Anesthesia Principles and Agents Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which plane of anesthesia is typically required for a surgical procedure?

  • Plane 4
  • Plane 1
  • Plane 2 or 3 (correct)
  • Stage IV
  • What is a characteristic of Stage IV anesthesia?

  • Increased reflexes
  • Respiratory paralysis (correct)
  • Normal eye movements
  • Lightened respirations
  • Which intravenous anesthetic is most likely to cause myoclonic muscle movements?

  • Etomidate (correct)
  • Opioids
  • Propofol
  • Ketamine
  • What is the primary mechanism of termination of action for propofol?

    <p>Hepatic metabolism and redistribution (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of anesthetic is MOST often used for longer-term maintenance of anesthesia?

    <p>Inhalational anesthetics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a disadvantage of using intravenous (IV) anesthetics as the primary drug during a long surgical procedure?

    <p>Prolonged metabolism and recovery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a benefit of propofol for outpatient anesthesia?

    <p>Rapid recovery and antiemetic properties (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a commonly used ultra-short-acting barbiturate?

    <p>Thiopental sodium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does the concurrent administration of opioids have on the dose of propofol required for anesthesia?

    <p>Requires a lower dose (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the anesthetic state produced by ketamine?

    <p>Trance-like state with analgesia and amnesia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What makes midazolam a popular choice for the induction of anesthesia?

    <p>Its aqueous solubility and short duration of action (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intravenous anesthetic agent is highlighted as having a greater margin of safety due to limited cardiovascular and respiratory effects?

    <p>Etomidate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which intravenous anesthetic can be administered via the intramuscular route?

    <p>Ketamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Besides its role as an induction agent, what is another application of etomidate due to its short elimination half-life?

    <p>Supplement to maintain anesthesia in some critically ill patients (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the effect of etomidate on the adrenocortical response?

    <p>Suppresses response to normal stimuli (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical onset of anesthesia when using propofol?

    <p>50 seconds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal anesthetic agent?

    <p>Prolonged patient recovery to psychomotor competence (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of balanced anesthesia?

    <p>Maximizing the beneficial effects while minimizing the adverse qualities of each drug (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which stage of anesthesia does CNS depression increase and the patient lose consciousness?

    <p>Stage I (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of a patient in Stage II anesthesia?

    <p>Incoherent mumbling and possible physical movement (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are noises and motion avoided during stage I and II anesthesia?

    <p>Because the patient is very sensitive to external stimuli, which can cause agitation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which stage of anesthesia is known as the surgical analgesia stage?

    <p>Stage III (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key distinction between Stage I and Stage II anesthesia?

    <p>The level of consciousness and physical response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of using skeletal muscle relaxants during anesthesia?

    <p>To reduce the amount of anesthetic drug needed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary advantage of using ketamine, particularly for children?

    <p>Rapid induction of anesthesia even if the child is resistant to other methods (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant disadvantage associated with the use of ketamine?

    <p>Eliciting excitatory and hallucinatory effects during emergence from anesthesia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which combination of agents/medications results in neuroleptanesthesia?

    <p>A neuroleptic agent combined with a powerful narcotic, and nitrous oxide with oxygen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the brand name of a combination of fentanyl and droperidol?

    <p>Innovar (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key benefit of using Innovar as a preoperative medication?

    <p>Minimized post-operative complications and reduced need for analgesics and antiemetics. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which inhalational anesthetics are typically gases at room temperature?

    <p>Nitrous oxide and cyclopropane (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary control method for the level of unconsciousness using inhalational anesthetics?

    <p>Controlling the partial pressure of anesthetic delivered to the lung (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does MAC, Minimum Alveolar Concentration, primarily measure?

    <p>The alveolar tension required at equilibrium to produce a defined depth of anesthesia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which local anesthetics suppress action potentials?

    <p>Blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which area of the body is MOST likely affected with spinal anesthesia?

    <p>Lower extremities, lower abdomen, and perineum. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a defining characteristic of local anesthetics compared to general anesthetics?

    <p>They typically do not cause CNS depression. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario below would a topical anesthetic be MOST appropriate?

    <p>Minor skin abrasion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main benefit of regional anesthesia?

    <p>The area affected is larger than local infiltration anesthesia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a method of administering local anesthetic?

    <p>Regional anesthesia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common use of local infiltration anesthesia?

    <p>Dental procedures and suturing of small wounds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of spinal anesthesia based on the provided information?

    <p>It involves injection into the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an example of a conduction block?

    <p>Infiltrative anesthesia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical concentration range of cocaine when used for topical anesthesia?

    <p>4%-10% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does epinephrine have on the duration of anesthesia produced by procaine?

    <p>It doubles the duration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which local anesthetic is commonly used intravenously as an antiarrhythmic agent?

    <p>Lidocaine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following local anesthetics is only used for topical anesthesia?

    <p>Pramoxine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A 1%-2% solution of procaine is commonly used for which of the following?

    <p>Nerve block and infiltrative anesthesia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a potential systemic effect of local anesthetics?

    <p>Respiratory failure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following local anesthetics is known for having a more rapid onset of anesthesia, greater potency and longer duration of action compared to Procaine?

    <p>Lidocaine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Anesthesia

    • Anesthesia is a loss of feeling or sensation.
    • An anesthesiologist is a physician specializing in administering anesthesia.
    • Anesthesia can be induced by various drugs causing partial or complete loss of sensation.
    • Two types of anesthesia exist: local and general.

    Local Anesthesia

    • Local anesthesia provides a pain-free state in a specific area.
    • Patients remain fully awake during local anesthesia, but the targeted area is numb.
    • Some procedures may require sedation.
    • Sedated patients can still hear surroundings.

    General Anesthesia

    • General anesthesia provides a pain-free state for the entire body.
    • Patients lose consciousness when given a general anesthetic.
    • Reflexes like swallowing and gagging are lost during general anesthesia.
    • General anesthesia is crucial for surgical practice.
    • General anesthesia acts on the CNS or ANS to render patients analgesic, amnesic, and unconscious, while causing muscle relaxation and suppressing undesirable reflexes.

    Balanced Anesthesia

    • Balanced anesthesia involves a multi-drug approach to manage a patient's anesthetic needs.
    • The choice of anesthetic drug depends on various factors.
    • These factors include patient condition, surgical procedure type, and anticipated length.
    • Ideal general anesthetics induce anesthesia quickly and smoothly and allow for speedy post-procedure recovery.
    • The proper depth of anesthesia is achieved through the use of various drugs, either alone or mixed.

    Stages of Anesthesia

    • The depth of anesthesia is divided into four stages characterized by progressively increasing CNS depression caused by anesthetic drug accumulation.
      • Stage I: Analgesia
      • Stage II: Excitement or delirium
      • Stage III: Surgical anesthesia (with varying planes of depth)
      • Stage IV: Medullary paralysis

    Stage I Anesthesia

    • Induction is a part of Stage I anesthesia.
    • The administration of the anesthetic drug starts this stage.
    • It lasts until consciousness is lost.
    • Short-acting barbiturates may only take 5-10 seconds for consciousness to be lost.

    Stage II Anesthesia

    • This is the brief stage of delirium and excitement.
    • Patient activity, incoherent speech, and muscle rigidity can be observed.
    • Pain sensation is absent.
    • Noises and sounds are exaggerated.

    Stage III Anesthesia

    • This is the stage of surgical analgesia, subdivided into four planes (or substages).
    • Anesthesiologists differentiate planes based on respiration, eye movements, reflexes, pupil size, and other factors.
    • Planes start from light (plane 1) to deep (plane 4).
    • Patients are usually ready for surgery at planes 2 or 3.

    Stage IV Anesthesia

    • This is the dangerous stage of respiratory paralysis.
    • It can easily result in respiratory arrest and loss of vital signs.

    Intravenous (IV) Anesthetics

    • IV anesthetics are used for induction and sometimes supplemental anesthesia.
    • Recovery from some anesthetic drugs can be prolonged.
    • Inhalational anesthetics are often used for longer anesthetic procedures.
    • Recovery from an inhalational anesthetic is typically faster.

    Ultra-Short-Acting Barbiturates

    • These barbiturates are instrumental for induction and supplemental periods, particularly in short surgical procedures.
    • Drugs include Pentothal, Surital, and Brevital sodium.

    Benzodiazepines

    • Important for anesthetic induction.
    • Midazolam is the most popular.
    • Its popularity results from aqueous solubility and short duration of action.

    Etomidate

    • Pharmacological properties are similar to barbiturates, but with a lessened effect on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
    • Its relatively short half-life makes it suitable for supplementing anesthesia in critically ill patients, or induction.
    • Rapidly hydrolyzed in the liver.

    Propofol

    • Primarily a hypnotic drug with cardiorespiratory depressant actions, not neuromuscular blockade.
    • Propofol provides rapid anesthesia onset (50 seconds).
    • Speedy recovery is attributed to redistribution and rapid metabolism.
    • Used as induction agent, and as a supplement in longer surgical procedures.
    • Suitable for outpatient anesthesia due to rapid recovery and antiemetic properties.
    • Provides lower opioid doses in cardiac surgery.

    Ketamine

    • Ketamine's pharmacological actions differ significantly from other IV anesthetics.
    • It induces a trance-like unconscious state with the patient appearing awake but unresponsive to stimuli.
    • A useful anesthetic agent for children resistant to IV line insertion.
    • Has risks including excitatory and hallucinatory side effects during recovery.

    Neuroleptanesthesia

    • Combining a neuroleptic (e.g., droperidol) with a potent narcotic (e.g., fentanyl) produces neuroleptanalgesia.
    • Addition of nitrous oxide and oxygen leads to neuroleptanesthesia.
    • Innovar is a combined fentanyl and droperidol product.
    • It can deliver excellent sedation, analgesia and patient cooperation during surgery.
    • Reduction in postoperative issues and doses of analgesics or antiemetics.

    Inhalation Anesthetics

    • Inhalational anesthetics are categorized by physical properties.
    • Nitrous oxide and cyclopropane are gaseous anesthetics that are regulated by the anesthesia machine.
    • Others are volatile liquids supplied by vaporizers attached to the machine.
    • Halogenated hydrocarbons are the strongest volatile anesthetics.

    Partial Pressure of Anesthetics

    • Anesthesiologists regulate the partial pressure of the delivered anesthetic to control the anesthetic gas concentration in the brain, thus the level of unconsciousness.
    • Anesthetic dose is expressed in terms of alveolar tension required for a defined level of anesthesia.
    • Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is the minimum alveolar tension required to eliminate movement in 50% patients exposed to a standardized stimulus.

    Halogenated Hydrocarbons

    • Sevoflurane, desflurane, enflurane, isoflurane, halothane, and methoxyflurane are powerful halogenated hydrocarbons, producing surgical levels at low inspired partial pressures.
    • None of them have all desired properties for anesthetic use, so they are often given with additional drugs.

    Halothane

    • Highly potent, non-flammable, with relatively high blood-gas partition coefficient.
    • Induction and recovery times can be prolonged.
    • Safe for children but has side effects such as arrhythmias, shivering, vomiting, and liver damage.

    Enflurane

    • Less potent than halothane but offers rapid induction and recovery.
    • Lower incidence of arrhythmias and better skeletal muscle relaxation compared to halothane, but can trigger seizures.

    Isoflurane

    • One of the alkyl-haloethers, often preferred to others due to the lack of seizure activity and minimal induction of arrhythmias.
    • Methoxyflurane is a highly potent inhalation anesthetic with strong lipid solubility.
    • Sevoflurane is used for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia and has low pungency.
    • Consequently, it is suitable for children, particularly in the induction phase.

    Diethyl ether

    • Highly flammable and explosive.
    • Causes increased salivation, vomiting, and laryngospasm.
    • Replaced by halogenated anesthetics.

    Nitrous Oxide (N2O)

    • Important and potent analgesic, well-tolerated as a weak general anesthetic.
    • Often used for outpatient dental procedures.
    • Rapid onset and recovery.
    • Contraindicated in pregnant women, immunosuppressed patients, or those with anemia, due to its adverse effects.

    Preanesthetic Medication

    • Drugs given before anesthesia.
    • This preparation is for inducing a calming state in patients before anesthesia, which leads to efficient and swift introduction into the anesthetic state.
    • The intent is to lower anxiety, lessen stress, and prep the patient.

    Preanesthetic Drugs

    • Various drugs, acting as narcotics or anti-anxiety agents, aim to reduce anxiety and apprehension before surgery.
    • This approach reduces pre-operative stress, speeds up the introduction into an anesthetic state, reduces the dosage of agents needed for anesthesia, and leads to smoother anesthesia recovery.
    • Antiemetics reduce nausea and vomiting during immediate post-op recovery.

    Anticholinergic

    • Decreasing secretions of the upper respiratory track.
    • Some anesthetic gases and volatile liquids are irritating to sensitive linings, hence increased mucous secretions.
    • Loss of cough and swallowing reflexes during anesthesia can lead to mucous pooling, increasing risk of pneumonia and atelectasis (lung collapse).
    • Anticholinergics, like glycopyrrolate, reduce these secretions and the possibility of these effects.

    Other Preanesthetic Medications

    • Barbiturates (like secobarbital and pentobarbital): preoperative sedatives.
    • Opioids (like morphine and fentanyl): analgesia (pain relief).
    • Phenothiazines and antihistamines (like promethazine and hydroxyzine): used with opioids; potentiate analgesic effect without significant additional side effects.
    • Tranquilizers (like diazepam): pre-operative sedation.

    Local Anesthetics

    • Block sensory and motor nerve conduction to cause temporary loss of sensation without loss of consciousness.
    • Mechanism of action: Suppress action potentials by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, thus inhibiting pain impulse transmission.
    • Local anesthetics are structurally similar to the alkaloid cocaine.
    • Methods of administration include topical application, local infiltration, or regional anesthesia.

    Topical Anesthesia

    • Applying anesthetic to the surface of skin, mucous membranes, or open areas.
    • Mostly used to desensitize the skin for injections of deeper local anesthetics.

    Local Infiltration Anesthesia

    • Injecting the local anesthetic directly into the tissue.
    • Often used for dental procedures, suturing, or tissue biopsies.

    Regional Anesthesia

    • Injecting anesthetic around nerves, numbing the area supplied by those nerves.
    • Larger affected area compared to local infiltration.
    • Types include spinal anesthesia and conduction blocks.

    Spinal Anesthesia

    • Injecting the local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord (typically around L2-L3).
    • This type of regional anesthesia numbs the lower extremities, lower abdomen, and perineum.

    Conduction Blocks

    • Injection of local anesthetic near a nerve trunk or around a nerve.
    • Types include epidural block (injecting anesthetic into the space surrounding the dura of the spinal cord) and trans-sacral (caudal) block, Brachial Plexus block.

    Specific Local Anesthetics

    • Cocaine: Topical nasal, pharyngeal, and tracheobronchial anesthesia (4%-10% concentrations and as crystals).
    • Procaine: Available with and without epinephrine; epinephrine decreases bloodstream absorption, lengthening anesthetic duration for nerve blocks or infiltrations (1%-2% solutions). A 5%-20% solution is used for spinal anesthesia.
    • Tetracaine: Topical use on mucous membranes (2% solution).
    • Lidocaine: Rapid onset, minimal local irritation, higher potency and longer duration compared to procaine (0.5% for infiltration, 1%-2% topical mucosal, 5% spinal, and intravenously as an antiarrhythmic).
    • Dibucaine, Pramoxine, Prilocaine, Etidocaine, Mepivacaine, and Bupivacaine: Also used as local anesthetics with varying applications.

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