Anaerobic Bacteria Overview
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Questions and Answers

Which bacterium is the most common anaerobe associated with actinomycosis?

  • Nocardia
  • Propionibacterium
  • A. israelii (correct)
  • Bifidobacterium

What is a characteristic feature of the Actinomyces Gram stain?

  • Spore-forming structure
  • Beaded appearance with branching filaments (correct)
  • Uniformly round shape
  • Coccoid appearance

What are sulfur granules associated with in actinomycosis?

  • Biofilm development
  • Fistula drainage (correct)
  • Toxin production
  • Chronic abscess formation

Which of the following statements about Bacteroides fragilis is true?

<p>It is bile resistant and can hydrolyze esculin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic growth pattern of A. israelii in culture?

<p>Presence of molar-tooth colonies after 7-9 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding Propionibacterium?

<p>It is often found as a contaminant in blood cultures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Peptostreptococcus species are primarily characterized by which of the following?

<p>GPR in chains (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacteria is known for its association with 'lumpy jaw'?

<p>A. israelii (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of bacteria does Kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood (KVLB) agar primarily select for?

<p>Bacteroides and Prevotella (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gas mixture is predominantly used in anaerobic incubation?

<p>Nitrogen, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key indicator used in anaerobic jars to determine the oxidative state?

<p>Methylene blue or resazurin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agar is selective for identifying Clostridium difficile?

<p>Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What temperature range is optimal for anaerobic incubation?

<p>35 to 37°C (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about anaerobic chambers is accurate?

<p>They provide a controlled environment for inoculating and examining media. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bacteria is indicated by a Gram stain displaying Gram negative rods?

<p>Bacteroides spp. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is utilized by C. difficile to increase the pH of its environment?

<p>Metabolism of proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a growth pattern of only on anaBAP indicate regarding the isolate's aerotolerance?

<p>It is a strict anaerobe. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the antibiotic sensitivity of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>Most GP are sensitive to vancomycin and resistant to kanamycin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Nagler test?

<p>To detect the alpha toxin of C. perfringens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can one determine if an isolate is an aerotolerant anaerobe?

<p>Equal growth on both anaBAP and CHOC. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive lecithinase reaction on Egg Yolk Agar (EYA) indicate?

<p>An opaque zone surrounds the growth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes a strict anaerobe from a facultative anaerobe during growth observation?

<p>Growth pattern on anaerobic media only. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following organisms is likely to be sensitive to sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) disks?

<p>Peptostreptococcus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial characteristic is determined using the motility test?

<p>Movement through a liquid medium. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what temperature does L.monocytogenes exhibit tumbling motility?

<p>25°C (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the umbrella-like growth pattern characteristic of?

<p>L.monocytogenes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is positive for L.monocytogenes that distinguishes it from other Listeria species?

<p>CAMP test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hemolysis is typically associated with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?

<p>Gamma hemolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is implicated in causing bacterial vaginosis?

<p>Gardnerella vaginalis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic best describes Lactobacillus?

<p>Non-spore forming (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key distinguishing feature of Arcanobacterium haemolyticum?

<p>Beta hemolysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is correct?

<p>It causes erysiploid lesions in animals and humans. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum volume of sputum required for collection?

<p>5-10 ml (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the BACTEC 9000MB system in specimen collection?

<p>To check oxygen concentration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic describes slow growers among mycobacteria?

<p>Visible colonies only after more than 7 days (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is likely performed first to confirm the presence of mycobacteria?

<p>Acid fast stain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the catalase test conducted for mycobacterium identification?

<p>By adding hydrogen peroxide to heated and room temperature samples (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does positive growth on TB liquid or solid media indicate?

<p>Potential presence of mycobacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is evaluated when determining the photoreactivity of mycobacteria?

<p>Their ability to produce pigments in response to light (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tests can be used to evaluate the biochemical properties of mycobacteria?

<p>Tween 80 hydrolysis test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary symptom associated with Stage 1 of Lyme disease?

<p>Erythema chronicum migrans (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is responsible for causing relapsing fever?

<p>Borrelia recurrentis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory method is most commonly used for the microscopic examination of blood during febrile periods in relapsing fever?

<p>Giemsa or Wright’s stain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What stage of Lyme disease is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fever, bone pain, and malaise?

<p>Stage 2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor complicates the serologic testing for relapsing fever?

<p>Antigenic variation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of tick is responsible for spreading Borrelia burgdorferi?

<p>Ixodes tick (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the cyclic relapses experienced by patients with relapsing fever?

<p>Antigenic variation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typical of Lyme disease in its late stage?

<p>Erythema migrans (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Aerotolerance Test

A test to determine if an isolate is a strict anaerobe, aerotolerant anaerobe, or facultative anaerobe.

Strict Anaerobe

A strict anaerobe grows only in oxygen-poor environments.

Aerotolerant Anaerobe

An aerotolerant anaerobe grows best in oxygen-poor environments, but can survive in oxygen.

Facultative Anaerobe

A facultative anaerobe can grow with or without oxygen.

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Fluorescence Test

A test using UV light to detect fluorescent properties in bacteria.

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Antibiotic Disk Test

A test using antibiotic disks to identify bacteria based on susceptibility or resistance.

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Lecithinase Test

A test to detect lecithinase activity in bacteria. Lecithinase breaks down lecithin, producing an opaque zone around bacterial growth.

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Nagler Test

A specific test to detect the alpha toxin of Clostridium perfringens on egg yolk agar (EYA). Alpha toxin is a form of lecithinase.

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Kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood (KVLB) agar

A selective medium that encourages the growth of Bacteroides and Prevotella while inhibiting most facultative Gram-negative rods (GNR) and Gram-positive (GP) bacteria.

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Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA)

A selective and differential medium for Clostridium difficile, utilizing antibiotics and a pH indicator.

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Anaerobic Incubation Gas Mixture

A gas mixture used for anaerobic incubation, specifically removing oxygen and introducing carbon dioxide for certain anaerobes.

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Anaerobic Jars (Gas Pak Jars)

A classic technique for creating an anaerobic environment in a closed jar using a gas-generating system and an indicator.

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Anaerobic Bags

A commercially available system designed for anaerobic culture using a gas-impermeable plastic bag and an oxygen removal system.

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Anaerobic Chamber

The optimal system for anaerobic incubation, providing a controlled environment for culturing, examining, and processing specimens.

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Gram Stain for Anaerobe Identification

The first important step in identifying anaerobes involves observing their morphology under a microscope.

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Anaerobe Classifications Based on Gram Stain

A broad category of bacteria that can be differentiated by their Gram stain reaction, ultimately leading to further testing for specific identification.

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Listeria monocytogenes

A bacterium known for causing foodborne illness, particularly associated with unpasteurized dairy products.

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Umbrella Pattern

A distinctive pattern of growth observed in semisolid agar, where the bacteria form an umbrella-like shape.

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CAMP Test (for Listeria)

A test used to differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from other Listeria species, based on the interaction of bacterial hemolysins with S. aureus hemolysins.

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Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A bacterial species known to cause Erysipeloid, characterized by a reddish skin lesion, particularly in people working with animals.

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H2S Production Test

A test that detects the production of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) by bacteria, usually conducted in a triple sugar iron (TSI) agar.

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Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

A bacterium formerly classified as Corynebacterium, known for causing pharyngitis.

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Lactobacillus

A bacterium that forms tiny alpha-hemolytic colonies on blood agar.

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Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)

A type of vaginal infection associated with an imbalance in the normal vaginal flora (lactobacilli), characterized by a change in vaginal pH and the presence of 'clue cells'.

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Actinomyces

A genus of bacteria that includes both aerobic and anaerobic species. Some species, like Nocardia, are known to cause infections like mycetoma and nocardiosis. A. israelii is a common anaerobe causing actinomycosis.

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A. israelii

The most common anaerobic Actinomyces species that typically causes actinomycosis. It is often found in the human oral cavity.

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Actinomycosis

A type of chronic, granulomatous infection typically caused by A. israelii and often affects the jaw. Characterized by the formation of fistulae that drain pus containing sulfur granules (bacterial colonies).

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GPR (Gram-Positive Rods)

Round, or rod-shaped bacteria that stain irregularly, giving them a beaded appearance. They are often found in chains and can branch.

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Bifidobacterium

A species of bacteria with an Actinomyces-like morphology that is often found in the human intestines and oral cavity. They are rarely associated with disease, but can contribute to Actinomycosis.

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Propionibacterium

A genus of anaerobic bacteria that are frequently found on human skin. They are often considered contaminants in blood cultures and other specimens. P. acnes is associated with acne and can cause endocarditis and bacteremia.

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Bacteroides fragilis Group

A group of anaerobic, gram-negative rods often inhabiting the human gut. This group includes important pathogens like B. fragilis, which can cause intra-abdominal infections, bacteremia, and soft tissue infections.

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Bacteroides fragilis

A specific species of anaerobic bacterium belonging to the Bacteroides fragilis Group. It is the most common species in this group and is often associated with intra-abdominal infections, bacteremia, and soft tissue infections.

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Borrelia burgdorferi

A bacterial species that causes Lyme disease, a tick-borne illness.

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Ixodes tick

A tick species that transmits Lyme disease to humans.

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Stage 1 Lyme disease

The first stage of Lyme disease, characterized by a distinctive rash, flu-like symptoms, and swollen lymph nodes.

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Stage 2 Lyme disease

The second stage of Lyme disease, involving the spread of the bacteria to other parts of the body, resulting in fever, joint pain, and fatigue.

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Stage 3 Lyme disease

The third stage of Lyme disease, which can occur months or years later, causing chronic arthritis, neurological problems, and heart issues.

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Borrelia recurrentis

A bacterial species that causes relapsing fever, characterized by cyclical episodes of high fever.

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Serological tests for Lyme disease

The most common method for diagnosing Lyme disease. Detects antibodies against the bacteria using Western blot.

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Microscopic examination for relapsing fever

A diagnostic test for relapsing fever. Identifies the bacteria in blood samples taken during febrile episodes.

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Mycobacterium leprae: Unique Growth Behavior

Mycobacterium leprae, the causative agent of Hansen's disease (leprosy), is a slow-growing bacillus with a unique feature of replicating only in the host's cells.

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Specimen Collection for Hansen's Disease

Sputum, bronchial washings, gastric contents, urine, stool, and tissue are the primary sources for collecting specimens when suspecting Mycobacterium leprae infection, as it requires an appropriate host environment to thrive.

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Sputum Sample Collection: Standard Procedure

The standard technique for collecting sputum samples for Mycobacterium leprae is to gather first morning samples for 3 consecutive days. A minimum of 5-10 ml is needed for analysis.

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Alternative Samples for Mycobacterium leprae

If obtaining sputum is challenging, alternative methods include bronchoscopy and collecting bronchial washings (BAL) or biopsies.

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Gastric Samples with Radioactive CO2

Gastric aspirates and washings are often used for young patients, using radioactive CO2 as a marker for bacterial growth. Gas levels measured in the collected sample are reported as a "growth index." These samples require specialized equipment for reliable detection.

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BACTEC 9000MB: Fluorescent Growth Monitoring

BACTEC 9000MB is a system utilizing a fluorescent sensor in the bottom of the culture vial. The sensor detects changes in oxygen concentration as the bacteria consume it, signifying growth.

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MB/BacT System: Colorimetric Growth Detection

MB/BacT system is another liquid media-based method, where a color change in the medium (from green to yellow) indicates CO2 production. The color change is easily measured by automated instrumentation.

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ESP Myco System: Pressure Monitoring

The ESP Myco System is a manometric (pressure-measuring) system that detects gas consumption or production. It's a pressure-based approach for monitoring bacterial growth in the liquid media.

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Study Notes

Anaerobic Bacteria

  • Anaerobic bacteria do not need oxygen to grow
  • They vary in their tolerance to oxygen
  • Obligate anaerobes require anaerobic conditions for growth; oxygen is toxic to them and kills them
  • Aerotolerant anaerobes can grow in the presence of oxygen but grow best in anaerobic environments
  • Facultative anaerobes do not require oxygen but will use it if it is available

Oxygen Reduction

  • Superoxide anion and hydrogen peroxide are toxic
  • Strict aerobes and facultative anaerobes have superoxide dismutase and/or catalase to neutralize these toxic substances

Oxidation-Reduction (Redox) Potential

  • Anaerobic bacteria require low redox potential
  • High redox environments contain oxygen
  • Normal human tissue and aerobic culture media have high redox potential
  • Reducing agents like thioglycollate, cysteine, and dithiothreitol are included in anaerobic media

Normal Habitat

  • Soil, water, and animals
  • Human normal flora (NF) includes oral cavity, upper respiratory tract (URT), intestinal tract, genitourinary tract, and skin.
  • Facultative organisms use oxygen in protected areas, to reduce redox potential and inactivate harmful oxygen molecules

Diseases

  • Exogenous infections are caused by organisms, spores, or toxins entering the body through ingestion or trauma (e.g., tetanus, botulism)
  • Endogenous infections occur near mucosal surfaces (e.g., bacteremia, abscesses, gas gangrene, pneumonia)

Clues to Anaerobic Diseases

  • Deep or puncture wounds; animal or human bites
  • Foul-smelling, gaseous discharge
  • Necrotic tissue, vascular stasis
  • Presence of sulfur granules (actinomycosis)
  • Black or fluorescent red color
  • Previous therapy with aminoglycosides (aminoglycosides are ineffective against anaerobes)
  • Failure to grow organism on a Gram stain

Specimen Collection

  • Appropriate specimens include blood, sterile body fluids (CSF), bone marrow, cavity fluid, urine (when collected as a suprapubic aspirate), abscesses, ulcers, and draining wounds.
  • Biopsy material.
  • Inappropriate specimens include superficial skin sites; voided or catheterized urine; expectorated sputum, throat, or nasopharyngeal swabs, bronchial washings; vaginal, cervical, and urethral swabs; and stool or rectal swabs.

Transport and Processing

  • Inoculate media and place immediately in an anaerobic environment
  • Limit exposure to room air; do not allow to dry out
  • Do not refrigerate specimens
  • Minimize time at room temperature.
  • PRAS media, anaerobically sterilized transport medium is needed; modified Cary-Blair or Amies agar is used
  • Rezasurin indicator, used to show the amount of oxygen. Reducing substances help protect against oxygen and inhibit NF.
  • A sterile container is required

Culture

  • Specimens for anaerobic culture are cultured aerobically on BAP, CHOC, MAC, and on anaerobic media to correlate aerotolerance
  • Anaerobes require vitamin K, hemin, and yeast extract.

Nonselective Media

  • CDC (or anaerobic blood agar plates) support the growth of obligate and facultative anaerobes
  • Anaerobic broth, supplemented with thioglycollate or chopped (cooked) meat, supports the growth of all obligate and facultative anaerobes, with anaerobes growing towards the bottom and facultative organisms growing throughout.

Aerotolerance

  • Testing determines whether an isolate is strict or facultative by incubating the isolate in both aerobic and anaerobic environments.
    • Growth only on anaBAP suggests a strict anaerobe
    • Growth on both anaBAP and CHOC suggests a facultative anaerobe
    • Growth only on CHOC suggests an aerotolerant anaerobe

Fluorescence

  • Fluorescence occurs under ultraviolet light (366 nm) with colors of red, orange, pink, and chartreuse

Rapid Identification Tests

  • Catalase test
  • Motility test
  • Urease test
  • Indole
  • Esculin hydrolysis
  • Aerotolerance
  • Fluorescence
  • Disk tests
  • Lecithinase
  • Naglar test
  • Lipase
  • Reverse CAMP

Specimen Collection (Mycobacteria)

  • Sputum, bronchial washings, gastric contents, urine, stool, and tissue
  • First morning sputum, on 3 consecutive mornings, 5-10 ml volume, refrigerate overnight.
  • If sputum isn't produced, bronchoscopic washings (BAL) or biopsy.
  • Gastric aspirate or washing
    • Young children < 3 years cannot produce their own sputum, often swallow sputum. The mycobacteria can be destroyed by stomach acid. If this is the specimen, neutralize the aspirates or urine with sodium bicarbonate.
  • Urine
    • Neutralize with sodium bicarbonate if refrigerated overnight.
  • Stool
  • AIDS patients need M. avium screening.
  • Inappropriate specimens, such as swabs, may not contain enough material or the mycobacteria may not dislodge. 24-hour pooled sputum or urine specimens may hinder the analysis due to contamination or organism inhibition from the interference.

Digestion and Decontamination

  • Specimens from sterile sites can be concentrated and directly inoculated. Specimens with normal flora and mucus need digestion (like N-acetyl-L-cysteine, or NALC) then decontamination with NaOH.
  • Concentration increases the number of organisms per mL of sample.
  • Centrifuge, then make AFB smear and inoculate media with the sediment. Use both liquid and solid media in the testing.

Specimen Processing

  • Digestion frees bacteria from protein clumps using NALC (mucolytic agent)
  • Decontamination removes normal flora (NF)
  • Mycobacteria resist many bactericidal effects due to their high lipid concentration
  • Decontaminate to kill contaminants without harming mycobacteria.

Staining for AFB Smear

  • Ziehl Neelsen (hot stain) and Kinyoun stain (cold stain) use heat or the reagent, respectively, to force the stain into the cell, due to a high lipid cell wall content

Mycobacteria Identification

  • Slow-growing mycobacteria are distinguished from rapid-growing mycobacteria by their growth rate, which takes longer to complete.
  • Different colony morphologies will vary (e.g., ruffled, buff colored, cording, or cauliflower shape)
  • The presence or absence of pigmentation differs between species.
  • Photoreactivity tests evaluate the production of carotenoid pigments in different species.
  • Several biochemical tests will differentiate species (like catalase, niacin, nitrate reduction, Tween 80 hydrolysis, and tellurite reduction

Culture Examination

  • Examine twice weekly for the first month, once per week thereafter.
  • Examine agar-based cultures (microcolonies) with a microscope at 4x-10x.
  • Examine egg-based cultures (hand-lens)

Other Pathogenic Species

  • These include M. genavense, M. simiae, M. xenopi, M. szulgai.

Newer Identification Tests

  • These tests use different methods to identify mycobacteria (e.g., chromatography and molecular identification)

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Tests

  • Susceptibility tests of M. tuberculosis include isoniazid. rifampin, ethambutol, and streptomycin
  • Susceptibility methods include absolute concentration methods, resistance ratio, and proportional testing procedures

Classification of Mycobacteria

  • M. tuberculosis Complex (including M. tuberculosis)
  • Nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM) (also known as mycobacteria other than tuberculosis or MOTT) such as those in the M. avium complex
  • Uncultivable mycobacteria (which are difficult to grow in the laboratory)

Anaerobic GNR

  • Normal flora of mucous membrane. This group includes Bacteroides, Prevotella, Prophyromonas, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella
  • The Bacteroides fragilis are a subgroup

Anaerobic GPC

  • includes Peptostreptococcus, which are chains, and Peptococcus, which are clusters. Specific tests like the sodium polyanethel sulfonate test differentiate these genera.

Anaerobic GPR

  • includes Actinomyces spp, Bifidobacterium spp, Propionibacterium spp, Eggerthella spp. and Eubacterium, and all can present in actinomycosis

Other Non-spore-forming GPR

  • includes Corynebacterium, Listeria, Erysipelothrix, Acranobacterium, Lactobacillus, and Gardnerella

Spirochetes

  • Examples include Borrelia, Leptospira, and Treponema. There are many subgroups, which can have diverse characteristics.

Borrelia

  • The Borrelia genus is responsible for Lyme disease, which is transmitted by arthropods. Some Borrelia cause relapsing fever.

Treponema

  • T. pallidum, including the subtypes pallidum, pertenue, endemicum, and carateum, are responsible for syphilis infections. There are various stages of disease.

Leptospira

  • This genus is responsible for Leptospirosis, often a zoonotic spread from animals, like dogs, rats, or cattle, through contact with contaminated water from urine.

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