Anatomy: Heart Location and Layers

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Questions and Answers

Which layer of the heart wall contains blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves that supply the heart?

  • Myocardium
  • Parietal serous pericardium
  • Epicardium (correct)
  • Endocardium

Which of the following accurately describes the location of the heart?

  • In the mediastinum, with approximately two-thirds of its mass to the left of the midline (correct)
  • Posterior to the vertebral column, within the abdominal cavity
  • Primarily in the right thoracic cavity, anterior to the sternum
  • Superior to the diaphragm, mostly in the right lung

The right ventricle pumps blood to which location?

  • Aorta
  • Lungs (correct)
  • Left Atrium
  • Coronary Sinus

What is the primary function of the chordae tendineae?

<p>Preventing the atrioventricular valves from inverting during ventricular contraction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by the narrowing of a heart valve?

<p>Stenosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which fetal structure allows blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs and connects the pulmonary trunk to the aorta?

<p>Ductus Arteriosus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant functional consequence of mitral regurgitation?

<p>Reduced cardiac output because blood flows back into the left atrium during ventricular contraction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature is most characteristic of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy ('Broken Heart Syndrome')?

<p>Apical ballooning of the left ventricle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prostaglandin E2 plays a crucial role in maintaining the patency of which fetal structure?

<p>Ductus Arteriosus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with 5-HT2B agonist-induced valvular heart disease. Which heart structure is MOST likely to be affected?

<p>The heart valves, leading to stenosis or regurgitation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The fibrous pericardium is a superficial layer of the heart composed of dense, regular connective tissue.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The left ventricle has thicker walls than the right ventricle because it pumps blood to the lungs.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve, is located on the right side of the heart.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patent ductus arteriosus is kept open by prostaglandin E2 and normally closes shortly after birth.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In mitral regurgitation, the abnormal heart sound, often described as 'lub-dub-dubbbb,' is caused by the turbulent backflow of blood through a stenotic aortic valve during diastole.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following layers and components of the heart with their descriptions:

<p>Parietal serous = Lines the inside of the fibrous pericardium Fibrous pericardium = Dense, irregular connective tissue surrounding the heart Serous pericardium = Double-layered membrane that produces pericardial fluid Pericardial cavity = Contains pericardial fluid for reduced friction during contractions Visceral serous epicardium = Adheres tightly to the surface of the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following layers of the heart with their descriptions:

<p>Myocardium = Middle layer, predominantly cardiac muscle tissue making up 95% of the heart wall Epicardium = Outermost layer, visceral serous pericardium made of mesothelium, contains blood vessels and nerves Endocardium = Inner layer, endothelium over connective tissue, lines chambers and covers valves</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following heart components with their functions:

<p>Atria = Receive blood Ventricles = Pump blood out of the heart Valves = Prevent backflow of blood and ensure one-way movement Veins = Carry blood toward the heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following vessels delivers deoxygenated blood to the right atrium?

<p>Superior Vena Cava (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the flow of blood, which valve does blood pass through after leaving the right ventricle?

<p>Pulmonary Valve (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In systemic circulation, which type of blood vessels facilitate the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?

<p>Systemic Capillaries (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the coronary arteries?

<p>To supply the myocardium with oxygen and nutrients. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes Ischemia?

<p>Insufficient blood supply to an organ or tissue. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Angina is a symptom of which cardiovascular condition?

<p>Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between Chronic Coronary Syndrome (CCS) and Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?

<p>CCS presents during exertion, while ACS can occur even at rest, indicating worsening of the condition. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What laboratory finding is most indicative of myocardial cell death during a myocardial infarction?

<p>Increased cardiac troponin I. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT classified under Non-ST-elevation (NSTE)-ACS?

<p>STEMI (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided text, what conclusion can be made about the use of Vitamin E supplements?

<p>Vitamin E supplementation is associated with a higher mortality risk, especially in individuals with chronic conditions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specialized structures, found within intercalated discs, facilitate the rapid spread of electrical impulses between cardiac muscle cells?

<p>Desmosomes and gap junctions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the cardiac conduction system is known as the 'natural pacemaker' of the heart?

<p>Sinoatrial (SA) node (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional significance of the AV node delaying the electrical impulse from the SA node?

<p>To ensure complete atrial contraction and ejection of blood into the ventricles before ventricular systole. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After traversing the Bundle of His, where do electrical signals propagate next in the cardiac conduction system?

<p>Right and left bundle branches (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with symptoms indicative of myocardial ischemia but without a definitive diagnosis. Given the information, which of the following scenarios would MOST strongly suggest a Myocardial Infarction Type 2 over Type 1?

<p>The patient has a history of atherosclerosis and recently experienced severe hypotension due to sepsis, leading to decreased oxygen supply to the myocardium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Angina pectoris is typically caused by a complete blockage of a major coronary artery, leading to irreversible myocardial cell death.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The sinoatrial (SA) node's intrinsic firing rate is modulated exclusively by the autonomic nervous system, without any hormonal influence.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In myocardial infarction Type 2, the primary underlying cause is always the acute rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque which leads to thrombus formation and abrupt cessation of blood flow.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Administration of high-dose Vitamin E is unequivocally proven to significantly reduce mortality risk in patients with pre-existing cardiovascular conditions, regardless of their current nutritional status.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of 'funny channels' in pacemaker cells?

<p>Enabling influx of sodium ions, leading to the pacemaker potential. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes pacemaker cells from contractile myocytes?

<p>Pacemaker cells exhibit autorhythmicity due to funny currents, while contractile myocytes require stimulation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ionic event is primarily responsible for the repolarization phase in contractile myocytes?

<p>Efflux of potassium ions through voltage-gated potassium channels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of gap junctions in the myocardium?

<p>They facilitate rapid spread of electrical impulses between adjacent myocytes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the plateau phase important in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells?

<p>It prolongs the contraction, ensuring effective blood expulsion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of 'calcium-induced calcium release' in contractile myocytes?

<p>Influx of calcium triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the ventricular action potential, what is the primary function of the inward rectifier potassium current (IK1) during phase 4?

<p>To maintain the resting membrane potential. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the sodium-calcium exchanger contribute to the cardiac cycle, and what is a potential consequence of a late sodium current flood?

<p>It exchanges sodium for calcium; a sodium flood would cause calcium overload. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the ventricular action potential is characterized by a large inward current of sodium ions (INa)?

<p>Phase 0 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the ventricular action potential does the 'transient outward K+ current' (It0) contribute to early repolarization?

<p>Phase 1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the ionic currents during Phase 2 (plateau phase) of the ventricular action potential?

<p>Balanced influx of calcium and efflux of potassium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What ionic current is primarily associated with Phase 3 (repolarization) of the ventricular action potential?

<p>Efflux of potassium (IKr, IKu, Iks) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional significance of the PR interval on an ECG?

<p>Delay of electrical signal at the AV node, allowing for atrial contraction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the QRS complex represent on an ECG?

<p>Ventricular depolarization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the T wave on an ECG represent?

<p>Ventricular repolarization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) be less preferred in psychopharmacology?

<p>They have a narrow therapeutic window and cause sodium-channel blockade and antimuscarinic effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Blockage of which channel is most commonly associated with QT interval prolongation?

<p>Kv11.1 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene is associated with the hERG channel, whose blockage is a common cause of QT interval prolongation?

<p>KCNH2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between QT interval prolongation and Torsades de Pointes (TdP)?

<p>QT interval prolongation is a risk factor for TdP. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A new drug is found to significantly prolong the QT interval but does not lead to Torsades de Pointes (TdP) in clinical trials. What is the most likely explanation for this observation?

<p>Other risk factors for TdP are absent in the trial population. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following components of the PQRST wave with their functions:

<p>P Wave = Atrial depolarization QRS Complex = Ventricular depolarization T Wave = Ventricular repolarization</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ion channel's blockage is most commonly associated with QT interval prolongation, posing a risk for Torsades de Pointes?

<p>hERG (B), Kv11.1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the cardiac cycle, what event does the P wave on an ECG represent?

<p>Atrial depolarization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the cardiac cycle, what physiological event is directly reflected by the QRS complex on an electrocardiogram?

<p>Ventricular depolarization (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific physiological process within the ventricles does the T wave on an ECG correspond to?

<p>Ventricular repolarization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) generally less favored in modern psychopharmacology?

<p>Antimuscarinic effects and sodium channel blockade (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional consequence of the AV node delaying the electrical signal from the SA node?

<p>Allowing sufficient time for atrial depolarization and contraction before ventricular systole (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following corresponds to the ventricular diastole phase of the cardiac cycle?

<p>diastole = relaxation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the end-diastolic volume (EDV) is 130 mL and the end-systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL, what is the stroke volume?

<p>70 mL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cardiac output, what does 'preload' primarily refer to?

<p>Degree of stretch of the ventricles due to the volume of blood (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the ejection fraction calculated?

<p>$(SV/EDV)*100$ (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the average cardiac output, given a stroke volume of 70 mL/beat and a heart rate of 75 beats/min?

<p>5250 mL/min (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is inversely proportional to the end-diastolic volume (EDV)?

<p>Heart Rate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does increased afterload affect cardiac output in the short term?

<p>Increases cardiac output due to increased pumping effort (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A drug that blocks norepinephrine reuptake and antagonizes M2 acetylcholine receptors would likely lead to which of the following?

<p>Increased heart rate due to unopposed adrenergic stimulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect would arteriolar constriction, resulting from hypertension, have on afterload?

<p>Increase afterload (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the cardiac cycle are all four heart valves closed?

<p>Isovolumetric contraction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 150 mL and an end-systolic volume of 75 mL. Calculate the ejection fraction.

<p>50% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's ventricular cardiac tissue is damaged, leading to a lower-than-normal ejection fraction, what primary issue does this indicate?

<p>The ventricular cardiac tissue may be damaged or weakened (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the Frank-Starling Law, what effect would increased venous return have on stroke volume?

<p>Increase stroke volume up to a physiological limit. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A novel drug is being developed that selectively targets sodium channels in the heart, specifically the Nav1.5 isoform. Which is the most concerning potential side effect during clinical trials?

<p>Risk of QT interval prolongation and potential for Torsades de Pointes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The P wave on an electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The PR interval signifies the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

TCAs are preferred in psychopharmacology due to their selectivity and minimal side effects

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The KCNH2 gene codes for the hERG channel subunit, which forms the Kv11.1 potassium channel involved in cardiac repolarization.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During ventricular repolarization, both the atria and ventricles are in systole.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which alteration is commonly observed in the failing heart, leading to a reduced ejection fraction despite a similar end-diastolic volume (EDV)?

<p>Weakened myocardium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a failing heart undergoes thickening of the myocardium, what is the MOST likely consequence regarding ejection fraction?

<p>Preserved or unchanged ejection fraction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of elastic fibers (elastic lamellae) in the tunica media of elastic arteries?

<p>Propelling blood during ventricular relaxation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of blood vessel does the tunica media primarily consist of smooth muscle, providing a greater capacity for vasodilation and vasoconstriction?

<p>Muscular Arteries (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural characteristic distinguishes arterioles from other types of arteries, contributing to their role of resistance vessels?

<p>Wall thickness approximately half of their total diameter and a thin, fenestrated elastic membrane (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the microcirculation, which sequence accurately describes the flow of blood?

<p>Metarteriole → Capillary → Postcapillary Venule (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key structural feature of capillaries that facilitates the exchange of substances between blood and interstitial fluids?

<p>A single layer of endothelial cells and basement membrane forming the capillary bed (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of blood vessel is characterized by thin walls, the absence of an elastic membrane, and the presence of valves to prevent backflow?

<p>Vein (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) in angiogenesis?

<p>Triggering the formation of new blood vessels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During sprouting angiogenesis, what cellular process is directly stimulated by VEGF signaling?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cellular event characterizes the formation of an intraluminal pillar during intussusceptive angiogenesis?

<p>Internal reorganization of sprouts to form a vascular lumen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process allows tumor cells to survive and grow by utilizing existing blood vessels without inducing angiogenesis?

<p>Vessel co-option (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism underlies vasculogenic mimicry, allowing cancer cells to integrate into the vasculature?

<p>Cancer cells disguising themselves as endothelial cells and lining blood lakes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Targeting adhesion molecules to prevent vessel co-option in tumors may inadvertently impair the immune response. What best explains this potential side effect?

<p>Adhesion molecules facilitate neutrophil migration to sites of inflammation; blocking them hinders immune function (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In instances of non-angiogenic tumor growth, if a novel therapy aims to selectively inhibit L1CAM and $\beta$1 integrin to prevent vessel co-option, what is the MOST critical consideration during preclinical development to avoid potential off-target effects?

<p>Confirming the agent does not disrupt neutrophil adhesion and transmigration during inflammatory responses (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The heart can generate new cardiac myocytes to replace damaged ones.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Arterioles primarily function as pressure reservoirs, maintaining blood flow during ventricular relaxation.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In coalescent angiogenesis, smaller blood vessels merge to form larger ones, a process exclusively observed during embryonic development.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Targeting adhesion molecules like L1CAM and β1 integrin to prevent vessel co-option in cancer is a therapeutic strategy without potential drawbacks.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An ejection fraction (EF) is calculated with the following formula: $EF = (EDV/SV)*100$

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms primarily facilitates the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide across capillary walls?

<p>Diffusion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Water-soluble molecules such as glucose and amino acids typically cross the capillary endothelium via which route?

<p>Fenestrations and intercellular clefts (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic of brain capillaries restricts the passage of most large molecules?

<p>Tight junctions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What transport mechanism is employed by large, lipid-insoluble molecules like insulin to cross the capillary endothelium?

<p>Transcytosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of bulk flow in capillary exchange?

<p>Regulating intracellular and interstitial fluid volumes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Starling's law of the capillaries, what force drives filtration out of the capillary?

<p>Capillary hydrostatic pressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Starling's law of the capillaries, what force primarily drives reabsorption into the capillary?

<p>Plasma osmotic pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do sinusoidal capillaries facilitate the movement of larger molecules like proteins and red blood cells?

<p>Via intercellular clefts (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the hydrostatic pressure in the capillary greatly exceeds the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid, what net effect will this have on fluid movement across the capillary wall?

<p>Increased filtration out of the capillary (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating a novel drug that aims to enhance the delivery of a large, hydrophilic molecule to brain tissue. Considering the properties of brain capillaries, which strategy would MOST likely improve drug penetration across the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?

<p>Utilizing transcytosis-inducing ligands attached to the drug (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does increased capillary blood pressure contribute to edema?

<p>It increases the amount of fluid filtered from the capillaries. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition would directly lead to decreased blood colloid osmotic pressure, potentially causing edema?

<p>Malnutrition (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might edema occur more frequently during the summer months?

<p>The body retains water, increasing blood volume and capillary blood pressure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of increased capillary permeability on interstitial fluid osmotic pressure?

<p>Increased interstitial fluid osmotic pressure as plasma proteins leak into the interstitial space. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the net filtration pressure (NFP) equation, what change would result from the administration of calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?

<p>Increased capillary BP, favouring filtration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relation between hemodynamics and blood pressure?

<p>Hemodynamics comprises the forces involved in circulating blood, which includes blood pressure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has extensive burns, what effect would this have on plasma protein levels and the risk of edema?

<p>Decreased plasma protein levels, increasing edema risk. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What parameter is directly measured by blood pressure?

<p>Hydrostatic pressure of the blood against blood vessel walls (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate compensatory response of the body to a rapid loss of fluid due to excessive sweating?

<p>Increased blood circulation to retain water. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions would most likely result in the greatest net filtration pressure (NFP)?

<p>Decreased blood colloid osmotic pressure and increased capillary hydrostatic pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does increased permeability of capillaries lead to a greater risk of edema?

<p>It increases the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the lymphatic system respond to increased net filtration in capillaries?

<p>By increasing the amount of fluid removed from the interstitial space. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with liver disease, decreased production of albumin leads to edema. Which of Starling's forces is most directly affected?

<p>Blood colloid osmotic pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which obsolete term is mentioned in the context of discussing blood pressure?

<p>Hypertensive urgency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's blood sample reveals significantly lower than normal levels of plasma proteins, what is the most likely consequence regarding fluid exchange in capillaries?

<p>Increased fluid filtration due to reduced blood colloid osmotic pressure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct impact of increased capillary hydrostatic pressure on fluid movement across the capillary wall?

<p>It increases fluid filtration out of the capillary. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with severe malnutrition presents with edema. Which alteration in Starling's forces BEST explains this condition?

<p>Decreased blood colloid osmotic pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Damage to the capillary endothelium increases capillary permeability. What is the MOST immediate consequence of this damage regarding fluid dynamics?

<p>Increased movement of plasma proteins into the interstitial fluid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected physiological response following significant blood loss that leads to reduced blood volume?

<p>Decreased blood hydrostatic pressure, promoting fluid reabsorption. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is administered a medication that significantly lowers their blood colloid osmotic pressure. Which physiological change is MOST likely to occur as a direct result?

<p>Increased fluid filtration out of the capillaries. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers a new drug that selectively blocks the action of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) in adults. What potential side effect should be carefully monitored during clinical trials?

<p>Impaired wound healing due to inhibited angiogenesis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would result in the GREATEST increase in net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arterial end of capillaries?

<p>An increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure, coupled with a decrease in blood colloid osmotic pressure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consider a scenario where a patient's lymphatic vessels are surgically removed from a localized region. What immediate physiological change would MOST likely be observed in the affected area?

<p>Localized edema due to impaired fluid removal. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A theoretical drug is designed to selectively increase the synthesis of aquaporins in capillary endothelial cells. What is the MOST likely direct physiological effect of this drug?

<p>Increased water movement across the capillary endothelium (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Imagine a hypothetical scenario where the endothelial glycocalyx layer of capillaries is completely degraded. Which immediate effect would this have on capillary permeability and fluid exchange?

<p>Increased capillary permeability and increased filtration due to reduced negative charge. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Dilation of a blood vessel due to weakening is best described as which condition?

<p>Aneurysm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an accurate description of aortic dissection?

<p>Tear in the tunica intima with blood entering the media (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of aortic dissection, what distinguishes a Type A dissection from a Type B dissection?

<p>Type A involves the ascending aorta, whereas Type B involves everything else distal to the ascending aorta. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which veins are most commonly used for central venous access?

<p>Internal jugular, brachiocephalic, and subclavian veins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary physiological mechanism behind Raynaud's phenomenon?

<p>Unexplained vasoconstriction in digital arteries and arterioles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Methylphenidate increases the action of reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine. What vascular effect might this have, and what sensation might patients experience?

<p>Vasoconstriction; cold extremities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are dorsal hand veins considered a last resort for phlebotomy?

<p>They are prone to dislodgement and are located near nerves, making the procedure more painful. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of the symptoms associated with peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

<p>Obstruction of arteries from the distal aorta to the foot, leading to ischemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes claudication?

<p>Pain in a defined group of muscles induced by exercise and relieved by rest (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which veins are most prone to developing varicosities?

<p>Great and small saphenous veins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the CEAP classification system, what distinguishes C1 from C2 chronic venous disease?

<p>C1 includes telangiectasias or spider veins and reticular veins, while C2 indicates varicose veins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is VTE more likely to occur in cancer patients?

<p>Cancer shifts hemostasis toward a more pro-coagulative state, disrupting the immune system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are deep veins located relative to the muscle fascia?

<p>Deep to the muscle fascia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)?

<p>PE is caused by DVT when a thrombus detaches and lodges in a pulmonary artery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating a novel drug that selectively inhibits intimal thickening following vascular injury. Which cellular process would be MOST crucial to monitor during preclinical studies to assess potential adverse effects?

<p>Endothelial cell migration and proliferation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the anatomical relationship between perforator veins and deep and superficial veins?

<p>Perforator veins connect deep and superficial veins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical distinction between chronic venous disease and chronic venous insufficiency based on the CEAP classification?

<p>Chronic venous insufficiency (C3-C6) is considered a more advanced form of chronic venous disease, characterized by severe edema, skin changes, and ulceration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does portal vein thrombosis lead to portal hypertension?

<p>Thrombosis narrows the portal vein, increasing vascular resistance and pressure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do beta-blockers alleviate symptoms related to esophageal varices?

<p>Beta-blockers reduce portal hypertension, which decreases the dilation of esophageal blood vessels (varices). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pulmonary arterial hypertension can result from pulmonary artery constriction stemming from:

<p>Vasoconstriction, which narrows the diameter and leads to anatomic changes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides clot formation, what are two additional factors that could increase the risk of hypertension?

<p>Release of vasoconstricting substances and lack of prostacyclin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key distinction between infiltration and extravasation following parenteral drug administration?

<p>Infiltration refers to the unintentional leakage of any parenterally administered drug, while extravasation specifically refers to tissue damage caused by such leakage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are basic drugs considered more dangerous when extravasation occurs?

<p>Basic drugs cause protein dissolution, collagen destruction, and denaturing of cellular membranes through liquefactive necrosis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving a vasopressor intravenously experiences extravasation. Which of the following is the MOST concerning potential complication?

<p>Excessive vasoconstriction leading to tissue necrosis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Pericardium

Membrane surrounding the heart that anchors it in place and allows flexibility during contractions.

Epicardium

The outermost layer of the heart wall, also known as the visceral serous pericardium.

Myocardium

The middle and thickest layer of the heart wall, consisting of cardiac muscle tissue.

Endocardium

The innermost layer of the heart wall, lining the chambers and covering the valves to reduce friction.

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Atria

Superior chambers of the heart that receive blood from veins.

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Ventricles

Inferior chambers of the heart with thicker walls that pump blood to the lungs and body.

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Heart Valves

Leaflets from the endocardium that prevent backflow of blood.

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Chordae Tendineae

Tendon-like cords connecting valves to papillary muscles.

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Mitral Regurgitation

Condition where the mitral valve doesn't close properly, causing backflow of blood.

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Ductus Arteriosus

Blood vessel in fetus that connects pulmonary trunk to aorta, bypassing non-functioning lungs.

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Pericardial Cavity

The space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium, containing fluid to minimize friction during heart contractions.

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Myocarditis

Inflammation of the heart muscle, often due to infections or drug hypersensitivity.

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Valve Stenosis

Narrowing of a heart valve, obstructing blood flow.

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Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

Also known as apical ballooning, it's a temporary heart condition often triggered by emotional or physical stress.

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Arteries

Vessels carrying blood away from the heart.

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Veins

Vessels carrying blood back to the heart.

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Superior Vena Cava, Inferior Vena Cava, Coronary Sinus

Deoxygenated blood flows into the right atrium from these vessels.

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Tricuspid Valve

Valve between the right atrium and right ventricle.

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Bicuspid Valve

Valve between the left atrium and left ventricle.

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Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

Narrowing or blockage of coronary arteries, often due to cholesterol.

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Angina

Chest pain or discomfort due to myocardial ischemia.

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Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

Condition that occurs when chronic coronary syndrome worsens, leading to myocardial infarction.

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Myocardial Infarction (MI)

Irreversible cell death in the heart due to lack of oxygen.

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Sinoatrial (SA) Node

The natural pacemaker of the heart; initiates heartbeat and determines heart rate.

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Atrioventricular (AV) Node

Serves as the electrical gateway to the ventricles, delaying impulses.

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AV Bundle (Bundle of His)

Transmits signals from the AV node to the purkinje fibers.

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Purkinje Fibers

Distribute signals to the ventricular myocardium, causing contraction.

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Ischemia

Insufficient blood supply.

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Pulmonary Capillaries

The exchange of carbon dioxide for oxygen that occurs in the capillaries of the lungs.

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Pulmonary Circulation

The flow of blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and back to the left atrium.

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Coronary Circulation

The heart wall's blood supply, originating from the ascending aorta.

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Chronic Coronary Syndrome (CCS)

A group of conditions where the heart muscle doesn't get enough oxygen.

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Cardiac Myocytes

Specialized muscle cells in the heart responsible for contraction; contraction is involuntary and initiated by electrical impulses.

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Action Potentials (Heart)

The electrical impulses that initiate heart contraction.

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Resting Membrane Potential

The voltage difference across the cell membrane of a resting cell; negative inside.

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Pacemaker Potential

The gradual depolarization in pacemaker cells caused by the influx of sodium through funny channels.

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Pacemaker Cells

Cells that constitute the cardiac conduction system; initiate and conduct action potentials.

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Contractile Cells (Heart)

Myocytes connected by gap junctions that propagate action potentials rapidly.

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Gap Junctions (Heart)

Junctions forming channels allowing ion flow between heart cells, facilitating rapid signal propagation.

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Depolarization

When membrane voltage increases and becomes less negative.

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Threshold (Action Potential)

The membrane voltage that must be reached to generate an action potential.

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Repolarization

The phase where membrane voltage becomes more negative, restoring the original ionic gradient.

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Plateau Phase (Cardiac AP)

The period of stable membrane potential due to balanced calcium influx and potassium efflux.

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Calcium-Induced Calcium Release

Calcium influx triggers more calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, amplifying contraction.

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"Slow Response Tissues"

Tissues with slow activation, high threshold voltage, and higher resting membrane potential.

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INa (Cardiac)

Inward current of Na+ ions that causes rapid depolarization (Phase 0) in ventricles.

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Early Repolarization (Ventricular)

Early phase of ventricular repolarization due to inactivation of INa and transient efflux of K+.

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IKr, IKu, Iks

Outward repolarizing potassium currents contributing to Phase 3 of ventricular action potential.

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IK1 (Cardiac)

Current maintaining resting potential in ventricles, where K+ flows inward.

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Sodium-Calcium Exchanger

Exchanger that removes calcium from the cell by exchanging it for sodium.

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Naming of KCNH2

QT Interval Prolongation

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Torsades de Pointes (TdP)

A potentially fatal heart arrhythmia associated with prolonged QT intervals.

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Drug Isoform Selectivity

Drugs targeting the same channel may affect different isoforms, like NaV 1.5 (heart) and CaV 1.2.

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PQRST Wave Components

P wave: SA node signal; PR interval: AV node pause; QRS complex: Ventricular contraction; T wave: Ventricular relaxation.

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hERG Channel Details

Gene: KCNH2; Subunit: hERG; Full K+ channel: Kv11.1; Current: Ikr. Blockage can prolong QT.

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Cardiac Cycle Events

Atrial systole/diastole & Ventricular systole/diastole.

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Atrial Systole

Sequence: SA node → atrial depolarization → systole → ventricles fill to 130 mL (EDV).

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Ventricular Systole

Atria diastole. Ventricular contraction; isovolumetric contraction. ~70 mL ejected (SV), 60 mL remains (ESV).

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Stroke Volume (SV) Equation

SV = EDV – ESV

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Ejection Fraction (EF) Equation

EF = (SV/EDV)*100

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Relaxation Phase Events

Ventricular repolarization → diastole → relaxation. SL valves close. Isovolumetric relaxation.

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Cardiac Output (CO) Equation

CO = SV x HR

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Preload

More blood = more stretch (Frank-Starling Law). EDV affected by diastole duration and venous return.

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Contractility

Affected by positive and negative inotropic agents and medical conditions.

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Afterload

Pressure to overcome to eject blood from the heart; affected by blood vessel diameter, hypertension, atherosclerosis.

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NaV 1.5 role

Main sodium channel in the heart.

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CaV 1.2 relevance

A calcium channel important for cardiac function.

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What is a P wave?

Signal from the SA node that indicates atrial depolarization and systole.

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PR interval meaning

AV node pauses the signal to allow atria to fully depolarize.

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QRS complex represents

AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → ventricular contraction

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T wave meaning

Ventricular relaxation.

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TCAs are less preferred because

QT prolonging side effects

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Drug-induced heart effect

Drug blocks norepinephrine reuptake, NE increases, heart beats faster and vagal decreases.

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Normal HR (BPM)

Normal heart rate at rest.

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Atrial systole duration

  1. 1 second
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End-systolic volume (ESV)

Amount of blood left in ventricles after systole.

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Stroke volume (SV)

Volume of blood ejected per beat.

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Low ejection fraction indicate

Ventricular cardiac tissue may be damaged or weak

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Preload definition

Degree of stretch of heart muscle before contraction.

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Contractility meaning

Strength of heart's contraction.

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Afterload definition

Pressure the heart must overcome to eject blood.

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With increased afterload

Can lead to increased cardiac output since you have to pump harder

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Failing Heart

The heart's inability to produce new cardiac myocytes to compensate for damage.

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NE, Ang II, Aldosterone role

A compensatory mechanism that can lead to cardiac hypertrophy and increased afterload.

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Ejection Fraction (EF)

Percentage of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each contraction; calculated as (SV/EDV)*100.

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Tunica Intima

The inner lining of blood vessels; direct contact with blood, influencing blood flow and permeability.

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Tunica Media

Smooth muscle and elastic fibers of blood vessels; responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation to regulate blood flow.

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Tunica Adventitia/Externa

Elastic and collagen fibers integrating vessels into surrounding tissues; contains nervi vasorum and vasa vasorum.

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Capillaries

Microscopic vessels of single endothelial layer facilitating exchange of substances between blood and interstitial fluids.

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Venules

Thin-walled vessels beginning the return flow to the heart; post-capillary exchange + WBC migration.

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Angiogenesis

Growth of new blood vessels; triggered by vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).

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Sprouting

Enzymatic degradation of capillary basement membrane and endothelial cell proliferation, leading to the formation of new blood vessels.

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Intussusceptive/Splitting

Internal reorganization of sprouts to form a vascular lumen by degradation of the basement membrane.

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Vessel Co-option

Cancer cells using existing blood vessels for growth via adhesion molecules (e.g., L1CAM, β1 integrin).

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Vasculogenic Mimicry

Cancer cells disguised as endothelial cells start wrapping around blood vessels and just integrate into the system

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What are arteries?

Arteries with a thicker tunica media and comprised of elastic and muscular types.

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What are Arterioles?

Regulate blood flow from arteries to capillaries.

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What are Capillaries?

Microcirculation vessels for substance exchange.

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What is Angiogenesis?

Growth of new blood vessels, can be normal or abnormal.

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What is Vessel Co-option?

Invasion and use of existing blood vessels for cancer growth.

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Diffusion in Capillaries

Movement of O2, CO2, and lipid-soluble molecules directly through the cell membrane, and water-soluble molecules via intercellular clefts/fenestrations.

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Transcytosis in Capillaries

The transport of large, lipid-insoluble molecules (like insulin or antibodies) across the capillary membrane.

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Bulk Flow in Capillaries

Regulation of fluid volumes via filtration (hydrostatic pressure) and reabsorption (osmotic pressure).

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Hydrostatic Pressure

Pressure exerted by a fluid, pushing water and solutes out of capillaries.

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Osmotic Pressure

Pressure caused by solute concentration differences, drawing water into capillaries.

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Net Filtration Pressure

The balance between hydrostatic and osmotic pressures that determines fluid movement across capillaries.

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Filtration

The movement of fluid and solutes out of the capillary into the interstitial space, driven by hydrostatic pressure.

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Reabsorption

The movement of fluid and solutes from the interstitial space back into the capillary, driven by osmotic pressure.

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Edema

Excess fluid accumulation in the interstitial tissue due to filtration exceeding reabsorption.

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Increased Capillary BP & Edema

Increased capillary blood pressure leading to a higher rate of fluid movement out of capillaries.

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Increased Capillary Permeability

Increased permeability allows proteins to escape capillaries, raising interstitial fluid osmotic pressure, and increasing filtration.

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Decreased Plasma Proteins

Reduced plasma protein levels decrease blood colloid osmotic pressure, reducing reabsorption and leading to edema.

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Hemodynamics

The forces involved in the circulation of blood throughout the body.

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Blood Pressure

The hydrostatic pressure exerted by blood on the walls of blood vessels.

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Net Filtration Pressure (NFP)

The difference between the forces that favor filtration and the forces that favor reabsorption across a capillary wall.

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Bulk Flow

Movement of fluids in and out of blood vessels due to pressure differences.

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Aneurysm

Blood vessel weakens and dilates; may rupture due to excessive dilation.

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Aortic Dissection

Tear in the intima (inner layer) of the aorta.

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Raynaud’s Phenomenon

Unexplainable vasoconstriction in digital arteries causing color change due to lack of oxygen.

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Claudication

Pain in defined muscle groups induced by exercise, relieved by rest.

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Varicosities

Superficial veins prone to dilation and becoming twisty.

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Telangiectasias

Dilated intradermal veins.

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Reticular veins

Dilated subdermal veins.

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Thrombosis

Deep vein 'clot formation'.

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Emboli

Thrombus that wanders around to smaller arteries, blocking blood flow.

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Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

Blockage of an artery in the lungs by an embolus.

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Saphenous veins

Dilated, 'tortuous' (twisty) SQ veins.

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Perforator Veins

Veins connecting deep and superficial venous systems, located in the thigh (Hunter) and calf (Cockett).

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Hepatic Portal Vein

A vein that carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver, allowing for first-pass metabolism.

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Portal Hypertension

Elevated blood pressure in the hepatic portal system, often leading to varices.

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Esophageal Varices

Dilation of esophageal blood vessels due to portal hypertension, increasing bleeding risk.

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Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension

Blood vessels constrict, causing higher blood pressure and impairing gas exchange.

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Extravasation

Leakage of drugs from blood vessels into surrounding tissue, leading to tissue damage.

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Study Notes

Perforator Veins

  • Connect deep and superficial veins.
  • Thigh perforators are known as Hunter perforators, while calf perforators are called Cockett perforators.

Chronic Venous Disease

  • Encompasses stages C1-C6.

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

  • Includes stages C3-C6
  • Also known as advanced chronic venous disease.
  • Characterized by severe edema, skin changes, and ulceration.

Hepatic Portal

  • The liver has its own circulation system.
  • First-pass metabolism occurs here.
  • Drugs travel via stomach and small intestine tributaries to the hepatic portal vein.
  • Hepatic portal vein carries drugs to the liver.
  • From the liver, drugs proceed to the hepatic veins and then to the heart.
  • Issues that can arise include variceal formation, bleeding, portal vein thrombosis, and cirrhosis.
  • Clotting narrows the vessel diameter, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and leading to portal vein hypertension.
  • The body compensates for hepatic portal hypertension by forming varices, dilated esophageal blood vessels.
  • Dilation increases the risk of bleeding, especially esophageal bleeding.
  • Beta-blockers treat esophageal bleeding related to variceal formation.
  • Cirrhosis is scarring and can occur in the liver tissue

Pulmonary Circulation

  • Pulmonary arteries can constrict, leading to hypertension and impaired gas exchange.

  • Pulmonary arterial hypertension results from vasoconstriction, leading to anatomic changes.

  • Causes of hypertension include:

    • Clot formation
    • Release of vasoconstricting substances like endothelin
    • Fibrosis or scarring, causing hypertrophy in the tunica media
    • Lack of nitric oxide release
    • Lack of prostacyclin

Extravasation

  • Occurs when drugs escape from blood vessels into extravascular tissue, causing tissue damage (infiltration).

  • Damaging infiltration of parenteral drugs is called extravasation.

  • Parenteral drugs intended for immediate delivery to the blood can leak.

  • Any leakage is called infiltration.

  • Extravasation is a condition where cardiovascular physiology intersects with parenteral drug administration.

  • Examples of Agents Causing Extravasation:

    • Vasopressors: Leakage causes vasoconstriction, potentially leading to necrosis.
    • Acidic drugs: Cause vasoconstriction, desiccation, necrosis, and ulceration.
    • Basic drugs: Leakage leads to protein dissolution, collagen destruction, denaturing of cellular membranes, and liquefactive necrosis due to diffusion of H+ into deep tissues.
    • Osmotic shifts: Drugs exert osmotic pressure, drawing water towards them.
    • Direct irritants: Leakage causes irritation.

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