceptible to abuse.
Therapeutic Uses
- Limited to prevention of motion sickness and postoperative nausea and vomiting.
- Available as a topical patch that provides effects for up to 3 days for motion sickness.
Pharmacokinetics and Adverse Effects
- Similar to atropine, except with a longer half-life.
Aclidinium, Glycopyrrolate, Ipratropium, and Tiotropium
- Ipratropium and tiotropium are quaternary derivatives of atropine, while glycopyrrolate and aclidinium are synthetic quaternary compounds.
- Ipratropium is a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), while glycopyrrolate, tiotropium, and aclidinium are long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMAs).
- These agents are bronchodilators approved for maintenance treatment of bronchospasm associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
- Ipratropium and tiotropium are also used in the acute and chronic management of bronchospasm in asthma, respectively.
- All of these agents are delivered via inhalation.
- Due to their positive charge, they do not enter the systemic circulation or the CNS, restricting effects to the pulmonary system.
Tropicamide and Cyclopentolate
- Used as ophthalmic solutions for mydriasis and cycloplegia.
- Their duration of action is shorter than that of atropine.
- Tropicamide produces mydriasis for 6 hours, and cyclopentolate for 24 hours.
Benztropine and Trihexyphenidyl
- Used as adjuncts with other antiparkinsonian agents to treat Parkinson’s disease and antipsychotic-induced extrapyramidal symptoms.
Oxybutynin and Other Antimuscarinic Agents for Overactive Bladder
- Oxybutynin, darifenacin, fesoterodine, solifenacin, tolterodine, and trospium are synthetic atropine-like drugs with antimuscarinic actions.
Actions
- These lower intravesical pressure, increase bladder capacity, and reduce the frequency of bladder contractions by competitively blocking muscarinic (M3) receptors in the bladder.
- Antimuscarinic actions at M3 receptors in the GI tract, salivary glands, CNS, and eye may cause adverse effects.
- Darifenacin and solifenacin are relatively more selective M3 muscarinic receptor antagonists; other drugs are mainly nonselective muscarinic antagonists.
Therapeutic Uses
- Used for management of overactive bladder and urinary incontinence.
- Oxybutynin is also used in patients with neurogenic bladder.
Pharmacokinetics
- All agents are available in oral dosage forms.
- Most have a long half-life, allowing once-daily administration (immediate-release oxybutynin and tolterodine must be dosed two or more times daily, while extended-release formulations allow for once-daily dosing).
- Oxybutynin is also available in a transdermal patch and topical gel formulation.
- These drugs are hepatically metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system (primarily CYP 3A4 and 2D6), except for trospium, which is thought to undergo ester hydrolysis.
Adverse Effects
- Side effects include dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision which limit tolerability.
- Extended-release formulations and the transdermal patch have a lower incidence of adverse effects and may be better tolerated.
- Trospium minimally crosses the blood–brain barrier and has fewer CNS effects, making it a preferred choice in treating overactive bladder in patients with dementia.
Ganglionic Blockers
- Ganglionic blockers act on the nicotinic receptors of both parasympathetic and sympathetic autonomic ganglia, and some block the ion channels of the autonomic ganglia.
- These drugs show no selectivity toward the parasympathetic or sympathetic ganglia and are not effective as neuromuscular antagonists.
- These drugs block the entire output of the autonomic nervous system at the nicotinic receptor.
- These responses are complex and unpredictable, so ganglionic blockade is rarely used therapeutically, but often serves as a tool in experimental pharmacology.
Nicotine
- Nicotine, a component of cigarette smoke, is a poison with many undesirable actions, without therapeutic benefit.
- Depending on the dose, nicotine depolarizes autonomic ganglia, resulting first in stimulation and then paralysis of all ganglia.
- The stimulatory effects result from increased release of neurotransmitters, due to effects on both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia.
- Overall response involves increased blood pressure and cardiac rate and increased peristalsis and secretions.
- At higher doses, blood pressure falls due to ganglionic blockade, and activity in both the GI tract and bladder musculature ceases.
Neuromuscular-Blocking Agents
- These drugs block cholinergic transmission between motor nerve endings and nicotinic receptors on skeletal muscle.
- They act either as antagonists (nondepolarizing) or as agonists (depolarizing) at the receptors on the endplate of the NMJ.
- Neuromuscular blockers (NMBs) facilitate rapid intubation when needed due to respiratory failure.
- During surgery, they facilitate endotracheal intubation and provide complete muscle relaxation at lower anesthetic doses.
- This increases the safety of anesthesia by allowing patients to recover quickly and completely, but NMBs should not substitute for inadequate anesthesia.
- NMBs are used in the intensive care unit (ICU) to facilitate intubation and mechanical ventilation in critically ill patients.
Nondepolarizing (Competitive) Blockers
- Curare was the first known NMB.
- Tubocurarine has been replaced by agents with fewer adverse effects, such as cisatracurium, mivacurium, pancuronium, rocuronium, and vecuronium.
Mechanism of Action
- At low doses, nondepolarizing agents competitively block ACh at nicotinic receptors, preventing depolarization of the muscle cell membrane and inhibiting muscular contraction.
- Their competitive action can be overcome by administration of cholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine and edrophonium which increase ACh concentration in the neuromuscular junction.
- Anesthesiologists employ this strategy to shorten the duration of the neuromuscular blockade, muscle will respond to direct electrical stimulation from a peripheral nerve stimulator allowing for monitoring of the extent of neuromuscular blockade.
- At high doses, nondepolarizing agents can block the ion channels of the motor endplate, weakening neuromuscular transmission and reducing the ability of cholinesterase inhibitors to reverse their actions and , does not respond to direct electrical stimulation.
Actions
- Muscles have differing sensitivity to blockade by competitive agents.
- Small, rapidly contracting muscles of the face and eye are most susceptible and are paralyzed first, followed by the fingers, limbs, neck, and trunk muscles.
- The intercostal muscles are affected next, and lastly, the diaphragm.
- The muscles recover in the reverse manner.
- Sugammadex is a selective relaxant binding agent that terminates the action of both rocuronium and vecuronium for speedy recovery.
Pharmacokinetics
- All NMBs are injected intravenously or occasionally intramuscularly.
- These agents possess two or more quaternary amines in their bulky ring structure that prevent absorption from the gut.
- They penetrate membranes very poorly and do not enter cells or cross the blood-brain barrier.
- Pancuronium is excreted unchanged in urine.
- Cisatracurium undergoes organ-independent metabolism (via Hofmann elimination) to laudanosine, which is further metabolized and renally excreted.
- Vecuronium and rocuronium are deacetylated in the liver and excreted unchanged in bile.
- Mivacurium is eliminated by plasma cholinesterase.
- The choice of agent depends on the desired onset and duration of muscle relaxation and the route of elimination.
Drug Interactions
- Cholinesterase inhibitors: Drugs such as neostigmine, physostigmine, pyridostigmine, and edrophonium can overcome the action of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers.
- With increased dosage, cholinesterase inhibitors can cause a depolarizing block as a result of elevated ACh concentrations at the endplate membrane.
- If the neuromuscular blocker has entered the ion channel, cholinesterase inhibitors are not as effective in overcoming blockade.
- Halogenated hydrocarbon anesthetics: Drugs such as desflurane enhance neuromuscular blockade by exerting a stabilizing action at the NMJ and sensitizing the NMJ to the effects of neuromuscular blockers.
- Aminoglycoside antibiotics: Drugs such as gentamicin and tobramycin inhibit ACh release from cholinergic nerves by competing with calcium ions, synergizing with pancuronium and other competitive blockers.
- Calcium channel blockers: These agents may increase the neuromuscular blockade of competitive blockers.
Depolarizing Agents
- Depolarizing blocking agents depolarize the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber, similar to ACh.
- These agents are more resistant to degradation by acetylcholinesterase (AChE) and thus more persistently depolarize the muscle fibers.
- Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing muscle relaxant in use today.
Mechanism of Action
- Succinylcholine attaches to the nicotinic receptor and acts like ACh to depolarize the junction.
- The depolarizing agent first causes the opening of the sodium channel associated with the nicotinic receptors, which results in depolarization of the receptor (Phase I).
- This leads to a transient twitching of the muscle (fasciculations).
- Continued binding of the depolarizing agent renders the receptor incapable of transmitting further impulses.
- With time, continuous depolarization gives way to gradual repolarization as the sodium channel closes or is blocked, leading to resistance to depolarization (Phase II) and flaccid paralysis.
Actions
- As with the competitive blockers, the respiratory muscles are paralyzed last.
- Succinylcholine initially produces brief muscle fasciculations that cause muscle soreness.
- This may be prevented by administering a small dose of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker prior to succinylcholine.
- Normally, the duration of action of succinylcholine is extremely short, due to rapid hydrolysis by plasma pseudocholinesterase.
- Succinylcholine that gets to the NMJ is not metabolized by AChE, allowing the agent to bind to nicotinic receptors, and redistribution to plasma is necessary for metabolism (therapeutic benefits last only for a few minutes).
Therapeutic Uses
- Because of its rapid onset of action, succinylcholine is useful when rapid endotracheal intubation is required during the induction of anesthesia and during electroconvulsive shock treatment.
Pharmacokinetics
- Succinylcholine is injected intravenously.
- Its brief duration of action results redistribution and rapid hydrolysis by plasma pseudocholinesterase.
- Therefore, it is sometimes given by continuous infusion to maintain a longer duration of effect drug effects rapidly disappear upon discontinuation.
Adverse Effects
- Hyperthermia: Succinylcholine can potentially induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients.
- Apnea: Administration of succinylcholine to a patient who is deficient in plasma cholinesterase or who has an atypical form of the enzyme can lead to prolonged apnea due to paralysis of the diaphragm.
- The rapid release of potassium may also contribute to prolonged apnea in patients with electrolyte imbalances who receive this drug.
- In patients with electrolyte imbalances who are also receiving digoxin or diuretics (such as heart failure patients) succinylcholine should be used cautiously or not at all.
- Hyperkalemia: Succinylcholine increases potassium release from intracellular stores, dangerous in burn patients and patients with massive tissue damage in which potassium has been rapidly lost.
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