Antiarrhythmics: Class, Adverse Effects & Treatments

Which Class I antiarrhythmic is associated with the adverse effect of cinchonism?

Which Class III antiarrhythmic is known to cause blue-gray skin discoloration with prolonged use?

Which antiarrhythmic drug is the first-line treatment for chemical cardioversion of atrial flutter?

Which beta-blocker is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and to prevent ventricular arrhythmias post-MI?

Which drug is contraindicated in structural heart disease due to its proarrhythmic risk?

Which electrolyte is used intravenously as the drug of choice for Torsades de pointes?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic is only available intravenously and has a wide therapeutic index?

Which antiarrhythmic drug should be avoided in asthma patients due to the risk of bronchospasm?

Which drug is the first-line option for persistent atrial fibrillation with heart failure or coronary artery disease?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic is associated with dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary hesitancy due to its anticholinergic effects?

Which drug is administered as an IV bolus with a half-life of 15 seconds and is the drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia?

Which electrolyte channel is blocked by Class III antiarrhythmics, prolonging phase 3 repolarization?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic is metabolized by CYP2D6 and is used for chronic ventricular arrhythmias?

Which Class IV antiarrhythmic is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation but can cause constipation and hypotension?

Which drug is used for refractory atrial and ventricular arrhythmias by shortening repolarization and decreasing action potential duration?

Which Class II antiarrhythmic depresses automaticity, prolongs AV conduction, and is used for AV nodal reentrant tachycardia?

Which antiarrhythmic drug has a half-life of several weeks and requires a chest X-ray before initiation?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic has both sodium channel-blocking and potassium channel-blocking activity?

Which antiarrhythmic drug can cause optic neuritis, corneal deposits, and thyroid dysfunction?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic should not be used in a patient with atherosclerotic heart disease or HFrEF?

Which Class III antiarrhythmic is contraindicated in patients with renal disease due to its need for dose adjustments?

Which medication slows conduction through the AV node and is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation with a target level of 1-2 ng/mL?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic is available only orally and is used for chronic treatment of ventricular arrhythmias?

Which beta-blocker is both a Class II and Class III antiarrhythmic due to its potassium channel-blocking properties?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic has a narrow therapeutic index, metabolizes through CYP2D6, and can cause CNS side effects like nystagmus and convulsions?

Which Class IV antiarrhythmic slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes, reducing ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation?

Which drug can be used as an alternative to amiodarone in treating ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia?

Which electrolyte abnormality is commonly treated with intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent arrhythmias?

Which Class III antiarrhythmic is used first-line for atrial fibrillation in patients with heart failure or coronary artery disease?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic is known to prolong the action potential and has alpha-blocking effects?

Which drug is contraindicated with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors or inducers due to the risk of proarrhythmia?

Which Class III antiarrhythmic requires a loading dose and monitoring of pulmonary function due to the risk of fibrosis?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic should not be used in patients with a history of myocardial infarction due to increased mortality?

Which antiarrhythmic is administered as an IV bolus and is the drug of choice for acute supraventricular tachycardia?

Which antiarrhythmic drug is classified as Class IB and is metabolized by CYP1A2 and CYP3A4?

Which Class III antiarrhythmic has both potassium channel-blocking and beta-blocking properties?

Which drug is a sodium channel blocker that should not be used in heart failure due to negative inotropic effects?

Which drug slows conduction through the AV node by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase pump?

Which drug requires renal dose adjustments and is contraindicated with drugs that inhibit active tubular secretion?

Which Class I antiarrhythmic is associated with CNS side effects like paresthesia, agitation, and slurred speech?

Which drug is the first-line treatment for Torsades de Pointes?

Which drug is classified as a Class IC antiarrhythmic?

Which medication is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation?

Which drug is used for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation?

Which drug can cause blue-gray skin discoloration, corneal deposits, and thyroid dysfunction?

Which drug is associated with cinchonism, including tinnitus, blurred vision, and headache?

In the context of cardiac electrophysiology, what underlying cellular mechanism primarily contributes to the automaticity observed in certain cardiac cells?

Which of the following scenarios would be MOST likely to precipitate a re-entry arrhythmia?

An antiarrhythmic medication that prolongs the QT interval by inhibiting potassium channels could MOST directly lead to which dangerous arrhythmia?

Consider a hypothetical antiarrhythmic drug that selectively enhances outward potassium current only in the sinoatrial (SA) node cells. What is the MOST probable effect of this drug?

A novel drug is developed that aims to prevent re-entry arrhythmias, but paradoxically increases the dispersion of refractoriness, which would be MOST likely to occur?

Which antiarrhythmic agent exerts its therapeutic effect by slowing the rate of sinoatrial (SA) node impulse formation and prolonging conduction time within myocardial tissue?

A patient presents with a recurring atrial arrhythmia deemed refractory to initial treatments. Which medication, when combined with other antiarrhythmics, aims to resolve this by shortening repolarization and decreasing action potential duration?

After an MI, which of the following agents is most appropriate for preventing life-threatening arrhythmias?

A patient being treated for an atrial arrhythmia reports experiencing xerostomia, blurred vision, and urinary hesitancy. Which antiarrhythmic medication is the MOST likely culprit?

Which antiarrhythmic drug is the MOST suitable option for initiating rate control in an asymptomatic patient newly diagnosed with atrial fibrillation (A-Fib) in an outpatient setting?

Which of the following Class IA antiarrhythmics exhibits the strongest anticholinergic activity?

Which Class IA antiarrhythmic is known to block alpha receptors?

A patient presents with tinnitus, blurred vision, and headache after starting antiarrhythmic therapy. Which Class IA medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

What best describes the mechanism of action of Class IB antiarrhythmics?

Which of the following is a key feature of Class IC antiarrhythmics regarding their effect on cardiac tissue conduction?

A patient with a history of structural heart disease requires antiarrhythmic therapy. Which class of antiarrhythmics should generally be avoided?

Lidocaine is administered via which route?

Which of the following Class I antiarrhythmics is associated with a risk of Torsades de Pointes?

Which of the following uses CYP2D6 for metabolism?

The presence of which of the following would be a contraindication of Flecainide use:

Which of the following scenarios represents a contraindication for the use of sotalol?

A patient with persistent atrial fibrillation and a history of heart failure is being considered for rhythm control. Which Class III antiarrhythmic is most appropriate as a first-line agent?

Which antiarrhythmic drug is known to both diminish phase 4 depolarization and prolong AV conduction?

A patient is prescribed flecainide for the management of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Before initiating therapy, it is essential to assess if the patient has a genetic polymorphism affecting which enzyme?

Which of the following electrophysiological effects is characteristic of Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs?

A patient with atrial flutter is treated with ibutilide in the emergency department. What is the primary mechanism of action by which ibutilide is expected to achieve chemical conversion to normal sinus rhythm?

Which of the following adverse effects is most closely linked to digoxin toxicity?

Why might digoxin be administered in cases of atrial fibrillation?

A patient with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is prescribed a medication that acts by diminishing phase 4 depolarization, prolonging AV conduction, and decreasing heart rate and contractility. Which class of antiarrhythmic drug is most consistent with this patient's prescription?

A patient presents with refractory supraventricular tachycardia and is considered for amiodarone therapy. Which baseline assessment is most critical prior to initiating amiodarone, considering its potential for severe adverse effects?

Quinidine

Amiodarone Side Effect

Ibutilide Use

Metoprolol Use

Flecainide Contraindication

Torsades Treatment

IV antiarrhythmic

Asthma Avoidance

First-line AFIB TX w/ HF

Anticholinergic Antiarrhythmic

SVT Treatment

Class 3 Block

Mexiletine Metabolism

Class IV Side Effects

Ranolazine Use

Class II Mechanism

Long Half-Life Antiarrhythmic

Dual Channel Blocker

Systemic side effects drug

Class I Contraindication

Careful dosing

AV Node Slowing Med

Oral Class I med

Dual Beta blocker

Narrow Therapeudic Index

Slow conduction

VFib

Magnessium Defincency

Class III antiarrhythmic use.

Alpha blocking effects and actions

Arrhythmias

Automaticity

Abnormal Automaticity

Re-entry

Proarrhythmic Action

Torsades de pointes risk

Class I Antiarrhythmics

Class IA Antiarrhythmics

Quinidine Uses

Cinchonism Symptoms

Class IB Antiarrhythmics

Lidocaine Use

Class IC Antiarrhythmics

Flecainide Use

Propafenone Use

Adenosine

Magnesium Sulfate

Ranolazine

Metoprolol for A-Fib

Lidocaine for VTach

Flecainide & Propafenone

Beta Blockers Uses

Amiodarone Kinetics

Sotalol Uses

Dofetilide Use