Obstetrics Marrow Pg 445-454 (Obstetrics Complications)
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Questions and Answers

What is the first step in the resuscitation management for vaginal bleeding in the third trimester?

  • Arrange blood for transfusion
  • Patient catheterization
  • Start resuscitation with a large bore IV cannula (correct)
  • Administer IV fluids
  • An immediate C-section is required if any one parameter is abnormal during assessment.

    True

    What does 'LUS' stand for in the context of placenta previa?

    Lower uterine segment

    In cases of vaginal bleeding during the third trimester, the administration of __________ and crystalloids is essential for resuscitation.

    <p>IV fluids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the assessment parameters with their corresponding actions:

    <p>FHS = Evaluate fetal heart sound DIC = Evaluate for disseminated intravascular coagulation Vitals = Monitor patient's vital signs I = d</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred mode of delivery for a placenta that is low lying (within 1 cm of internal os)?

    <p>Cesarean Section</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Active management for placenta previa involves continuing the pregnancy to attain fetal lung maturity.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if the placenta is in the lower uterine segment at 36 weeks?

    <p>Consider a Cesarean Section between 36-37 weeks if still in LUS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of placenta previa with active bleeding, the mode of delivery is a _____ section.

    <p>Cesarean</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the ultrasound terms with their definitions:

    <p>USG = Ultrasound TVS = Transvaginal Sonography P/V Bleeding = Vaginal bleeding LUS = Lower Uterine Segment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a cause of antepartum hemorrhage (APH)?

    <p>Placenta previa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Abruptio placenta involves the premature separation of a normally located placenta.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism that leads to bleeding in placenta previa?

    <p>Shearing force on placenta due to uterine contraction or cervical dilation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of APH in the third trimester, P/V is contraindicated until __________ is ruled out.

    <p>placenta previa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following causes of APH with their definitions:

    <p>Placenta previa = Placenta lies in lower uterine segment Abruptio placenta = Premature separation of a normally located placenta Vasa previa = Fetal blood loss comes out through mother's vagina Uterine rupture = Possible complication at time of labor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the drug of choice for single drug therapy for obstetric complications?

    <p>Methotrexate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Multidrug therapy for obstetric complications includes Etoposide, Methotrexate, Actinomycin D, Cyclophosphamide, and Oncovin.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What tumor marker is associated with monitoring in cases of invasive mole or choriocarcinoma?

    <p>Placental alkaline phosphatase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of molar pregnancy, a hysterectomy may be indicated if the patient is aged ≥ ______ and has a complete family.

    <p>40</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following conditions with their corresponding descriptions:

    <p>Invasive Mole = Edematous chorionic villi made up of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. Choriocarcinoma = No villi-like structure, presence of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast. PSTT = No villi-like structure, intermediate trophoblast.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What stage of FIGO is characterized by involvement of the pelvis and its organs?

    <p>Stage 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Stage 3 FIGO includes metastasis to the brain and liver.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the WHO risk scoring system, what age category is typically considered high risk?

    <p>Older age (usually above 35 years)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    FIGO Stage 1 implies that the disease is limited to the __________.

    <p>uterus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following FIGO stages with their characteristics:

    <p>Stage 1 = Limited to uterus Stage 2 = Involvement of pelvis and its organs Stage 3 = Involvement of lungs Stage 4 = Metastasis to brain/liver</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What grading is associated with a concealed placental abruption?

    <p>Grade 0</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A low lying placenta is classified as Type 2.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of abruption placenta?

    <p>Mixed Variety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A characteristic of Grade 3 features in the mother includes bleeding, pain in abdomen, and __________.

    <p>maternal shock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of placental abruption with its characteristics:

    <p>Revealed Variety = Bleeding present, clot absent Concealed Variety = Clot present, bleeding absent Mixed Variety = Both bleeding and clot present Grade 1 in mother = Bleeding + Pain in abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary criteria for expectant management in cases where the period of gestation is less than 37 weeks?

    <p>Stable maternal vitals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Active management is appropriate when all criteria indicate an unstable condition.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What medication is given if the period of gestation is less than 34 weeks and there is a risk of lung immaturity?

    <p>Dexamethasone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of placenta previa, if active bleeding is present, the preferred mode of delivery is a __________.

    <p>C-section</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following procedures with their corresponding conditions:

    <p>Admit the patient = Mac Coffee / Johnsons Regime Give AntiD = Rh -ve condition Injection steroids = POG &lt; 34 weeks C-section = Active bleeding with placenta previa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what gestational weeks is the best time to perform an ultrasound for placenta previa?

    <p>32 and 36 weeks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Placenta previa is classified when the distance between the placenta and internal os is greater than 2cm.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for the premature separation of a normally located placenta?

    <p>Abruptio placenta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Type 3 placenta previa involves the placenta covering the internal os _____.

    <p>partially</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the types of placenta previa with their characteristics:

    <p>Type 1 = Lateral placenta previa, within 2 cm of internal os Type 2 = Marginal placenta previa, reaches the margin of internal os Type 3 = Incomplete placenta previa, covers internal os partially</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a primary symptom of placenta previa?

    <p>Bright red, recurrent bleeding in the third trimester</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Abdominal pain is a common symptom of placenta previa.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the investigation of choice for diagnosing placenta previa?

    <p>Ultrasound (USG)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cases of abruptio placenta, the bleeding is often __________ and accompanied by abdominal pain.

    <p>dark red</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the symptoms with their corresponding conditions:

    <p>Bright red bleeding = Placenta Previa Dark red bleeding with abdominal pain = Abruptio Placenta Soft and relaxed uterus = Placenta Previa Tense and rigid uterus = Abruptio Placenta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common risk factor for placenta previa?

    <p>Previous history of placenta previa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Abruption of the placenta can be associated with a couvelaire uterus.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by a high chance of recurrence of 15%?

    <p>Abruptio placenta</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The risk factor associated with abruptio placenta includes __________ deficiency.

    <p>folic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the condition with its associated risk factor:

    <p>Placenta previa = Previous C-section Abruptio placenta = Chronic hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of transverse lie at term?

    <p>Placenta previa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Retroplacental bleeding always indicates the need for hysterectomy.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    List one risk factor for placenta previa.

    <p>Previous history of placenta previa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Antepartum Hemorrhage

    • Any bleeding from the genital tract beyond 28 weeks of pregnancy.
    • Causes include placenta previa, abruptio placenta, vasa previa, preterm labor, and uterine rupture.

    Placenta Previa

    • Occurs when the placenta is located in the lower uterine segment, covering the cervix.
    • Symptoms include painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.
    • Diagnosis is made by ultrasound.

    Abruptio Placenta

    • Premature separation of a normally located placenta from the uterine wall.
    • Symptoms include painful vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness.
    • Diagnosis is made by clinical examination and ultrasound.

    Placenta Previa Types

    • Type 1: Placental edge lies within 2cm of the internal os.
    • Type 2: Placental edge reaches the margin of the internal os.
    • Type 3: Placenta partially covers the internal os.

    Abruptio Placenta Types

    • Revealed: Visible bleeding with no retroplacental clot.
    • Concealed: Retroplacental clot present, no visible bleeding.
    • Mixed: Both bleeding and retroplacental clot present.

    Placenta Previa Risk Factors

    • Previous history of placenta previa
    • Large placental size
    • Diabetes
    • Rh-negative pregnancy
    • Twin pregnancy
    • Succenturiate lobe
    • Placenta bilobata
    • Adhesion formation
    • History of C-section/uterine surgery/uterine curettage
    • Smoking
    • Endometritis
    • Increased maternal age
    • Increased maternal parity

    Abruptio Placenta Risk Factors

    • Previous history of abruptio placenta
    • Folic acid deficiency
    • Cigarette smoking and cocaine abuse
    • External trauma
    • Increased maternal age and parity
    • Thrombophilia
    • Preeclampsia/chronic hypertension
    • Fibroid uterus
    • Twin pregnancy
    • Polyhydramnios
    • Single umbilical artery
    • Preterm rupture of membrane

    Couvelaire Uterus

    • Blood clots in the myometrium, making the uterus appear bruised.
    • Associated with increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.

    Management of Placenta Previa

    • Expectant: Bed rest, monitoring maternal vitals and fetal heart rate.
    • Active: Immediate cesarean section.

    Management of Abruptio Placenta

    • Depends on severity: Expectant management or immediate cesarean section.

    Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD)

    • A group of rare tumors that develop in the uterus after pregnancy.
    • Can be invasive or metastatic.
    • Treatment includes chemotherapy and hysterectomy.

    Single Drug Therapy for GTD

    • Methotrexate is the drug of choice.
    • Multidose therapy, given on days 1, 3, 5, and 7.
    • Beta-hCG levels are monitored.

    Multidrug Therapy for GTD

    • EMACO/Bagshaw regimen: Etoposide, Methotrexate, Actinomycin D, Cyclophosphamide, Oncovin.
    • Cisplatin may be added if resistant.

    Radiotherapy for GTD

    • Indicated for brain metastasis.
    • Follow-up for 12 months.

    Hysterectomy for GTD

    • Indicated in cases of intractable hemorrhage, persistent trophoblastic disease, and advanced age.

    FIGO Staging System for GTD

    • Stage 1: Limited to the uterus.
    • Stage 2: Involvement of the pelvis and its organs.
    • Stage 3: Involvement of the lungs.
    • Stage 4: Metastasis to the brain or liver.

    WHO Risk Scoring System for GTD

    • Low risk: Age < 40, no prior GTD, no risk factors.
    • High risk: Age > 40, prior GTD, or risk factors present.

    Histopathological Examination of GTD

    • Invasive mole: Edematous chorionic villi.
    • Choriocarcinoma: No villi-like structure, presence of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast.
    • PSTT: No villi-like structure, intermediate trophoblast.

    Important Features

    • Placenta previa: Placenta is located within 2 cm of the internal os.
      • Diagnosis should be made in the third trimester.
    • Abruptio placenta: Thromboplastin release leads to DIC.
    • Couvelaire uterus: Bruised uterus due to blood clots in the myometrium.
    • Stallworthy sign: Fetal distress due to the fetal head being pushed into the pelvis.
    • Chronic abruption oligohydramnios sequence (CAOS): Rare association with abruptio placenta.

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    Description

    Explore the critical conditions associated with antepartum hemorrhage, including placenta previa and abruptio placenta. This quiz covers the symptoms, diagnosis, and classifications of these conditions, vital for understanding maternal-fetal health. Perfect for medical students and healthcare professionals.

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