MSK Midterm #1

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759 Questions

What is the anatomical position?

Body standing upright facing forward with palms turned forward

Which subdivision of anatomy focuses on the study of structures as they relate to regions of the body?

Regional anatomy

What is the term used for the study of the development of an organism from fertilization to birth?

Developmental anatomy (Embryology)

Which region of the body is considered one of the principal regions identified in anatomy?

Trunk

In which position is the body considered to be face down?

Prone position

What does surface anatomy focus on?

Skin and superficial markings

Which type of anatomy involves studying structures as they relate to systems like the circulatory or nervous system?

Systemic anatomy

Which term describes moving the structure anteriorly/forward?

Protraction

What term refers to bending the ankle towards the shin?

Dorsiflexion

Which movement involves the forearm being rotated laterally (palm up)?

Supination

When the plantar surface of the foot moves laterally, it is referred to as:

Eversion

Which action involves raising the structure cephalad (superiorly)?

Elevation

Which movement refers to moving away from the median plane?

Abduction

'Rotation' involves movement around which axis?

Long axis

What is the main function of the skeletal system?

To provide protection for vital structures

Which type of bone provides strength for weight-bearing?

Compact bone

Where is fibrocartilage predominantly found in the body?

Discs of the spinal column

Which type of cartilage is present in joints?

Hyaline cartilage

What is the primary function of yellow marrow in bones?

To store energy in fat cells

How many basic types of bones are there?

5

In the skeletal system, what is the role of cartilage?

To allow flexibility in areas where needed

Where is a larger proportion of compact bone typically found in bones?

At the ends of bones

What is the function of sesamoid bones?

Develop in tendons

Where is the epiphyseal plate located in adults?

In the region between epiphysis and diaphysis

What is the main function of articular cartilage on bone surfaces?

To provide smooth movement at joint surfaces

What is the role of processes in bone anatomy?

Serve as attachment points for connective tissue

What is a characteristic of a condyle on a bone?

Large rounded protuberance at the end of a bone

Which part of a long bone supports the head in articulation?

Neck

What role do depressions and openings play in bone anatomy?

Participate in forming joints or soft tissue passage

What is the function of trochanter in bone anatomy?

Serve as attachment points for connective tissue

Which plane divides the body into right and left sides?

Midsagittal plane

Which term describes a structure being closer to the midline of the body?

Medial

Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions?

Transverse plane

What is the term used to describe depth of a structure in relation to the surface of the body?

Superficial

Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

Frontal plane

Which plane passes through the body at an angle between transverse and sagittal planes?

Oblique plane

'Distal' directional term is used to describe a structure that is:

Farther from the point of attachment

'Superior' directional term indicates a position that is:

Closer to the head

What is the anatomically correct term for moving a body part toward the midline of the body?

Adduction

Which type of anatomy focuses on studying structures as they relate to radiographic images?

Radiographic anatomy

In which position is the body considered face up?

Supine

What is the term for a type of anatomy that focuses on studying structures related to specific regions of the body?

Regional anatomy

Which term describes the movement of a body part away from the surface of the body?

Deep

What anatomical term refers to the bending of the ankle towards the sole of the foot?

Plantarflexion

Which part of a long bone articulates with another bone at a joint?

Epiphysis

Anatomical planes that divide the body into equal left and right halves are known as:

'Midsagittal planes'

What term is used to describe a structure closer to the origin or trunk?

Proximal

Which term describes a structure being closer to the back of the body?

Posterior

What does the term 'caudad' indicate in anatomical descriptions?

Further from the head towards the feet

In which situation would 'bilateral' be an appropriate term to use?

Referring to both lungs

What term is used to describe structures that are closer to the surface of the body?

Superficial

If a structure is on the same side of the body, what term would be used in anatomical language?

Ipsilateral

Which term best describes structures that are closer to the head?

Superior

When referring to structures being further from the midline, which term would be most appropriate?

Lateral

What do we call moving the structure posteriorly or backward?

Retraction

In which type of movement does the forearm rotate medially (palm down)?

Pronation

What term describes the action of bending the ankle towards the shin?

Dorsiflexion

Which action involves the thumb moving medially to meet the other fingers?

Opposition

What is the term for raising a structure cephalad (superiorly)?

Elevation

Which movement involves plantar surface of the foot moving laterally?

Eversion

What do we call the combination of movements including flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction?

Circumduction

Which term specifically refers to moving a structure away from the median plane?

Abduction

Where is the epiphyseal plate located in adults?

Metaphysis

What does the term 'facet' refer to in bone surface markings?

Smooth flat articular surface

What is the role of processes in bone anatomy?

Serve as attachment points for connective tissue

Which part of a long bone articulates with the base of an adjacent bone?

Head

In bone anatomy, what is characteristic of a tuberosity?

A moderate prominence where muscles and connective tissues attach

What is the main function of articular cartilage on bone surfaces?

Facilitate smooth movement at joint surfaces

Which term describes projections or outgrowths that help form joints or serve as attachment points for connective tissue?

Trochanter

Which type of bone provides a larger proportion of compact bone at the ends of bones?

Long bone

Where is fibrocartilage predominantly found in the body?

Vertebrae discs

What is the main function of yellow marrow in bones?

Energy storage

Which type of cartilage is found in joints?

Hyaline cartilage

In bone anatomy, which type of bone provides strength for weight-bearing due to a superficial thin layer?

Long bone

What is the primary role of articular cartilage on bone surfaces?

Protection

What type of cartilage is semi-rigid and found in areas where flexibility is required?

Fibrocartilage

Where is a larger proportion of spongy (trabecular) bone typically found?

Deep to compact bone

What is the primary function of ligaments in joints?

Limit certain movements within the joint

Which type of ligament is found within joint capsules?

Intracapsular ligaments

Where do joints receive their blood supply from?

Arteries located in the joint capsule

What is the function of articular arteries in joints?

Supply blood to the structures of the joint itself

Which muscle tissue is primarily attached to bones and voluntary?

Skeletal muscle tissue

Which type of muscle tissue forms the wall of the heart and is involuntary?

Cardiac muscle tissue

Which part of the body do proprioceptive receptors in joints provide awareness about?

Muscle length and tension

What is the role of ligaments in stabilizing joints?

Limiting certain movements within the joint

Which type of joint is found between the ulna and radius?

Amphiarthrosis

In bone anatomy, which type of joint is held together by fibrous connective tissue?

Fibrous joint

What type of joint is found between the bones of the skull?

Suture joint

Which type of movement is produced at a syndesmosis joint?

Some movement

What type of movement occurs at a diarthrosis joint?

Freely moveable movement

Where is a gomphosis joint found in the body?

In the joint between a tooth and its socket

Which joint type has many structures involved in holding it together?

Synovial joint

What is the classification of joints based on how much movement is produced?

Function

What is the function of tendons in the body?

Attach muscle to bone

Which muscle has a saw-toothed edge according to the text?

Serratus anterior

What is the function of motor nerves in the body?

Stimulate muscle contraction

What distinguishes an aponeurosis from a tendon in terms of structure?

Extension as a broad, flat layer

Where is deep fascia well-defined in the body?

In limbs

What is the role of superficial fascia in relation to the skin?

Contains veins and nerves

Which nerve receives sensory stimuli according to the text?

Sensory nerves

'Fascia' is mainly composed of which type of tissue?

Connective tissue

What is the main difference between smooth (visceral) muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue?

Smooth muscle tissue is located in organs while skeletal muscle tissue is located in bones

Where does a muscle attach at the point known as the origin?

Point that attaches to a bone

What unique ability do muscles have when they contract actively?

They produce tension

What determines the direction of pull of a muscle?

Fiber direction of the muscle belly

Which part of a long bone articulates with another bone at a joint?

Articular cartilage

What is the function of the insertion point of a muscle?

Attach to a bone or another muscle

Why is skeletal muscle considered voluntarily controlled?

Because it responds to conscious commands

Where are synchondroses joints usually located?

In the metaphyseal area near epiphyseal growth plates

Which type of cartilage is typically found in symphysis joints?

Fibrocartilage

Which synovial joint type allows for uniaxial movement?

Hinge joint

What is the function of intra-articular discs at synovial joints?

Provide cushioning at high-stress joints

Where would you find menisci in the body?

At the knee joint (between femur and tibia)

Which synovial joint type is similar to a door hinge?

Hinge joint

What is a characteristic of a plane synovial joint?

Articulates two flat surfaces for gliding motion

What is the role of extracapsular ligaments in joints?

Separate from the joint capsule but stabilize the joint in close proximity

Where are proprioceptive receptors located in joints?

In the nerve endings of the joint capsule

Which type of muscle tissue forms the wall of the heart?

Cardiac muscle tissue

What is the main function of articular arteries in joints?

Deliver blood supply to the joint capsule

Which type of movement does skeletal muscle tissue primarily enable?

Flexion and extension

In which part of bones are ligaments primarily located?

Connecting bone to bone

What is the primary function of intracapsular ligaments in joints?

Reinforce articulating surfaces

What type of joint allows for 3 degrees of freedom?

Ball and Socket Synovial Joint

Which type of joint has an oval shaped projection fitting into an elliptical hole?

Condyloid Synovial Joint

What type of joint allows for flexion/extension and adduction/abduction?

Saddle Synovial Joint

In which joint are the opposing surfaces reciprocally concave-convex?

Saddle Synovial Joint

Which joint type involves a spherical surface fitting into a bowl-shaped socket?

Ball and Socket Synovial Joint

What is the characteristic feature of a Pivot Synovial Joint?

Ring formed by a ligament

Which joint type allows for uni-axial movement?

Pivot Synovial Joint

Where are synchondroses joints mainly located?

Metaphyseal area

What type of cartilage joins bones in a symphysis joint?

Fibrocartilage

Which type of synovial joint allows for the widest range of motion?

Saddle Joint

What is the main function of intra-articular discs at synovial joints?

Absorb shock and distribute pressure

Which synovial joint type is characterized by having a cylindrical surface fitting into a cylindrical groove?

Pivot Joint

What additional structure is found in synovial joints to help reduce friction and provide cushioning?

Menisci

Which term describes the type of movement allowed by a planar synovial joint?

Uniaxial movement

What is the main function of stabilizer muscles in the body?

Keep a limb from moving when the agonist muscle contracts

Which muscle principle actively produces concentric, isometric, or eccentric contractions?

Agonist

In muscle actions, which type involves the muscle shortening while contracting?

Concentric

What is the main role of the antagonist muscle in the body?

Passively elongates or shortens to permit motion

Which muscle type neither assists nor resists joint motion but permits motion to occur?

Antagonist

What is the primary function of synergist muscles in muscular actions?

Contract at the same time as the agonist

How are skeletal muscles mainly named?

Based on several types of characteristics

What is the function of an aponeurosis in the body?

Attaches muscle to bone

Which muscle has a saw-toothed edge?

Serratus anterior

What is the primary function of tendon sheaths?

Wrap around tendons at wrist and ankle

In bone anatomy, what is the function of fascia?

Dense irregular connective tissue wrapping the body

Where are sensory nerves primarily found?

In nerves that receive sensory stimuli

What is the main characteristic of compact bone?

Presence at the ends of bones

What do motor nerves allow the brain to stimulate?

Muscle contraction

What is the primary role of deep fascia in the body?

Wrapping the body under the superficial fascia

What is the main function of ligaments in joints?

Providing structural support

What type of joint are the intervertebral joints between vertebrae?

Cartilaginous symphysis joints

Which ligament extends along the anterior surfaces of the bodies of the vertebrae to limit backward bending?

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)

What is the main function of the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL) in the lumbosacral area?

Limits backward bending

What is the total range of movement in the vertebral column when slight movement occurs in all intervertebral joints?

Considerable movement

Which structure articulates with the body of the upper and lower vertebra via intervertebral disc?

Vertebral bodies

What is the main role of ligaments in the intervertebral joints?

Stabilize and support

How are the articulations of vertebral bodies functionally described?

Amphiarthrodial

What is the primary function of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL) in the vertebral canal?

Covers blood vessels and nutrient foramina

Which part of the intervertebral disc absorbs compression forces between the vertebrae?

Nucleus pulposus

Degenerative changes in which part of the intervertebral disc can lead to herniation of the nucleus pulposus?

Anulus fibrosus

What type of joint connects the lateral end of each costal cartilage to the sternal end of the rib?

Synchondrosis

Where does a postero-lateral herniation of the intervertebral disc impinge on spinal nerves?

Intervertebral foramen

Which ligaments consist of broad and thin membranous bands that radiate from the front and back of the sternal ends of the cartilages of the true ribs?

Anterior and posterior radiate sternocostal ligaments

Which type of joint are the articular processes of each vertebra creating when they articulate with upper and lower vertebrae processes?

Zygapophysial joint

Which joint movement pulls the sternum in a superior direction?

Pump handle motion

How many vertebral bodies does each rib touch in the thoracic cage?

Two vertebral bodies

What is the movement facilitated by the Costotransverse joint along with Costovertebral joints to move the ribs?

'Bucket handle' motion

What is the articulation type between the first rib cartilage and the sternum?

Synchondrosis

Which ligament connects the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra to the neck of a rib?

"costotransverse"

Which movement is possible in the sternocostal joints?

Gliding

What is the main function of Ligamenta Flava in the vertebral column?

To preserve the upright posture and assist in resuming it after flexion

In which region of the spine are the articular capsules of the facet joints more extended and looser?

Cervical region

Which ligament extends from the spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra to the sacrum?

Ligamentum Nucha

What is the function of Supraspinous Ligament along the spine?

To connect the apices of the spinous processes

Which ligament interconnects adjacent spinous processes in the vertebral column?

Interspinous Ligaments

What is the primary function of zygapophysial (facet) joints?

Facilitate slide and glide motion

What is the role of Intertransverse Ligaments in the vertebral column?

To interconnect transverse processes

Which ligament extends from the external occipital protuberance to the spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra?

Ligamentum Nucha

What is the name of the ligament that connects the atlas to the axis and is fixed to the posterior surface of the body of the axis?

Cruciate ligament of the atlas

Where are the alar ligaments inserted?

Medial sides of the condyles of the occipital bone

Which ligament appears to be a prolongation upward of the posterior longitudinal ligament within the vertebral canal?

Tectorial membrane

What type of joints articulate with the occipital bone in the atlantooccipital joint?

Synovial condyloid joints

Where is the tectorial membrane situated in relation to the vertebral canal?

Within the vertebral canal

What connects the axis and atlas to the skull, in addition to other ligaments?

Ligamentum nuchae

What structure arises on either side of the upper part of the odontoid process?

Alar ligament

Where are synovial condyloid joints located in relation to the atlantooccipital joint?

Between atlas and occipital bone

What structure binds the bodies of adjacent vertebrae together?

Intervertebral Disc

Which part of the intervertebral disc absorbs compression forces between the vertebrae?

Nucleus Pulposus

What can degenerative changes in the anulus fibrosus lead to?

Impingement on spinal nerve roots

Which ligament does not significantly restrict forward bending?

Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL)

Where can postero-lateral herniation of the intervertebral disc impinge on spinal nerves?

Intervertebral Foramen

What type of joint are the articular processes of vertebrae responsible for?

Zygapophysial Joint

Which ligament covers a plexus of arteries, veins, and lymphatics within the vertebral canal?

Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL)

Which ligament connects the anterior part of the head of each rib with the side of the bodies of two vertebrae, and the intervertebral disc between them?

Radiate ligament of head of rib

Where are Costotransverse joints formed?

Between the tubercle of the rib and the articular surface on the adjacent transverse process

Which ligament passes obliquely from the tip of the transverse process to the rough nonarticular tubercle of the rib?

Lateral costotransverse ligament

What is the function of the Intra-articular ligament of head of rib?

Divides the joint into two cavities

In Costotransverse joints, what does the superior costotransverse ligament connect to?

Transverse processes

Which ligament attaches to the crest separating two articular facets on the head of the rib and to the intervertebral disc?

Intra-articular ligament of head of rib

Where is the lateral costotransverse ligament located in relation to the rib and transverse process?

Obliquely from tip to rough nonarticular tubercle

What divides the Costotransverse joint into two cavities?

Intra-articular ligament

To what structures are the Alar ligaments inserted into?

Condyles of the occipital bone

Where is the Tectorial membrane situated within?

Vertebral canal

What is the alternative name for the cruciate ligament of the atlas?

Ligamentum nuchae

What does the superior band of the cruciate ligament of the atlas attach to?

Basilar part of the occipital bone

Which fiber type is prolonged upward and downward as the cruciate ligament crosses the odontoid process?

Posterior fibers

What is another term for the articulation of the atlas with the occipital bone?

Atlantooccipital joint

In addition to connecting the atlas and axis to the skull, what does the ligamentum nuchae connect?

Vertebral column to cranium

What type of joints are present in the articulation of the atlas with the occipital bone?

Synovial condyloid (condylar) joints

Which type of joint is formed by the bodies of vertebrae articulating via intervertebral discs?

Symphysis joint

What is the function of the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL) in the vertebral column?

Limit backward bending

How are intervertebral joints primarily classified in terms of movement?

Amphiarthrosis

What is the total range of movement achieved in the vertebral column when slight degrees of movement occur in all joints?

Extensive movement

In the vertebral column, what structure connects the spinous process of one vertebra with the lamina of the vertebra directly above it?

Interspinous ligament

Which ligament extends along the anterior surfaces of the bodies of vertebrae to support the anterior convexity in the lumbosacral area?

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)

What type of movement is primarily facilitated by intervertebral joints?

Flexion and extension

What is a characteristic feature that distinguishes articular cartilage present in intervertebral joints?

No regenerative capacity

Which ligament connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae and serves to preserve the upright posture?

Ligamenta Flava

Which ligament represents the supraspinous ligaments of the lower vertebrae in the neck?

Ligamentum Nucha

Which region of the vertebral column has the most prominent spinous process?

Cervical

Which ligament is a fibrous cord connecting the apices of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum?

Interspinous Ligaments

What is the main function of Intertransverse Ligaments in the vertebral column?

Connect transverse processes of adjacent vertebrae

Which ligament extends from the external occipital protuberance to the spinous process of C7 in the vertebral column?

Ligamentum Nucha

What is the primary function of Supraspinous Ligament in the vertebral column?

Maintain upright posture

Which ligament is membranous and extends from the root to the apex of each spinous process?

Interspinous Ligaments

Which part of the vertebrae is the largest bony segment that stacks up on each other for column height and shock absorption?

Vertebral body

What is the function of the transverse processes in the vertebrae?

Attachment for ribs and muscles

Which part of the vertebrae serves as an attachment for ribs and muscles by extending posteriorly in the sagittal plane?

Spinous processes

What is the main function of the articular processes in the vertebrae?

Formation of joints with each other

Between which parts of the vertebrae is the vertebral foramen located, which houses the spinal cord?

Vertebral body and vertebral arch

What is the purpose of the intervertebral foramen in the vertebrae?

Protection of exiting spinal nerves

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord through intervertebral foramen?

31

What curvature do the 7 vertebrae in the cervical region form?

'C' curvature

What is the distinctive characteristic of the Vertebra Prominens?

Long and palpable spinous process

Which joint forms the 'medial Atlantoaxial joint'?

Dens and anterior arch of C1

What is a key characteristic of typical Thoracic Vertebrae?

Presence of transverse costal facets on the bodies

What contributes to the formation of the lateral Atlantoaxial joint?

Superior articular facet of axis and lateral mass of atlas

What forms the Thoracic Cage?

12 thoracic vertebrae + intervertebral discs + 12 pairs of ribs + costal cartilages + sternum

What is the function of costal facets on Thoracic Vertebrae?

Articulate with tubercles of ribs

What defines the Vertebra Prominens in terms of palpability?

'Prominent spinous process

Which joint involves articulation between the spinous process and costovertebral joints?

Costovertebral joint

Where does the xiphoid process articulate below?

Xiphoid process

What is the joint that marks the approximate level of the 2nd pair of costal cartilages?

Manubriosternal joint

Where is the xiphi-sternal joint demarcated by a transverse ridge?

Rib 7 costal cartilage

What is found at the posterior margin of the superior articular processes of the lumbar vertebrae?

Mammillary process

Which part of the lumbar vertebrae is kidney-shaped and convex anteriorly?

Body

Which type of vertebrae have no facets for articulation with ribs?

Lumbar vertebrae

What demarcates the xiphi-sternal joint?

'V' shaped ridge for rib 7 costal cartilage.

What is the function of sternal angle (Angle of Louis) as a clinical landmark?

Identify the approximate level of T4 and T5 intervertebral disc.

What is the classification of ribs based on their attachment to the sternum?

True, false, and floating ribs

What is the function of the costal groove in a typical rib?

To accommodate intercostal vessels and nerves

Where are the intercostal nerves and vessels located in relation to the thoracic cage?

In the intercostal spaces between the ribs

What is the function of the tubercle on a typical rib?

To provide attachment for muscles

In which part of a typical rib do we find two semi-facets for articulation with vertebrae?

Head

What is the main classification criterion used to categorize ribs?

Attachment to the sternum

Which part of a typical rib forms a constricted portion between the head and tubercle?

Neck

What is the function of the vertebral column in the human body?

Posture and support body weight

Which region of the vertebral column has the most vertebrae?

Lumbar

What is the primary curvature of the spine when a newborn baby is born?

Kyphotic

At what stage of development does lumbar lordosis typically develop in children?

Toddlerhood

How many coccygeal vertebrae fuse to make the coccyx?

2-4

When do secondary lordotic curvatures develop in the human spine?

First few years of life

What separates the two kyphotic curvatures to create the alternating pattern in the lateral view of the spine?

Intervertebral discs

What is the main function of the vertebral foramen?

Supports the spinal cord

Which feature of a vertebra serves as an attachment for ribs and muscles?

Transverse processes

What is the function of the intervertebral foramen?

Protects spinal nerves

Which vertebral feature extends posteriorly from the vertebrae in the sagittal plane?

Spinous processes

What is the main role of laminae in a vertebra?

Protection of spinal cord

Which structure connects the body of a vertebra with the transverse processes?

Pedicles

What is the purpose of articular processes in a vertebra?

Forms joints with adjacent vertebrae

Which part of a vertebra serves as the largest bony segment for column height and shock absorption?

Vertebral body

What unique feature of the atlas (C1) differentiates it from a typical cervical vertebra?

Absence of body

Which part of the axis (C2) serves as a pivot for the rotation of the atlas?

Odontoid process

In what way do the lateral masses of the atlas differ from those of a typical cervical vertebra?

Contain superior and inferior articular surfaces

What is the function of the odontoid process on the axis in relation to the atlas?

Acts as a pivot for rotation

Which feature makes the axis unique compared to typical cervical vertebrae?

Large odontoid process

What additional arches are found on the atlas, contributing to its unique structure?

Anterior and posterior arches

Which region of the vertebral column consists of 12 vertebrae?

Thoracic

What is the primary function of the vertebral column in the human body?

Posture and support

At what stage of life does lumbar lordosis typically develop?

Toddlerhood

How many separate bones make up the vertebral column?

26

What is the term for the concave anterior curvature found in newborn spines?

Kyphosis

Which type of curvature results from the development of the spine in the first few years of life?

Lordosis

What structure is formed by the fusion of 5 sacral vertebrae?

Sacrum

Which part of the spine contains 7 vertebrae?

"Cervical"

Which characteristic of Vertebra prominens makes it distinctive?

Existence of a long and prominent spinous process

What forms the lateral Atlantoaxial joint?

Superior articular facet of the axis and the inferior articular facet on the lateral mass of the atlas

What is a distinct feature of T11 and T12 among the thoracic vertebrae?

Absence of facets on the transverse processes

What components make up the T1 Thoracic cage?

12 thoracic vertebrae + intervertebral discs

What distinguishes Vertebra prominens from other cervical vertebrae?

Palpable long and prominent spinous process

Which structure articulates with the superior articular facet of the axis?

Inferior articular facet on lateral mass of atlas

Where are costal facets present on typical thoracic vertebrae?

On sides where heads of ribs articulate

What forms the medial Atlantoaxial joint?

Facet on posterior surface of C1 anterior arch and articular facet on dens

Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles and the first and upper part of the second costal cartilages on each side?

Manubrium

Which rib is atypical, being wider and flattened than the rest, having a tubercle for the anterior scalene muscle insertion, but lacking an angle and costal groove?

First rib

Where does the shaft of a typical rib bend sharply forward?

Angle

Which ribs have only a single articular facet on their head and no neck or tubercle?

Eleventh and Twelfth ribs

What characteristic feature is unique to the body of the second rib compared to typical ribs?

Costal groove

Which rib has a slight angle and a shallow costal groove compared to other atypical ribs?

Eleventh rib

Where is the costal groove located on a typical rib?

Inferior border

Which part of the first rib provides insertion for the anterior scalene muscle?

Tubercle.

Which muscles move the rib superiorly during inspiration?

External intercostal muscles

Which muscle moves the rib inferiorly during expiration?

Internal intercostal muscles

Which nerves supply the internal and external intercostal muscles?

Intercostal nerves (T1-T11)

Which muscle is responsible for depressing the domes of the diaphragm?

Diaphragm muscles

Which main foramen in the diaphragm is located at the TXII level?

Aortic hiatus

What is the nerve supply for the diaphragm muscle responsible for its actions?

Phrenic nerves (C3, C4, C5)

Which structure do the intercostal muscles form part of in the thoracic cage?

Rib cage

Which muscle is the major muscle of inspiration?

Diaphragm

What is the arterial supply of the breast mainly done by?

Lateral thoracic artery

Which nerve innervates the nipple of the breast?

4th intercostal nerve

Where does the venous drainage of the breast mainly go into?

Axillary nodes

What is the main source of arterial supply for the thoracic wall?

Posterior intercostal arteries

Where do the posterior intercostal veins mainly drain on the right side?

Azygos vein

Which nerve supplies innervation to the nipple of the breast?

4th intercostal nerve

Which nerves primarily supply the intercostal muscles, skin of the chest wall, and parietal pleura?

Anterior rami of the thoracic spinal nerves T1 – T11

Which artery is a direct continuation of the internal thoracic artery and supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Superior epigastric artery

What vessels are responsible for the venous drainage of the abdominal wall?

Veins that run parallel to the superior epigastric artery

Which nerve supplies the skin, muscles, and parietal peritoneum of the lower abdominal wall?

Lower intercostal nerves

What structure is formed by the fusion of 5 sacral vertebrae?

Sacrum

What is a direct branch of the external iliac artery that supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Inferior epigastric artery

Which veins are involved in venous drainage parallel to specific arteries in the abdominal wall?

Veins associated with the superior epigastric artery

Which nerve supplies the skin, muscles, and parietal pleura of the chest wall?

Intercostal nerves T1 – T11

Which artery is a branch of the external iliac artery and supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Inferior epigastric artery

Which muscle moves the rib inferiorly during expiration?

Internal intercostal muscle

Which action is primarily associated with the external intercostal muscle?

Moving rib superiorly during expiration

Which structure converges muscle fibers to the central tendon in the diaphragm?

Costal margin

Which nerve supply is associated with the diaphragm muscle?

R & L phrenic nerves (C3,4,5)

What is the primary action of the diaphragm muscle?

Depresses domes

At which thoracic level is the aortic hiatus located on the diaphragm?

T12

Which muscles are part of the three flat layers of intercostal muscles?

External, middle, and internal intercostal muscles

What is the arterial supply of the breast mainly done by?

Lateral thoracic branch of the axillary artery

Which artery mainly drains on the right side into the azygos vein from the thoracic wall?

Posterior intercostal veins

What is the innervation of the nipple in the breast?

4th intercostal nerve

Where do anterior intercostal veins primarily drain into from the thoracic wall?

Internal thoracic veins

What percentage of lymphatic drainage from the breast goes into axillary nodes?

75%

Which veins drain into the hemiazygos or accessory hemiazygos from the thoracic wall?

Posterior intercostal veins

Which nerves provide the innervation to the breast?

2nd to 6th intercostal nerves

Which nerves mainly supply the intercostal muscles, skin of the chest wall, and parietal pleura?

Anterior rami of the upper thoracic spinal nerves

What is the direct continuation of the internal thoracic artery that supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Superior epigastric artery

What structures run parallel to the superior and inferior epigastric arteries for venous drainage of the abdominal wall?

Thoracoepigastric veins

Which branch of the external iliac artery supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Inferior epigastric artery

What is the nerve supply for the skin, muscles, and parietal peritoneum of the abdominal wall?

Intercostal nerves

Which spinal nerve is considered as a subcostal nerve and is positioned under rib #12?

T12

What is the primary vessel that directly continues from the internal thoracic artery?

Superior epigastric artery

Which branch of the external iliac artery supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Inferior epigastric artery

What structure runs parallel to superior epigastric artery for venous drainage of abdominal wall?

Thoracoepigastric vein

What is the main function of the superficial extrinsic back muscles?

Produce and control limb movements

From which cranial nerve does the trapezius receive its motor fibers?

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

Which group of muscles specifically act on the vertebral column?

Deep intrinsic back muscles

Where do the superficial extrinsic back muscles receive their nerve supply from?

Anterior rami of cervical nerves

Which muscle is NOT classified as a superficial extrinsic back muscle?

Erector spinae

What is the primary function of the intrinsic (deep) back muscles?

Act on the vertebral column

Which nerve supplies motor fibers to the trapezius muscle?

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

What is the role of the intermediate extrinsic back muscles?

Produce and control limb movements

What is the function of the Thoracolumbar Fascia?

To form a thin covering over the intrinsic back muscles in the thoracic region

Which muscle group lies on the lateral and posterior aspects of the neck?

Splenius Muscles

Which group of back muscles are commonly designated as superficial respiratory muscles, but are more likely proprioceptive rather than motor in function?

Serratus Posterior Group

What are the chief functions of the erector spinae muscles?

To extend the vertebral column

Which muscle group is part of the superficial layer of intrinsic back muscles composed of the muscles Splenius Capitis and Splenius Cervicis?

Spinotransverse Group

Which muscle forms the lateral column of the erector spinae muscles?

Iliocostalis

Which layer of intrinsic back muscles in the spine helps maintain posture and control movements of the vertebral column?

Deep Layer

What is the function of the longissimus muscle?

Forms intermediate column of erector spinae muscles

Which muscle is part of the deep layer of intrinsic back muscles and belongs to the Transversospinalis Group?

Semispinalis

Which term explains why the splenius muscles are named as such?

Because they cover vertical muscles somewhat like a bandage

What type of nerves innervate the intrinsic back muscles (muscles of the back proper, deep back muscles)?

Spinal Nerves

In which region are the splenius muscles located?

Thoracic

Where does the serratus posterior superior lie in relation to other muscles in the back?

Deep to the rhomboid muscles

Which fascia encloses the intrinsic muscles of the spine extending from the pelvis to the cranium?

Thoracolumbar Fascia

Which type of contraction involves lateral flexion of the head and contralateral rotation of the head?

Unilateral contraction

During forced inhalation, which action is carried out by the sternum and clavicle?

Elevation

Which nerve innervates all muscles in the deep group of anterior neck muscles?

C.N.XI (Spinal accessory nerve)

Which muscle helps in raising the first rib during inspiration?

Anterior Scalene

Which muscle is responsible for extension of the head and upper neck?

Longus capitis

Which type of contraction involves flexion of the lower neck?

Bilateral contraction

Which pair of muscles are involved in contralateral rotation of the head and neck?

Longus capitis and Longus coli

Which deep back muscle is best developed in the lumbar region and is responsible for stabilization of the vertebral column?

Multifidus

Which deep back muscle is primarily responsible for extension of the head, cervical spine, and thoracic spine?

Semispinalis thoracis

Which deep back muscle assists with respiration by aiding in the elevation of ribs and lateral flexion of the column?

Levatores costarum

Which group of deep back muscles are also known as the segmental muscles of the back?

Minor deep back muscles

Which deep back muscles connect spinous and transverse processes, respectively?

Interspinales and intertransversarii

Which deep back muscles are best developed in the thoracic region and provide stabilization and proprioception of the vertebral column?

Rotatores

Which of the following deep back muscles primarily assist in small rotatory movements in the thoracic spine?

Semispinalis capitis

Which layer of deep back muscles consists of short triangular muscular bundles that are thickest in the lumbar region?

Multifidus

Which layer of back muscles is commonly designated as superficial respiratory muscles, but are more likely proprioceptive rather than motor in function?

Intermediate layer

Which deep muscle lies deep to the rhomboid muscles?

Serratus posterior superior

Which pair of muscles are innervated by intercostal nerves running within the ribcage?

Serratus posterior superior and Serratus posterior inferior

Which group of muscles in the back maintain posture and control movements of the vertebral column?

Transversospinalis Group

Which type of muscles are the Splenius Capitis and Splenius Cervicis?

Superficial layer

Which muscle group in the back is responsible for lateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation of the spine?

Semispinalis, Multifidus, and Rotatores

What is the function of the thoracolumbar fascia with respect to the intrinsic back muscles?

Enclosure of intrinsic muscles

What differentiates the intermediate intrinsic back muscles from the superficial extrinsic back muscles?

Proprioceptive function

Which group of back muscles specifically act on the vertebral column and maintain posture?

Intrinsic back muscles

Which nerve supplies the trapezius muscle among the following?

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

What is the main function of the superficial extrinsic back muscles?

Connect the vertebral column with the upper limb

Which group of back muscles receives its nerve supply mainly from anterior rami of cervical nerves?

Superficial extrinsic back muscles

Which muscle helps in controlling limb movements among the following?

Latissimus dorsi

From which region does the trapezius muscle mainly receive its motor fibers?

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

What is the most significant difference between the intrinsic and extrinsic back muscles?

Function in limb movements

Which muscle group lies on the lateral and posterior aspects of the neck and covers the vertical muscles somewhat like a bandage?

Splenius Muscles

Which group of back muscles acts primarily on producing limb and respiratory movements?

Superficial extrinsic back muscles

What is the name given to the thick covering for muscles in the lumbar region made by a structure that extends laterally from the spinous processes?

Thoracolumbar Fascia

Which muscle group is the chief extensor of the vertebral column and is divided into columns named Iliocostalis, Longissimus, and Spinalis?

Erector Spinae Muscles

Which region of the back contains the splenius muscles and forms a thin covering over intrinsic back muscles in the thoracic region?

Superficial Layer of Deep Back Muscles

What is the name given to the thick and flat muscles that cover and hold the deep neck muscles in position?

Splenius Muscles

Which column of the erector spinae muscles forms the medial column of this muscle group?

Spinalis

Where do the splenius muscles specifically lie in relation to the neck and vertical muscles?

Lateral and posterior aspects

Which muscles lie in a 'groove' on each side of the vertebral column between the spinous processes centrally and the angles of the ribs laterally?

Erector Spinae Muscles

Which group of muscles is responsible for the elevation of the sternum and clavicle during forced inhalation?

Anterior Scalene

Which muscle is involved in lateral flexion of the head and neck?

Rectus capitis lateralis

Which nerve innervates all muscles in the deep group of the anterior neck muscles?

Ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves

Which muscle is NOT part of the deep group of anterior neck muscles?

Middle Scalene

Which action is carried out by bilateral contraction of neck muscles?

Extension of head and upper neck

Which muscle raises the first rib during inspiration?

Anterior Scalene

Which muscle is innervated by C.N.XI (Spinal accessory nerve) in the anterior neck muscles?

Rectus capitis anterior

During forced inhalation, which action is NOT carried out by the sternum and clavicle?

Retraction of sternum and clavicle

Which deep back muscle is best developed in the lumbar region and is responsible for the stabilization of the vertebral column?

Multifidus

Which deep back muscle connects the spinous processes and is responsible for extension and rotation of the spine?

Interspinales

Which deep back muscle assists in small rotatory movements in the thoracic spine?

Rotatores

Which deep back muscle is relatively sparse in the thoracic region and helps with respiration by aiding in the elevation of ribs and lateral flexion of the column?

Levatores costarum

Which deep back muscle is divided into three parts based on its superior attachments and is involved in extension of the head, cervical spine, and thoracic spine?

Semispinalis capitis

Which group of deep back muscles is best developed in the lumbar region and assists in stabilizing the vertebral column?

Which deep back muscle is divided into semispinalis capitis, semispinalis thoracis, and semispinalis cervicis?

Multifidus

Which deep back muscle is responsible for stabilization of the vertebral column and proprioception, mainly developed in the thoracic region?

Rotatores

Which minor deep back muscle connects spinous processes for extension and rotation in the back?

Interspinales

In which region are the levatores costarum muscles relatively sparse?

Thoracic region

Which deep back muscle assists with respiration by elevating ribs and contributes to lateral flexion of the column?

Levatores costarum

Which deep back muscle is known as the segmental muscle of the back due to its connection between spinous and transverse processes?

Interspinales

What is the primary action of the multifidus muscle?

Stabilization of vertebral column

'Assist with respiration in elevation of ribs and lateral flexion of column' is a primary action associated with which deep back muscle?

Rotatores

Which bone forms the inferior aspect of the skull?

Occipital bone

Which part of the skull is known as the brain box?

Parietal bone

Which bone is part of the facial skeleton?

Zygomatic bone

Which cranial fossa houses the frontal lobes of the brain?

Anterior cranial fossa

Which facial bone contains the nasal cavity?

Maxilla

Which structure connects the parietal bones at the top of the skull?

Sagittal suture

Which bone contributes to the floor of the eye socket (orbit)?

Maxilla

What anatomical structure passes through the foramen ovale?

CN V3

Through which opening does CN II pass?

Optic foramen

Which structure is associated with the superior orbital fissure?

CN III, IV, VI, and V1 branch

What passes through the jugular foramen?

CN IX, X, XII

What is the main content passing through the internal auditory meatus?

CN VII and VIII

Which structure is related to the hypoglossal canal?

CN XII

What anatomical feature is closely linked to the external auditory meatus?

Open canal for sound waves

Which bone forms the majority of the forehead and contributes to the roof of the orbit?

Frontal bone

What is the primary function of the sphenoid bone in the skull?

Supports the brain and cranial contents

Which bone contributes to the nasal septum and is located in the midline of the skull?

Vomer

What is the function of the ethmoid bone in relation to the skull?

Forms part of the nasal cavity and eye socket

Which bone is known for its butterfly shape and forms a key part of the cranial base?

Sphenoid bone

In the skull, which bone articulates with all other cranial bones?

Parietal bone

Which facial bone directly articulates with both the frontal bone and the maxilla?

Zygomatic bone

Which foramen is covered by cartilage and located where the sphenoid bone meets the temporal and occipital bones?

Foramen lacerum

Which structure passes through the optic foramen in the sphenoid bone?

Cranial Nerve II

Where is the jugular foramen located, passing between which two bones?

Occipital and temporal bones

Which foramen in the sphenoid bone sits just lateral to the foramen ovale and transmits a branch of cranial nerve V?

Foramen rotundum

What anatomical structure passes through the carotid canal located in the external aspect of the temporal bone?

Internal carotid artery

Which foramen in the sphenoid bone is located between the lesser and greater wings and serves as a passageway for cranial nerves III, IV, VI, and the ophthalmic division of V?

Superior orbital fissure

Which anatomical structure passes through the internal auditory meatus located in the petrous portion of the temporal bone?

Facial nerve (CN VII) and Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)

Where is the hypoglossal canal located, allowing passage for which cranial nerve?

Occipital bone, CN XII

Which muscle is responsible for closing the eyelids?

Orbicularis Oculi

What muscle is associated with the skin over the eyebrows?

Frontalis

Which muscle is responsible for elevation and retraction of the upper eyelid?

Levator palpebrae superioris

What is the primary function of the muscles of the nose?

Providing evidence of breathing behaviors

What layer of the scalp is continuous with muscle and serves as an origin for some scalp muscles?

Aponeurosis

Which muscle is responsible for pressing the cheeks against teeth and lips?

Buccinator

Which scalp layer contains hair follicles, vessels, nerves, and lymph?

Loose CT

What is the main function of the orbicularis oris muscle?

Closing and protruding lips

What is the main action of the occipitalis muscle?

Drawing the scalp backward

Which group of muscles is responsible for retracting the lower lip?

Depressors, retractors, and evertors of the lower lip

In which part of the skull is the orbicularis oculi muscle located?

Eye Socket

Which muscle group radiates from the lips and angles of the mouth like spokes of a wheel?

Several dilator muscles

What is the main function of the levator labii superioris muscle?

Elevating the upper lip

Which artery supplies blood to the brain?

Vertebral artery

At what level does the common carotid artery bifurcate to form the external and internal carotid arteries?

C3 or C4

Which venous system drains all of the blood from the head and neck?

Internal jugular veins

Which artery supplies the anterior thoracic wall and breast tissue?

Internal thoracic artery

Which artery changes its name to Axillary artery as it passes under the clavicle?

Dorsal scapular artery

What do the common carotid arteries bifurcate into at the level of C3 or C4 cervical vertebrae?

External and internal carotid arteries

Which vein system forms the two main veins of the neck, the internal and external jugular veins?

Intracranial veins

What does the internal jugular vein drain in relation to the head and neck?

All blood from both the head and neck

What is the main function of the TMJ-articular disc?

To separate the joint cavity into superior and inferior compartments

Which ligament is primarily responsible for preventing posterior dislocation of the mandible at the TMJ?

TMJ-lateral ligament

What contributes to dislocation of the TMJ during yawning or taking a large bite?

Mandible dislocating anterior to the articular tubercle

Which extrinsic ligament extends from the spine of the sphenoid to the medial surface of the ramus of the mandible?

TMJ-Sphenomandibular ligament

What is the role of the TMJ-stylomandibular ligament in limiting movement of the mandible at the TMJ?

Connecting from the styloid process to the mandible

Where does the basic movement involved in opening the mouth occur within the TMJ?

On the articular surface of the mandibular fossa

Which structure separates the joint cavity into superior and inferior compartments in the TMJ?

TMJ-articular disc

What can cause dislocation of the TMJ when a sideways blow to the chin occurs?

Posterior dislocation of mandible

Where does the temporalis muscle originate?

Temporal fossa and fascia

Which nerve innervates the masseter muscle?

Mandibular nerve (V3)

What is the insertion point of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

Articular disc and to the neck of the mandible

Which structure does not play a role in the Temporo-Mandibular Joint articulation?

Articular surfaces include: 1.Condylar process of mandible 2.Articular tubercle of temporal bone 3.

Which muscle has the main function of moving the jaw side to side?

Lateral pterygoid

What is the primary innervation for the muscles of mastication?

Mandibular nerve (V3)

Which structure acts as a hinge in the Temporo-Mandibular Joint?

Condylar process

What is the primary function of the orbicularis oculi muscle?

Closure of the eyelids

Which muscle connects the skin over the eyebrows to the Galea aponeurotica layer of the skull?

Frontalis

Which structure acts as a physical barrier from trauma and potential pathogens?

Scalp skin

What is the insertion point of the Occipitalis muscle?

Superior nuchal line

What is the main function of Levator palpebrae superioris muscle?

Elevation and retraction of the upper eyelid

Which layer of the scalp is continuous with muscle?

Aponeurosis

Which muscle of mastication has its origin on the zygomatic arch?

Masseter

What is the innervation of the medial pterygoid muscle?

Mandibular nerve (V3)

Which structure is part of the temporomandibular joint articular surfaces?

Mandibular condyles

What type of synovial joint is the temporomandibular joint?

Combined hinge and planar type of synovial joint

Where does the lateral pterygoid muscle insert?

Articular disc

Which muscle is mainly responsible for moving the jaw side to side?

Lateral pterygoid

What is the main function of the buccinator muscle in the cheek?

Presses cheeks against teeth and lips, as in whistling

Which muscle group is responsible for depressing, retracting, and everting the lower lip?

Depressors of the lower lip

What is the function of the orbicularis oris muscle?

Closes and protrudes lips (as in kissing)

What does the levator labii superioris muscle primarily do?

Raises the upper lip

What is the primary function of the risoris muscle?

Helps to keep food in the mouth and resist distension

During which movement does the head of the mandible lie inferior to the articular tubercle?

Anterior movement of the mandible

Which ligament extends from the spine of the sphenoid to the medial surface of the ramus of the mandible?

TMJ-sphenomandibular ligament

Which structure does not contribute significantly to the strength of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

TMJ-sphenomandibular ligament

What can dislocate the TMJ on the side that received a sideways blow to the chin?

A sideways blow to the chin

Which ligament separates the parotid gland from the submandibular gland?

TMJ-stylomandibular ligament

Which artery changes its name to Axillary artery as it passes under the clavicle?

Dorsal scapular artery

Where does the common carotid artery bifurcate to form the external and internal carotid arteries?

C3

Which system forms the two main veins of the neck, the internal and external jugular veins?

Intracranial veins

What structures do the internal jugular veins drain blood from?

Brain and eyes

Which artery supplies oxygenated blood to the face and neck?

External carotid artery

What does the Thyrocervical trunk supply in the neck region?

Thyroid gland

What is the function of the internal carotid artery in terms of blood supply?

Supplies brain and eyes

Which part of the skeleton consists of 80 bones and lies along the longitudinal axis of the body?

Axial Skeleton

The upper limb bones include all of the following EXCEPT:

Femur

What is the structure that converts the carpal arch into a tunnel in the wrist known as?

Flexor retinaculum

Which bone forms part of the shoulder girdle and is the only long bone positioned horizontally?

Clavicle

Which bone in the hand has a tubercle on its palmar surface?

Scaphoid bone

Which term is used to describe the 126 bones that make up the upper and lower limbs, as well as the pelvic and pectoral girdles?

Appendicular Skeleton

What is the main function of the pelvic girdle?

Support Movement of Lower Limbs

What is the name of the hook-like structure on the palmar surface of the hamate bone?

Hamulus

Which part of the hand consists of a proximal, a middle, and a distal phalanx?

Phalanx bone

Which bone is NOT part of the upper limb?

Femur

What makes up the shoulder girdle?

(1) Clavicle, (2) Scapula

Which structure articulates with the carpals at one end and the proximal phalanges at the other end?

Metacarpal bone

Which bone is unique as it forms part of the shoulder girdle and lies horizontally?

(1) Scapula, (2) Clavicle

How many phalanges does the thumb typically have?

Two phalanges

Which bone is curved laterally and has a hook-like structure on its palmar surface?

Hamate bone

What converts the carpal arch into a tunnel by thickening on the anterior wrist?

'Thinking' of deep fascia

Which part of the humerus has the lateral capitulum for articulation with the head of the radius?

Lateral epicondyle

What lies proximal to the trochlea on the distal end of the humerus?

Coronoid fossa

On which side of the forearm is the radius located?

Lateral side

At what location does the radial tuberosity lie on the radius?

Proximal end

Which structure lies medial to the styloid process on the radius?

Ulnar notch

What type of surface does the carpal articular surface of the radius face?

Distally

Where is the trochlea located on the humerus?

Medial side

Which structure lies above the glenoid cavity?

Supraglenoid tubercle

Where is the suprascapular notch located?

Upper border of the scapula

What lies proximally on the body of the humerus?

Surgical neck

Which structure is bent at a right angle ventro-laterally and lies above the glenoid cavity?

Coracoid process

Where is the intertubercular sulcus located on the humerus?

Between the greater and lesser tubercles

What lies behind the deltoid tuberosity on the humerus?

Radial groove

Where are the lateral and medial supracondylar ridges located?

Distal end of humerus

What structure divides the antero-medial and anterolateral surfaces of the humerus?

Intercondylar sulcus

What is the bony elevation on the dorsal surface of the distal end of the ulna called?

Dorsal tubercle

Which part of the ulna articulates with the humerus?

Olecranon and coronoid process

Where is the supinator crest located on the ulna?

On the lateral surface

Which carpal bone is superimposed on the triquetrum in the proximal row of carpal bones?

Pisiform

What is formed by the olecranon and coronoid processes of the ulna?

Trochlear notch

Which muscle has tendons running in grooves on the dorsum of the hand?

Extensor carpi radialis longus

What structure is located inferior to the coronoid process on the ulna's lateral surface?

Tuberosity of ulna

Which bone is located between the scaphoid and capitate in the distal row of carpal bones?

Trapezoid

Which type of bone is the clavicle classified as?

Long bone

In the upper limb, which bone articulates with the carpal bones?

Radius

Which part of the axial skeleton includes the ear ossicles?

Skull

What region of the body does the appendicular skeleton primarily encompass?

Upper and lower limbs

What is the primary function of the pelvic girdle?

To provide attachment for lower limb bones

Which term describes a bone that lies horizontally in the body?

Transverse bone

How many bones make up the shoulder girdle in humans?

Three

In human anatomy, which part of the body does the term 'phalanges' refer to?

Hand and foot digits

What structure converts the carpal arch into a tunnel in the wrist?

Flexor retinaculum

Which metacarpal bone articulates with the proximal phalanges?

First metacarpal

How many phalanges does each digit of the hand typically consist of?

Three

Which bone in the hand has a hook-like structure called the hamulus?

Hamate

What type of bone makes up the scaphoid?

Short bone

Which carpal bone converts the carpal arch into a tunnel by its relation to flexor retinaculum?

Lunate

How many tendons and a nerve pass through the carpal tunnel from the forearm to the hand?

Nine tendons and a nerve

Where is the infraglenoid tubercle located in relation to the glenoid cavity?

Below the glenoid cavity

Which structure lies proximally on the body of the humerus?

Surgical neck

Where is the coracoid process located in relation to the glenoid cavity?

Above the glenoid cavity

What is the position of the supraglenoid tubercle in relation to the glenoid cavity?

Above the glenoid cavity

Which structure is located lateral to the deltoid tuberosity on the humerus?

Greater tubercle

Where is the suprascapular notch located in relation to the base of the coracoid process?

Medial to the base of the coracoid process

Where is the intertubercular (bicipital) groove located in relation to the greater and lesser tubercles?

Between greater and lesser tubercles

What lies behind the deltoid tuberosity on the humerus?

Radial groove (for radial nerve)

What is the bony elevation on the dorsal surface of the distal end called?

Dorsal tubercle

Which forearm bone has the olecranon and coronoid processes for articulation with the humerus?

Ulna

What is the prominent ridge on the lateral surface of the ulnar shaft called?

Supinator crest

Which carpal bone is superimposed on the triquetrum in the proximal row?

Pisiform

Where is the interosseous membrane attached along the ulna?

Tuberosity of the ulna

What forms the walls of the trochlear notch in articulation with the humerus?

Coronoid process and olecranon

Which structure on the distal end of the humerus articulates with the head of the radius?

Capitulum

What is the function of the radial tuberosity on the radius bone?

Muscle attachment for flexor muscles of the forearm

Which fossa is located on the anterior surface of the distal end of the humerus, proximal to the trochlea?

Radial fossa

What lies proximal to the capitulum on the distal end of the humerus?

Coronoid fossa

Which bone in the forearm has a carpal articular surface facing distally?

Radius

What is located medial to the styloid process at the lower end of the radius?

Ulnar notch

Which part of the humerus is described as spool-shaped and articulates with the proximal end of the ulna?

Trochlea

Which muscle is situated on the lateral and anterior parts of the abdomen and is the largest of the three flat muscles in this region?

Obliquus externus abdominis

What nerve innervates the Obliquus externus abdominis muscle?

Intercostal nerves (T7 to T12)

Which muscle is placed immediately beneath the internal abdominal oblique muscle?

Transversus abdominis

What is the origin of the Obliquus internus abdominis muscle?

  • lateral 1/3 of Inguinal ligament & Anterior 2/3 of iliac crest

Which muscle is smaller and thinner than the Obliquus externus abdominis muscle?

Obliquus internus abdominis

Where is the Transversus abdominis muscle located in relation to other abdominal muscles?

Most internal

What structures does the Obliquus externus abdominis muscle insert into?

  • Linea alba & Lower 3 ribs

Which nerve innervates both the Obliquus internus and Transversus abdominis muscles?

Intercostal nerves (T6 to T12) & L1

Which muscle lies immediately beneath the Internal abdominal oblique muscle?

Transversus abdominis

Which fascial layer is located deep to Camper’s fascia in the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Scarpa’s fascia

In the rectus sheath superior to the arcuate line, which muscle's aponeurosis contributes to the anterior lamina?

Internal oblique

What structures meet directly at the posterior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscles below the arcuate line?

Transversalis fascia and internal oblique

Which muscle is part of the deep layers of the anterolateral abdominal wall?

Transversus abdominis

What forms the posterior lamina of the rectus sheath superior to the arcuate line?

Internal oblique and transversus abdominis

Which layer directly meets the posterior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscles inferior to the arcuate line?

(Transversalis fascia

What layer is absent in the posterior lamina of the rectus sheath superior to the arcuate line?

(Transversalis fascia

Which muscle is crossed by fibrous bands named the tendinous intersections?

Rectus abdominis

Where is Camper's fascia located in relation to the abdominal wall layers?

Superficial to the skin of the abdomen

At what level do the aponeuroses of all 3 lateral abdominal muscles pass anterior to the rectus abdominis muscle?

Arcuate line

Which structure is composed of the aponeurosis of the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles?

Rectus sheath

Where is Scarpa's fascia anchored laterally and medially?

Aponeurosis of external oblique and linea alba

Where is the thinnest layer of CT located in relation to the TA muscle and extraperitoneal fat?

Between TA muscle and parietal peritoneum

What is the common location for a postero-lateral herniation impinging on spinal nerves?

Above Arcuate line

Which muscle is sometimes considered to be the iliopsoas due to its common distal attachment with the iliacus muscle?

Psoas Major

Which nerve innervates the quadratus lumborum muscle?

Ventral rami of spinal nerves T12-L4

What is the origin of the iliopsoas muscle?

Iliac fossa

Where is the superficial inguinal ring located?

A triangular gap in the external oblique aponeurosis

Which nerve is found within the inguinal canal in males?

Ilioinguinal nerve

What is the insertion point of the psoas major muscle?

Lesser trochanter of femur

Where does the inguinal canal extend from and to?

From the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring

Which muscle is the most internal of the flat muscles of the abdomen?

Transversus abdominis

What is the nerve supply for the Obliquus internus abdominis muscle?

Intercostal nerves (T6 to T12) & L1

Which muscle is situated on the lateral and anterior parts of the abdomen beneath the Obliquus externus abdominis?

Obliquus internus abdominis

The lower three ribs are insertion points for which muscle?

Internal abdominal oblique muscle

Which muscle is the largest and most superficial of the three flat muscles in the lateral and anterior parts of the abdomen?

Obliquus externus abdominis

Which muscle is responsible for evertion of the lower lip?

Depressor labii inferioris

Where are the external intercostal muscles primarily located?

Thoracic region

Which part of a vertebra serves as the largest bony segment for column height and shock absorption?

Body

What is the origin of the Transversus abdominis muscle?

Thoracolumbar fascia

Which fascia is present inferior to the arcuate line in the abdominal wall anatomy?

Scarpa’s Fascia

What layer directly meets the posterior aspect of rectus abdominis muscles below the arcuate line in the abdominal wall anatomy?

Transversalis fascia

Which muscle is NOT part of the anterolateral abdominal wall deep layers?

Rectus abdominis muscle

What is the composition of Camper’s Fascia in the abdominal wall anatomy?

Fatty layer

Inferior to the arcuate line, which structure forms the anterior lamina of the rectus sheath?

Aponeurosis of external oblique and internal oblique

Which layer directly meets the posterior aspect of transversus abdominis muscle above the arcuate line in the abdominal wall anatomy?

Rectus Sheath

'Extraperitoneal fat' is located between which structures in the layers of the abdominal wall anatomy?

Transversalis fascia and Parietal Peritoneum

'Rectus Sheath' above the arcuate line is formed by which components in the abdominal wall anatomy?

'Full aponeurosis of external oblique and posterior half of internal oblique'

What is the main function of the Rectus Sheath?

Forms a protective covering over the rectus abdominis muscle

Where is Scarpa's Fascia located in relation to Camper's Fascia?

Between Camper's Fascia and the rectus sheath

At what level is the Arcuate line located in the abdomen?

1/4 of the distance between the umbilicus and pubic symphysis

What is the primary location where all three lateral abdominal muscle aponeuroses pass anterior to the rectus abdominis muscle?

Below the arcuate line

What is the composition of Campers Fascia in terms of tissue?

Adipose and areolar connective tissue layer

Where is the Rectus abdominis muscle separated from its fellow on the opposite side?

By the linea alba

To which bones do the tendinous intersections attach in the Rectus abdominis muscle?

Xiphoid process and ribs 5, 6, 7 cartilages

Where are fibrous bands named tendinous intersections found in relation to the Rectus abdominis muscle?

Running across the muscle belly of rectus abdominis

Where is the superficial inguinal ring located?

In the external oblique aponeurosis

Which nerve innervates the Psoas Major muscle?

Lumbar plexus (L1, L2, L3)

What do the Psoas Major and Iliacus muscles collectively form?

Iliopsoas muscle

What structures are contained within the Inguinal Canal in males?

Ductus (vas) deferens and testicular vessels

Where is the deep inguinal ring situated?

In the fascia transversalis

Which ligament does not insert into Rib 12?

Iliolumbar ligament

What is the nerve supply to the Quadratus lumborum muscle?

Ventral rami of spinal nerves T12, L1, 2, 3, 4

Which muscle is responsible for strengthening the shoulder joint capsule except inferiorly?

Subscapularis

Where does the Teres Major muscle originate from?

Inferior lateral border of scapula

What nerve innervates the Supraspinatus muscle?

Suprascapular nerve

Which artery does not pass through the Axillary spaces mentioned in the text?

Profunda brachii artery

What contributes to the downward dislocations of the humerus in the shoulder joint?

Presence of rotator cuff muscles

Which muscle serves as a common site for intramuscular injections due to its thick and well-developed deltoid muscle?

Supraspinatus

At which two locations does the deltoid muscle originate, contributing to its role in shoulder abduction?

Clavicle and acromion of the scapula

Which muscle of the rotator cuff plays a significant role in stabilizing the glenohumeral joint due to its location on the anterior surface of the scapula?

Subscapularis

Which rotator cuff muscle has an insertion on the greater tubercle of the humerus along with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles?

Subscapularis

Which muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder joint?

Infraspinatus

Which muscle of the rotator cuff is located superior to the teres major and assists in adduction and internal rotation of the shoulder?

Supraspinatus

Which muscle originates from the superior lateral border of the scapula and inserts into the greater tubercle of the humerus?

Infraspinatus

In which fossa does the muscle that originates from the infraspinous fossa insert into the greater tubercle of the humerus?

Supraspinous fossa

Which muscle is NOT part of the rotator cuff muscles as described in the text?

Latissimus dorsi

What nerve innervates the muscle that originates from the inferior lateral border of the scapula and inserts into the medial lip of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus?

Subscapular nerve

In which direction are dislocations of the humerus explained to occur most commonly based on the text information provided?

Downward

Which muscle assists in all of the following movements: extension of the head, cervical spine, and thoracic spine?

Splenius capitis

What does the lateral costotransverse ligament primarily connect?

Rib to vertebrae

Which type of joint has a spherical surface articulating with a bowl-shaped socket?

Ball and socket joint

In the upper limb, which bone articulates directly with the carpal bones?

Radius

What is the main function of the TMJ-articular disc?

Absorb shock

Where is Scarpa's fascia anchored, both laterally and medially?

Between skin layers

Which muscle is responsible for rotation of the glenoid cavity superiorly to allow complete abduction of the arm?

Serratus anterior

Which nerve innervates the Pectoralis Major muscle?

Medial and lateral pectoral nerves

What is the origin of the Latissimus Dorsi muscle?

Ilium & sacrum

Which muscle contributes to the extension of the arm?

Latissimus dorsi

Which muscle helps in medial rotation of the arm?

Pectoralis major

What is the insertion point of the Serratus Anterior muscle?

Intertubercular groove of humerus

Which nerve innervates the Latissimus Dorsi muscle?

Thoracodorsal nerve

Which muscle is responsible for protracting the scapula and causing upward rotation?

Serratus anterior

Injury to which nerve results in the 'winged scapula' presentation?

Long thoracic nerve

Which muscle acts to depress the clavicle at the sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints?

Subclavius

Which nerve arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

Axillary nerve

What is the origin of the Serratus anterior muscle?

First rib

Which muscle receives its motor fibers mainly from the medial cord of the brachial plexus?

Ulnar nerve

Which nerve innervates the Pectoralis minor muscle?

Medial pectoral nerve

Which part of the upper limb is innervated by the Musculocutaneous nerve?

Muscles on the lateral aspect of the forearm

What action does the Subclavius muscle perform at the acromioclavicular joint?

Depression

Which muscle is involved in both protraction and downward rotation of the scapula?

Pectoralis minor

Which nerve is responsible for innervating the skin of the medial side of the hand?

Ulnar nerve

What nerve innervates the Subclavius muscle?

Nerve to subclavius

Which nerve innervates the skin on the lateral aspect of the arm?

Radial nerve

Which structure is not a part of the brachial plexus terminal branches?

Sciatic nerve

Which nerve provides innervation to the deltoid muscle in the upper limb?

Axillary nerve

Which cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to the Median nerve?

Medial cord

Which muscle is responsible for the depression of the scapula?

Rhomboids minor

What is the nerve innervation for the Middle Trapezius muscle?

Dorsal scapular nerve

Which muscle is primarily responsible for retraction (adduction) of the scapula?

Rhomboids major

What is the origin of the Levator Scapulae muscle?

TPs of C1-C4

Which action is carried out by the lower fibers of the Trapezius muscle?

Depression of the scapula

What is the insertion of the Rhomboids major muscle?

Medial (vertebral) border of scapula at the root of the spine

Which nerve innervates the Rhomboids major muscle?

Dorsal scapular nerve

What is the correct order of formation for the brachial plexus nerves?

5 Roots, 6 Divisions, 7 Cords, 3 Trunks, 5 Terminal Branches

Which division of the brachial plexus passes underneath the clavicle as it heads towards the axilla?

Anterior Division

Which trunk of the brachial plexus is formed by the roots C8 and T1?

Inferior Trunk

From which divisions are the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus primarily derived?

Anterior Division

Which branch forms from the posterior divisions of all three trunks in the brachial plexus?

Posterior Cord

What is the arrangement of terminal branches in the brachial plexus known by the mnemonic 'MARMU'?

Musculocutaneous, Axillary, Radial, Median, Ulnar

Which nerve is missing from the Brachial Plexus animation video?

Long thoracic nerve

To which region of the upper limb does the Lateral cord of the Brachial Plexus provide innervation?

Anterior arm

What is the primary function of the Ulnar nerve in the upper limb?

Innervate forearm flexor muscles

Which nerve arises from the Posterior cord of the Brachial Plexus?

Radial nerve

What is the main function of the Serratus anterior muscle?

Horizontal ADDuction of the arm

Which muscle is innervated by the Axillary nerve according to the text?

Deltoid

Which nerve innervates the Latissimus Dorsi muscle?

Thoracodorsal nerve

Which nerve innervates the Musculocutaneous nerve?

Lateral cord

Which nerve innervates the rhomboids major and minor?

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

Which muscle assists in anterior tilt of the pelvis?

Latissimus Dorsi

Which part of the upper limb does the Median nerve innervate primarily?

Thumb side of the palm

What is the origin of the levator scapulae muscle?

TPs of C1-C4

What is the origin of the Pectoralis Major muscle's sternocostal head?

Sternum

Which major nerves arise from the Medial cord of the Brachial Plexus?

Median and Ulnar nerves

Which part of the clavicle is inserted by the trapezius muscle?

Lateral 1/3

Which muscle is responsible for medial rotation of the arm?

Latissimus Dorsi

What is the action of the middle fibers of the trapezius muscle?

Retraction (adduction) of scapula

Where does the Latissimus Dorsi muscle insert?

Intertubercular groove of humerus

Where do the lower fibers of the trapezius insert?

Lateral border of the scapula

What is the function of the Thoracodorsal nerve?

Extension of arm

Which muscle(s) are involved in extension of the cervical spine?

Upper Fibers of Trapezius

What is one action NOT carried out by the Pectoralis Major muscle?

Extension of arm

What is the insertion point of the rhomboids minor muscle?

Medial (vertebral) border of scapula at the root of the spine

Which nerve innervates the levator scapulae muscle?

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

Which muscle is responsible for protraction and upward rotation of the scapula?

Serratus anterior

Which nerve innervates the Serratus anterior muscle?

Long thoracic nerve

Which muscle is involved in the depression of the clavicle at the sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints?

Subclavius

What injury produces weakness of the Serratus anterior muscle leading to a 'winged scapula'?

Long thoracic nerve injury

Which muscle assists in the elevation of ribs during forced inhalation when the scapula is fixed?

Latissimus dorsi

What is the origin of the Pectoralis minor muscle?

Coracoid process

Which nerve innervates the Subclavius muscle?

Nerve to subclavius

'Winged scapula' results from an injury to which specific nerve?

Accessory nerve (CN XI)

Which mnemonic can be used to remember the formation of the brachial plexus terminal branches?

Red Trucks Drive Cats Nuts

What structures combine to form the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

Anterior divisions of superior and middle trunks

Which muscles border the axilla, containing many neurovascular structures including the brachial plexus?

Serratus anterior, Coracobrachialis, Pec major, and Subscapularis

Which branches pass underneath the clavicle as they head towards the axilla in the brachial plexus?

Anterior divisions

What is the arrangement of terminal branches of the brachial plexus in sequence from lateral to medial?

Musculocutaneous, Axillary, Radial, Median, Ulnar

How many divisions are formed in total by the trunks of the brachial plexus?

6

Study Notes

Anatomical Terminology

  • Terms of relationship and comparison: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, protraction, retraction, elevation, depression, supination, pronation, ulnar deviation, radial deviation, opposition, reposition, eversion, and inversion
  • Terms of movement: include flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, and movement around the long axis
  • Terms of direction: superficial, intermediate, deep, medial, lateral, anterior, posterior, superior, inferior, proximal, distal, external, internal, ipsilateral, contralateral, bilateral, and unilateral

Introduction to Skeletal System

  • Skeletal system includes both bone and cartilage
  • Divided into axial skeleton (80 bones) and appendicular skeleton (126 bones)
  • Functions: protection, support, movement, mineral deposition, blood element production, and energy storage

Bones

  • Two types of bone tissue: compact bone and spongy/cancellous/trabecular bone
  • Five basic types of bones: long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid bones
  • Parts of a typical long bone: epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis, and epiphyseal plate
  • Bone surface markings: depressions and openings, and processes (e.g., trochanter, tubercle, tuberosity, spinous, and crest)

Joints

  • Classification of joints: based on structure (fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial) or function (synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis)
  • Types of fibrous joints: suture, syndesmosis, and gomphosis
  • Types of cartilaginous joints: synchondrosis and symphysis
  • Types of synovial joints: plane, hinge, saddle, pivot, condyloid, and ball and socket
  • Synovial joint components: synovial membrane, synovial cavity, synovial fluid, articular cartilage, and accessory ligaments

Ligaments of Joints

  • Ligaments connect bone to bone and stabilize joints
  • Classified based on anatomical relationship to the joint capsule: capsular ligaments, extracapsular ligaments, and intracapsular ligaments

Vasculature and Innervation of Joints

  • Joints receive blood supply from articular arteries located in the joint capsule
  • Joints have a rich nerve supply, providing sensory information to the brain about proprioception and pain receptors

Muscle Tissue

  • Three types of muscle tissue: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth
  • Skeletal muscle tissue is attached to bones, is voluntary, and provides movement of the body### Muscular System
  • The muscular system is composed of voluntarily controlled muscles that allow bones to move or change position.
  • Muscles are the motors of the skeletal system and have the unique ability to contract actively and produce tension.
  • Each skeletal muscle is supplied by a motor and sensory nerve.
  • Key things to know about each muscle:
    • Origin: the point at which the muscle attaches to a bone or another muscle.
    • Insertion: the point at which a muscle attaches to the skin, a bone, or another muscle.
    • Action: the movement or function of the muscle.
    • Nerve innervation: the nerve that supplies the muscle.

Types of Muscle Tissue

  • There are three types of muscle tissue:
    • Skeletal muscle tissue: attached to bones, voluntary, and responsible for movement and maintaining posture.
    • Cardiac muscle tissue: forms the wall of the heart, involuntary, and responsible for pumping blood.
    • Smooth muscle tissue: located in the walls of organs, involuntary, and responsible for movement and secretion of fluids.

Muscle Attachment Sites

  • Origin: the point at which the muscle attaches to a bone or another muscle.
  • Insertion: the point at which a muscle attaches to the skin, a bone, or another muscle.
  • Examples of muscle attachment sites:
    • Triceps brachii: 3 sites of origin.
    • Quadratus femoris: square shape.
    • Serratus anterior: saw-toothed edge.

Tendons and Aponeuroses

  • Tendons: cords of dense connective tissue that attach muscles to bones, skin, or other muscles.
  • Aponeuroses: broad, flat tendons that attach muscles to bones or other muscles.
  • Tendon sheaths: tube-like structures made of connective tissue that wrap around tendons in confined spaces.

Fascia

  • Superficial fascia: loose connective tissue and fat underlying the skin.
  • Deep fascia: dense, irregular connective tissue that wraps around the body, well-defined in limbs.

Nerves

  • A nerve is an enclosed, cable-like bundle of dendrites or axons.
  • Sensory nerves: receive sensory stimuli, such as pain and touch.
  • Motor nerves: allow the brain to stimulate muscle contraction.

Ligaments of Joints

  • Ligaments: connective tissue structures that connect bone to bone.
  • Ligaments participate in the stabilization of joints and can limit certain movements.
  • Classification of ligaments based on their anatomical relationship to the joint capsule:
    • Capsular ligaments: blend in with the joint capsule or thickenings of the joint capsule.
    • Extracapsular ligaments: separate from the joint capsule but stabilize the joint in close proximity to the capsule.
    • Intracapsular ligaments: found within joint capsules, reinforcing the connection between articulating surfaces.

Joints

  • Synovial joints: contain a synovial membrane, synovial fluid, and articular cartilage.
  • Types of synovial joints:
    • Plane joint: two relatively flat surfaces articulating together, allowing gliding and sliding motions.
    • Hinge joint: cylindrical surface fitting into a cylindrical groove, allowing uniaxial movement.
    • Pivot joint: a projection fitting into a ring, allowing uniaxial movement.
    • Condyloid joint: oval-shaped projection fitting into an elliptical hole, allowing biaxial movement.
    • Saddle joint: reciprocally concave-convex surfaces, allowing biaxial movement.
    • Ball-and-socket joint: spherical surface fitting into a bowl-shaped socket, allowing triaxial movement.

Muscular Actions

  • Isometric: muscle contracts, producing force, but no gross movement of the muscle occurs.
  • Concentric: muscle shortens while contracting, producing acceleration of body segments.
  • Eccentric: muscle lengthens while contracting, decelerating body segments and providing shock absorption.

Role of Muscles in the Body

  • Agonist/prime mover: the muscle that produces a joint motion or maintains a posture.
  • Antagonist: the muscle that has the opposite anatomic action of the agonist.
  • Synergist: the muscle that contracts at the same time as the agonist.
  • Stabilizer/fixator/supporter: muscles that are active isometrically to keep a limb from moving when the agonist muscle contracts.

Intervertebral Joints

  • Each vertebra articulates with the upper and lower vertebrae in two ways:
    • JOINT 1: bodies of the vertebrae articulate with the body of the upper and lower vertebra via intervertebral disc.
    • JOINT 2: articular processes of each vertebra articulate with the upper and lower vertebrae articular processes (synovial planar joints called zygapophysial (facet) joints).

Ligaments of Intervertebral Joints

  • Anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL): a broad and strong band of fibers that extends along the anterior surfaces of the bodies of the vertebrae.
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL): situated within the vertebral canal, and extends along the posterior surfaces of the bodies of the vertebrae.
  • Intervertebral disc: a fibrocartilaginous structure that intervenes between the bodies of the adjacent vertebrae and binds them together.
  • Ligaments connecting the axis with the occipital bone:
    • Cruciate ligament of the atlas.
    • Tectorial membrane.
    • Alar ligaments.

Joints of the Thoracic Cage

  • Posterior joints: each rib touches 2 vertebral bodies and 1 transverse process.
  • Sternocostal and costochondral joints:
    • Articulations of the cartilages of the true ribs with the sternum are synovial joints.
    • Ligaments connecting them:
      • Anterior and posterior radiate sternocostal ligaments.
      • Costochondral articulations.
  • Movements:
    • Slight gliding movements are permitted in the sternocostal joints.
    • "Bucket handle" motion: sternocostal, costotransverse, and costovertebral joints work together to move the ribs in a superior and lateral direction.
    • "Pump handle" motion: sternocostal joints alone pull the sternum in a superior direction.### Vertebral Column
  • The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae in 5 regions: cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (5), and coccygeal (2-4)
  • The primary curvature develops during the fetal period, and secondary curvatures develop in the first few years of life
  • The vertebral column has four main functions: posture, support, locomotion, and protection of the spinal cord and spinal roots

Typical Vertebra

  • A typical vertebra has two major parts: the vertebral body and the vertebral arch
  • The vertebral body is the largest bony segment, and the vertebral arch is posterior to the body
  • The vertebral foramen is formed by the union of the body, pedicles, lamina, and spinous process, and protects the spinal cord
  • Intervertebral foramen is formed by adjacent pedicles and protects exiting spinal nerves

Cervical Vertebrae

  • There are 7 cervical vertebrae, forming a lordotic curvature
  • Common features of typical cervical vertebrae include:
    • Small body
    • Transverse foramen in transverse process
    • Bifurcated spinous process
  • Atlas (C1) and Axis (C2) have special features that distinguish them from typical cervical vertebrae

Atlas (C1)

  • No body or laminae
  • No pedicles
  • Anterior and posterior arches
  • Lateral mass on either side with articular surfaces on superior and inferior surfaces
  • Superior articular surface for occipital condyles of the skull
  • Inferior articular surface for axis (C2)

Axis (C2)

  • Possesses a large odontoid process (dens axis) that acts as an axis (pivot) and permits rotation of the atlas on the axis bone
  • Anterior surface of dens contains an articular facet that matches up with the facet on the posterior surface of the anterior arch of C1 (atlas)
  • Forms the medial Atlantoaxial joint with C1
  • Lateral atlantoaxial joint is formed between the superior articular facet of the axis and the inferior articular facet on the lateral mass of the atlas

Vertebra Prominens

  • 7th cervical vertebra
  • Distinguished by a long and prominent spinous process that is palpable from the skin surface

Thoracic Vertebrae

  • 12 thoracic vertebrae, forming a kyphotic curvature
  • Characteristics:
    • Costal facets on the sides of the bodies for articulation with the heads of the ribs
    • Costal facets on the transverse processes for articulation with the tubercles of the ribs (except for T11 and T12)

Thoracic Cage

  • Components: 12 thoracic vertebrae, intervertebral discs, 12 pairs of ribs, costal cartilages, and sternum
  • Functions: attachment for upper limbs, attachments for muscles of upper limbs, neck, abdomen, back, and muscles of respiration, and protection of thoracic and abdominal organs

This quiz covers lectures 1 to 6 (asynchronous and synchronous)

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