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Questions and Answers
What mode is always associated with CLB mode during flight?
What mode is always associated with CLB mode during flight?
What is the purpose of the SRS (Speed Reference System) during an engine failure?
What is the purpose of the SRS (Speed Reference System) during an engine failure?
At what altitude does NAV mode activate when a flight plan is inserted?
At what altitude does NAV mode activate when a flight plan is inserted?
What happens when both ILS ground transmitters fail?
What happens when both ILS ground transmitters fail?
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What triggers the AUTOLAND feature at low altitudes?
What triggers the AUTOLAND feature at low altitudes?
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What must occur for an approach with NPA to disconnect the autopilot?
What must occur for an approach with NPA to disconnect the autopilot?
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What is required when the accuracy is low during an NPA?
What is required when the accuracy is low during an NPA?
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What does the auto yaw compensation do in case of engine failure?
What does the auto yaw compensation do in case of engine failure?
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At what Nz level does the FADEC turn off continuous ignition when in AUTO mode?
At what Nz level does the FADEC turn off continuous ignition when in AUTO mode?
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What should be done if dry cranking is aborted during the starting procedure?
What should be done if dry cranking is aborted during the starting procedure?
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What happens when the MASTER switch is ON in manual start mode?
What happens when the MASTER switch is ON in manual start mode?
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Which of the following conditions requires selecting IGN START before takeoff?
Which of the following conditions requires selecting IGN START before takeoff?
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What is the maximum time allowed to recharge the starter following four consecutive cycles?
What is the maximum time allowed to recharge the starter following four consecutive cycles?
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How is the LP fuel value affected during the starting process?
How is the LP fuel value affected during the starting process?
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When is the starter not to be engaged according to the starting procedure?
When is the starter not to be engaged according to the starting procedure?
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What indicates a start fault during the engine start procedure?
What indicates a start fault during the engine start procedure?
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What happens when the selected speed drops below VLs regarding ATHR?
What happens when the selected speed drops below VLs regarding ATHR?
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In what scenario does A FLOOR become unavailable?
In what scenario does A FLOOR become unavailable?
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Under which conditions is the LOW ENERGY warning inhibited?
Under which conditions is the LOW ENERGY warning inhibited?
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What is the purpose of FMGL in flight operations?
What is the purpose of FMGL in flight operations?
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When is the WINDSHEAR warning message activated?
When is the WINDSHEAR warning message activated?
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How does the system react if the Angle of Attack (AoA) becomes too high?
How does the system react if the Angle of Attack (AoA) becomes too high?
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What is required to turn off ATHR when exiting floor mode?
What is required to turn off ATHR when exiting floor mode?
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What occurs when the aircraft's speed drops significantly during approach?
What occurs when the aircraft's speed drops significantly during approach?
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What occurs if the air cycle machine (ACM) fails due to compressor turbine seizure?
What occurs if the air cycle machine (ACM) fails due to compressor turbine seizure?
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Which component is responsible for modulating temperature in the system?
Which component is responsible for modulating temperature in the system?
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What happens when pack flow is not sufficient in the system?
What happens when pack flow is not sufficient in the system?
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the Anti-Ice Valve?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Anti-Ice Valve?
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What is the main purpose of the heat condense extract mechanism in the system?
What is the main purpose of the heat condense extract mechanism in the system?
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What does the yellow speed trend indicate during flight?
What does the yellow speed trend indicate during flight?
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What happens if three ADRs fail?
What happens if three ADRs fail?
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Which of the following is true when the aircraft is in direct law?
Which of the following is true when the aircraft is in direct law?
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What must be selected to eliminate RMP control from the FRAC?
What must be selected to eliminate RMP control from the FRAC?
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How is the GPS initialized in the aircraft?
How is the GPS initialized in the aircraft?
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Which GPWS mode alerts the pilot to terrain closure?
Which GPWS mode alerts the pilot to terrain closure?
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What is the function of the TCAS system?
What is the function of the TCAS system?
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What is indicated by the amber RA at 100ft above DH if there is no DH set?
What is indicated by the amber RA at 100ft above DH if there is no DH set?
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Study Notes
Final App Mode
- THRCLIMBmode is engaged when CLB is active, adjusting pitch to achieve the target speed
- CLB is always linked to ALTmode, hence the switch from THR CLB to SPEED
- SRS (Speed Reference System) is a vertical mode to maintain V2 + 10kts or V2 in case of engine failure up to ACC ALT
- NAV activates at 30ft when a flight plan is inserted
Approaches
- APPR can be armed with 20C and GS when ILS and RA are not faulty and both receivers have identical FFQ and course settings
- In case of ILS ground transmitter failure, APFD remains in LOC FD
- LOC and GS deviations are lost, and FD bars flash
- In case of dual receiver failure, LOC GS HDG US AP turn off, and their scales are removed
- CANCEL APP or land when runway is in sight
- Below 400ft, if LOC and GS are engaged, it switches to LAND, only disengageable by a GA
- FLARE activates below 30ft
- AUTOLAND is triggered below 200ft if both APs trip off, excessive deviations occur (LOC 15ft, GS 100ft), or LOC and GS signals are lost
- In case of NPA, AP disconnects at 400ft, MDH, or MDA 50ft AGL if no MDH is set
- If accuracy is low, fly NPA using USHDG or TRACK FPA (Flight Path Angle)
- In case of NPA, push APPR, arm FINAL, and APPNAU if USHDGTRKFPA, APP NAV if NAV was engaged
- Clear waypoints not belonging to the APP
- FINAL APP is active on descent profile
- Disengage FINAL APP if LOC TRK or FPA is selected
- Display raw data for VOR ADF on ND for crosschecking
Protections
- In case of engine failure with AP, auto yaw compensation occurs in all modes, achieved by FAC, damper, and GA
- Automatic rudder trim is active in all modes
- AP FD SRS pitch mode automatically adjusts the reference target guidance speed
- Low speed protection features include: ATHR SPEED mode, LOW ENERGY warning, α FLOOR protection, and WINDSHEAR protection
- If selected speed is below VLS, ATHR will not allow speed to decrease below VLS
- If speed drops below VLS, an aural warning "SPEED SPEED SPEED" will sound, followed by turbulence shear and ATHR OFF
- An energy level is calculated by FAC considering horizontal deceleration and flightpath angle
- LOW ENERGY warning is triggered between 100ft and 2000ft RA and in CONF 2, 3 FULL, just before floor detection
- LOW ENERGY warning is inhibited by GPWS ALT law, DIRECT law, or both RA failures
- If the drop continues, AoA increases, and α FLOOR engages, inhibiting the LOW ENERGY warning
- FAC processes α FLOOR and ATHR commands FULL THRUST
- If ATHR was OFF, it turns ON automatically
- α Floor is available from lift-off to 100ft RA, lost in case of failures or ATHR disconnect for over 15 seconds
- α Floor is also lost in engine out situations when slats are extended
- α Floor is lost in alternate or direct law
- When exiting the floor, TOGA LK mode requires turning OFF ATHR to control the aircraft, allowing re-engagement
- WINDSHEAR is indicated by a red WINDSHEAR message on both PFDs and an aural alert for 15 seconds
- WINDSHEAR is available from 3 seconds after lift-off to 1300ft on TO and from 1300ft to 50ft on LDG with at least CONF 1
- FMGL provides pitch up commands in SRS mode for positive ROC even if speed drops
- In APP GSminifunction, target speed is adjusted for wind correction for safe ground speed
- If AoA gets too high, Flybywire protection disengages
- AP and Flybywire protections assist the pilot in reacting to windshear situations
Reversion Node
- Allows comprehensive autoflight behavior when the pilot modifies FCU
- Ensures a flight envelope ON when Nz 16, OFF when Nz 50
- In case of reversion node failure, FADEC uses two igniters
- Manual start igniters are ON when MASTER switch is ON and OFF when Nz 50
Eng Mode Norm
- Provides continuous ignition ON with ENG flame out or EIU failure, selectable with ENG MODE selector IGN START
- Ignition AUTO turns off by FADEC at 501 Nz
- To achieve continuous ignition, select BACK NORM then IGN START
- LP fuel value opens at start value and opens at 1151 in flight
- Start faults include fault messages to ECAM, MASTER CAUTION, FAULT light on ENG panel, and ENG lights on
- Start faults are controlled by FADEC
- AUTO start is aborted due to E.ggIcA, 4EHI, and anticipated marginal start pressure
- Use MANUAL START
- With the selector set to CRANK, MAN START ON engages the starter for dry cranking
- Do not re-engage the starter when Nz 720
- Dry cranking procedure stops when MAN START OFF
- Dry cranking takes place when MAN START is aborted
- EGT limits are 5 minutes for 10 minutes ENG failure
- TYGA I 9.5
- FART I
- BLEED PRESS is 21 psi when Nz 10
- Starter limitations include 4 consecutive cycles lasting 12 minutes with 20 seconds between cycles for starter lab cooling
- After 4 consecutive cycles, allow 15 minutes for cooling
- Don’t engage the starter when Nz 20
- MAX REVERSE is 70kts
- Before take-off, select IGN start when heavy rain, runway is contaminated, or severe turbulence is present
Fuel System
- A320 fuel system cools the IDG exchanger
- Total fuel storage is 19004kg
- Fuel transfer values are 5573, 6476, and 5573, controlled by FLSWs
- Normal fuel transfer is 69 to 691
Speeds
- Pressing RCL for 3 seconds clarifies items with EMERCANCEL pb
- Yellow speed trend indicates the speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds
- Green dot indicates the best lift-to-drag ratio
- Maneuvering speed in clean configuration, also with one engine out
- S speed is slat retract speed on TO, maneuvering speed in CONF 1 on APPR
- F speed is flap retract speed on TO, maneuvering speed in CONF 2-3 on APPR
- If 3 ADRs fail, a backup speed scale based on AoA and CONF will be displayed
- RA Amber appears 100ft above DH if no DH is set, 400ft if DH is set
Navigation
- GPS is initialized by completing INITA on MCDU
- ADIRS can be recovered by selecting ATT
- Two ILS receivers, VOR DME, DME PFDI, NDI, NDZ PFD, VOR n a, ILSA, ILSZ
- NAV on RMPs controls radio tuning
- Selecting both NAVs eliminates control by FRAC
- If both FMAC fail, RMP1 controls VORZ 9k and RMP2 controls ADFZ
- ILS is active on both RMPs
- TRANSPONDER operates in-flight only
- 2x RA failure causes the aircraft to transition from NORMAL to DIRECT law with a landing down scenario
- 2x RA failure limits APPR to CAT1 ILS only and APPR pb is not usable
PWS & Weather Radar
- PWS AUTO is active at 1500ft RA, even if weather radar is OFF
- Weather radar operates in all modes except PLAN
- GPWS modes include MODE1 (ROD), MODE2 (TERRAIN CLOSURE RATE RA 30ft 2450ft), MODE3 (ALT LOSS TO or GA), MODE4 (TERRAIN CLEARANCE IN NON LANDING CONE), and MODE5 (TOO FAR BELOW GLIDE SLOPE)
- EGPWS features terrain awareness display, terrain clearance floor, and use of database
- GPWC is controlled by FLAP MODE, inhibited for FLAP 3 landings
- TCAS has 2 antennas, 1 channel computer, 2 ATCTransponders
- TCAS interrogates transponders, receiving replies
Heat Exchanger & Pack
- Primary heat exchanger
- Main heat exchanger
- Heat condense extract any moisture
- Compressor and cooling fan drive the condenser
- Bypass value modulates temperature
- Anti-ice valve is pneumatically operated
- Zone controller sends demand to both EIUS for increased ENG IDLE pressure if pack flow is insufficient
- If the air cycle machine (ACM) fails due to compressor turbine seizure, the affected pack reverts to heat exchanger cooling mode with reduced flow
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Description
Explore the intricacies of aircraft autopilot systems including THRCLIMB mode, SRS, and approach procedures. This quiz covers key concepts in managing speed and altitude during flight, particularly under various operational scenarios. Test your knowledge on ILS and autoland procedures.