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Questions and Answers

What effect does an increased flap setting have on $V_{Dmin}$ (minimum drag speed)?

  • $V_{Dmin}$ increases
  • None
  • $V_{Dmin}$ decreases (correct)
  • $V_{Dmin}$ decreases first, but increases at higher flap settings

Other factors being equal, how does an increase in take-off weight affect lift-off speed and stalling speed?

  • Increases lift-off speed, stalling speed remains the same
  • Increases lift-off speed and decreases stalling speed
  • Weight has no effect on take-off or lift-off speed
  • Increases lift-off speed and stalling speed (correct)

Which combination of factors will most likely cause the greatest increase in take-off distance?

  1. Tailwind
  2. Headwind
  3. Upslope
  4. Downslope
  5. High temperature
  6. Low Temperature

  • 1, 3, 5 (Tailwind, Upslope, High temperature) (correct)
  • 2, 4, 5 (Headwind, Downslope, High temperature)
  • 2, 4, 6 (Headwind, Downslope, Low temperature)
  • 1, 4, 5 (Tailwind, Downslope, High temperature)

How is $V_{LO}$ defined?

<p>The maximum speed for landing gear operation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The take-off distance required increases:

<p>due to slush on the runway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the maximum permissible takeoff weight change if OAT (Outside Air Temperature) increases?

<p>Decrease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed by the acceleration height (or altitude) when accelerating in level flight to greendot after an engine failure?

<p>35 ft (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When landing a serviceable aircraft with Flaps 3, what is the correct action on the GPWS panel?

<p>Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens on the ECAM when the gear is selected down on the approach?

<p>The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition might the MEMO 'N.W. STRG DISC' appear on the EWD (Engine Warning Display)?

<p>In amber, during a pushback with an engine running. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If both the Autopilot (AP) and Autothrust (A/THR) are OFF and the bank angle exceeds 45°, what occurs?

<p>The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On approach, what event automatically activates the igniters?

<p>Selecting Config 1. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?

<p>15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On the System Display (SD), what signifies an inaccurate fuel quantity indication?

<p>An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves, and what is their purpose?

<p>G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After Take-Off, when does the Autothrottle (ATHR) become ACTIVE?

<p>Thrust Reduction altitude. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lights extinguish when the gear is retracted?

<p>Nose and Turn Off (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum allowable EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio) with the park brake ON?

<p>1.18 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the Touchdown Zone (TDZ) RVR (Runway Visual Range) is unavailable, but crew assessment is available, when is take-off permitted?

<p>When Mid Point and the Stop End RVR's are in limits. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct sequence of actions on the FCU (Flight Control Unit) to initiate an emergency descent due to structural failure?

<p>Select lower ALT and PULL, HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL, SPEED knob, PULL, MACH / SPEED target adjust. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In flight, if the hydraulic Blue System is inoperative (fluid loss), what happens when the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?

<p>The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the initial actions in response to a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) alert, including 'PULL UP'?

<p>AP OFF, sidestick hard back, TOGA power. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the restrictions regarding ATC reports to an aircraft on final approach?

<p>Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs in the event of a total failure of SFCC (Slat Flap Control Computer) 1?

<p>SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding the ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring), which statement is true?

<p>Master Cautions are always accompanied by amber messages on EWD. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens if the EMER CANC (Emergency Cancel) button on the ECAM control panel is pressed?

<p>EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the correct actions if RMP (Radio Management Panel) 1 fails?

<p>Switch it off, use RMP 3 or RMP 2. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

VFE NEXT is...

<p>...the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when the fuel level in the first inner tank reaches 750 kg?

<p>One transfer valve in each wing will open. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the radar on the ND (Navigation Display) sweeps from the center outwards, what does it signify?

<p>NAV Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Alternate Law, how do indications on the speed scale change?

<p>Vstall WARNING replaces Alpha protection. It is possible to stall the aircraft. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What System Display (SD) is typically shown during the T/O roll?

<p>Engine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Captain's left EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) has failed, what action should be taken to display the PFD (Primary Flight Display)?

<p>Nothing. The PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is NAV ACCURACY check carried out?

<p>By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance against &quot;BRG and DIST to&quot; on MCDU PROG page. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control), which statement is true?

<p>It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is the FUEL USED indication (on the SD) reset to zero?

<p>During associated engine start (@)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the lowest minima for a CAT II Auto-land?

<p>DH 100 ft &amp; RVR 300 m. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rescue and firefighting airport category required for the A321?

<p>7 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the number of crash axes or crowbars located on the flight deck for airplanes with a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5,700kg or a passenger seating configuration of more than nine.

<p>1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the planning minima for alternates for destination and en-route airports for the different types of approaches?

<p>CAT II, III: CAT I minima; CAT I: NPA minima; NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m; Circling: Circlining minima (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When carrying out a missed approach, if not stated on the chart, what is the missed approach climb gradient?

<p>2.50% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is responsible for notifying the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest means possible of any accident involving an airplane resulting in serious injury or death of any person or substantial damage to the airplane or property?

<p>The pilot in command. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?

<p>30 degrees (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the restrictions for crew rest (sleep) on the flight deck?

<p>should be no longer than 45 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 30 minutes before TOD (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

<p>Tropopause. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following alternatives applies to the correct composition of the atmosphere by volume?

<p>21 % oxygen and 78 % nitrogen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?

<p>16 km. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?

<p>Troposphere. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on:

<p>air temperature. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earths weather?

<p>Variation of solar energy at the Earths surface. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Effect of increased flaps on VDmin?

Increased flap settings REDUCE minimum drag speed (VDmin).

Takeoff weight vs lift/stall speed

Increased takeoff weight increases both lift-off speed and stalling speed, other factors being equal.

Factors increasing takeoff distance

Tailwind, downslope, and high temperature increase takeoff distance.

Define VLO

VLO is defined as the maximum speed for landing gear operation.

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Slush and takeoff distance

Slush on the runway increases takeoff distance.

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OAT and Takeoff Weight

Maximum permissible takeoff weight decreases as OAT increases.

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Obstacle clearance after an engine failure

Ensures 35ft of obstacle clearance when accelerating to green dot after engine failure.

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GPWS Panel Action with Flaps 3

Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch.

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Gear Down Effect on ECAM

Selecting gear down on approach makes the WHEEL S.D. appear on the LOWER ECAM display.

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When does MEMO appear?

The MEMO appears in amber during a pushback with an engine running..

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AP/ATHR Off, Bank > 45°

Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.

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Igniter activation on approach

Selecting Gear Down automatically activates the igniters on approach.

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Passenger Oxygen Duration

Passenger Oxygen supply lasts between 15-20 minutes.

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Fuel indication inaccuracy

An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure signifies an inaccurate quantity indication.

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Hydraulic shutoff valves

G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire.

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ATHR active after...

Acceleration Altitude.

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Lights after gear retraction

When the gear is retracted, the Nose and Land lights go off.

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Max EPR with park brake

The maximum EPR with the park brake ON is 1.15.

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TDZ RVR Unavailable

Take-off is not allowed.

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Emergency Descent Sequence

Select lower ALT and PULL, HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL, SPEED knob, PULL, MACH / SPEED target adjust.

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Blue Hydraulic Inop, MAN ON

The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.

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GPWS "PULL UP" Actions

AP OFF, sidestick hard back, TOGA power.

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Restrictions on ATC reports on final

Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence.

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SFCC 1 total failure

SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.

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ECAM Primary Failures

Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them.

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EMER CANC Button

Aural Warnings are inhibited for the remainder of the flight.

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RMP 1 Failure Actions

Switch it off, use RMP 3 or RMP 2.

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"VFE NEXT is..."

... the maximum speed for the present configuration.

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Inner tank 750 kg

One transfer valve in each wing will open.

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Radar sweeps outwards

NAV Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain.

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Alternate Law Speed Indications

Vstall WARNING replaces Alpha protection. It is possible to stall the aircraft.

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What SD during T/O?

Engine.

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Failed EFIS Display

Using the ECAM/ND SWITCHING PANEL switch.

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NAV ACCURACY check

By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance against "BRG and DIST to" on MCDU PROG page.

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FADEC Statement

A. It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START.

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FUEL USED reset

When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (on ground only).

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CAT II Autoland Minima

DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m.

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Accident Reporting

The pilot in command.

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Missed Appraoch Climb Gradient

2.50%

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Restrictions for Crew Rest

should be no longer than 45 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 30 minutes before TOD

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Study Notes

VDmin and Flap Settings

  • Increased flap settings cause VDmin to decrease.

Take-off Weight Effect

  • Increased take-off weight increases lift-off speed and stalling speed, other factors being equal.

Take-off Distance Factors

  • The combination of a tailwind, downslope, and high temperature will most likely increase take-off distance

VLO Definition

  • VLO is the maximum speed for landing gear operation.

Factors Increasing Take-off Distance

  • Slush on the runway increases take-off distance.

OAT and Takeoff Weight

  • Maximum permissible takeoff weight decreases if OAT increases.

Obstacle Clearance After Engine Failure

  • There is a 35ft obstacle clearance when accelerating in level flight to greendot after an engine failure.

GPWS Panel Actions for Flaps 3 Landing

  • When landing with Flaps 3, switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch on the GPWS panel.

Gear Down on Approach

  • When the gear is selected down on approach the WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display

Display of "N.W. STRG DISC"

  • The MEMO "N.W. STRG DISC" may appear in amber on the EWD during a pushback with an engine running.

AP/A THR and Bank Angle

  • If AP and A/THR is OFF and the bank angle exceeds 45°, the Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.

Automatic Igniter Activation

  • Selecting Gear Down automatically activates the igniters on approach.

Passenger Oxygen Supply Duration

  • Passenger oxygen supply lasts for 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.

Inaccurate Quantity Indication on S.D.

  • An amber line through the last two digits of a fuel figure signifies an inaccurate quantity indication.

Hydraulic System Fluid Shutoff Valves

  • G and Y hydraulic systems have fluid shutoff valves operated by the engine fire switches to isolate fluid from fire.

ATHR Activation After Take-Off

  • The ATHR becomes active after take-off at Acceleration Altitude.

Lights Extinguished During Gear Retraction

  • Nose and Turn Off lights go off when the gear is retracted.

Maximum EPR with Park Brake

  • The maximum EPR with the park brake ON is 1.18.

Take-off with Unavailable TDZ RVR

  • Take-off is not allowed if TDZ RVR is not available but crew assessment is

Emergency Descent Actions on FCU

  • Select lower ALT and PULL, HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL, SPEED knob, PULL, MACH / SPEED target adjust to start an emergency descent (structural failure)

Blue Hydraulic System Failure

  • If, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid loss), the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed, the RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.

Initial Actions for GPWS "PULL UP"

  • Initial actions for a GPWS alert including "PULL UP" are AP OFF, sidestick hard back, TOGA power

ATC Report Restrictions on Finals

  • There is radio silence less than 1nm to touchdown

SFCC 1 Total Failure

  • SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed in the event of SFCC 1 failure

ECAM Indications

  • Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them on ECAM.

EMER CANC Button Function

  • If the EMER CANC button on the ECAM control panel is pressed, EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D.

Actions When RMP 1 Fails

  • If RMP 1 fails, switch it off and use RMP 3 or RMP 2.

"VFE NEXT is..." Definition

  • "VFE NEXT is... the maximum speed for the present configuration.".

Inner Tank Level Reaches 750 kg

  • When the first inner tank level reaches 750 kg, one transfer valve in each wing will open.

Radar Sweeping Outwards on ND

  • If the radar on the ND sweeps from the centre outwards, Weather radar is being used to show EGPWS terrain.

Speed Scale in Alternate Law

  • Vstall WARNING replaces Alpha protection in Alternate Law. It is possible to stall the aircraft.

SD Displayed During T/O Roll

  • The Engine SD is displayed during the T/O roll.

Displaying PFD After Captain's EFIS Failure

  • If the Captain's left EFIS has failed, push the button on the Captain's panel (outboard of the EFIS screens).
  • NAV Accuracy check is carried out by comparing TO WPT information (top right of ND) against "BRG and DIST to" on MCDU PROG page

FADEC

  • The FADEC is able to abort a MANUAL START.

Resetting FUEL USED Indication

  • The FUEL USED indication (on the SD) is reset to zero when the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (at any time).

Lowest Minima for CAT II Auto-land

  • DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m are the lowest minima for a CAT II Auto-land

Rescue and Firefighting Category for A321

  • The rescue and firefighting airport category for the A321 is 7

Crash Axes/Crowbars on Flight Deck

  • One crash axe or crowbar is located on the flight deck

Planning Minima for Alternates

  • CAT II, III: CAT I minima; CAT I: NPA minima; NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m; Circling: Circlining minima are the planning minima for alternates

Missed Approach Climb Gradient

  • When carrying out a missed approach, if not stated on the chart, the missed approach climb gradient? is 2.50%

Responsibility for Reporting Accidents

  • The pilot in command is responsible for notifying the nearest appropriate authority of any accident

Straight-In Non-Precision Approach Angle

  • A non-precision approach is considered straight in within 30 degrees of the extended runway centerline

Restrictions for Crew Rest on Flight Deck

  • Crew rest should be no longer than 30 minutes and should be terminated at least 45 minutes before TOD

Boundary Layer Between Troposphere/Stratosphere

  • Tropopause is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere.

Atmosphere Composition

  • 21 % oxygen and 78 % nitrogen is the correct composition of the atmosphere by volume.

Tropopause Height over Equator

  • Approximately, the average height of the tropopause over the equator is 16 km

Atmospheric Layer with Most Water Vapor

  • The Troposphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour

Water Vapor Dependence

  • The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on air temperature

Primary Cause of Weather Changes

  • Variation of solar energy at the Earths surface is the primary cause of all changes in the Earths weather.

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