ABPP and Target Validation

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Questions and Answers

In the context of Activity-Based Protein Profiling (ABPP), which of the following BEST describes the focus of Pillar 3?

  • Evaluating the disease relevance and translatability of observed phenotypic changes.
  • Examining functional pharmacology biomarkers such as protein phosphorylation and concentration. (correct)
  • Assessing the selectivity and potency of probes used for target validation.
  • Ensuring that probe exposures align with the on-target activity and selectivity windows.

Why is selectivity greater than 100-fold emphasized in the context of quality probes for target validation?

  • To facilitate collaboration and development with related probes.
  • To ensure probes have optimal physiochemical and DMPK properties.
  • To guarantee that probe exposures are commensurate with on-target activity.
  • To confirm that observed effects are specifically due to the intended target and not off-target interactions. (correct)

What is the PRIMARY aim of "proof of phenotype perturbation" (Pillar 4) in cell-based target validation?

  • To confirm the probe's selectivity and potency.
  • To control compound exposures.
  • To establish the disease relevance and translatability of the target. (correct)
  • To assess the physiochemical properties of the probe.

Why is it important to ensure that probe exposures are commensurate with the on-target activity during target validation?

<p>To maintain the probe's selectivity and prevent erosion of selectivity windows over off-targets. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is LEAST relevant when defining a quality probe for target validation, according to the provided information?

<p>The probe's ability to be used in high-throughput screening assays. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information provided, what is the primary mechanism by which Ifetroban is believed to reduce metastasis?

<p>By blocking trans-endothelial migration of tumor cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of TNBC (Triple-Negative Breast Cancer) metastasis, what types of treatment with Ifetroban have demonstrated a significant reduction in metastasis in spontaneous mouse models?

<p>Both neoadjuvant and adjuvant treatment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides TNBC, in which other cancer models and cancer types has Ifetroban demonstrated a significant reduction in metastasis?

<p>Mouse models of pancreatic and lung cancer, using human cell lines. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does Ifetroban affect circulating tumor cells (CTCs) in relation to the host immune response, according to the 4T1 mouse model data?

<p>It increases exposure of CTCs to the host immune responses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does Ifetroban have on the ability of tumor cells to interact with the vascular epithelium and platelets?

<p>It decreases the ability of tumor cells to detach from the vascular epithelium and attach to platelets. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of P-selectin in the context of Ifetroban's impact on metastasis, according to the information?

<p>Ifetroban prevents colonization by affecting P-selectin-mediated interactions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the concept of target validation using chemical probes, what is the primary purpose of using fully profiled chemical probes?

<p>To support the unbiased interpretation of biological experiments necessary for rigorous preclinical target validation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ifetroban is identified as a thromboxane receptor inhibitor. Considering its impact on metastasis, what is the most likely mechanism of action related to this inhibition?

<p>Reducing metastasis by modulating thromboxane receptor-mediated processes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of drug development, what is the primary goal of drug repositioning?

<p>To identify novel uses for existing investigational drugs beyond their original intended purpose. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a criterion used to narrow down the list of potential drugs for repurposing, according to the presented methodology?

<p>Including toxic compounds like chemotherapy agents. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of having access to clinical data before the first dose of an investigational new drug is given, according to the BioVU approach?

<p>It provides a baseline to compare potential drug effects against, even in 'healthy' individuals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of drug development, what is often the primary reason for the failure of drug programs in phase II clinical trials?

<p>Lack of efficacy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect is NOT one of the 'four pillars' crucial for successful target validation in drug development?

<p>Optimized drug metabolism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does PheWAS (Phenome-Wide Association Study) contribute to the drug repositioning process described?

<p>It identifies potential new drug targets based on genetic associations with disease phenotypes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The PheWAS analysis revealed an association between metastatic recurrence and a specific Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) in which receptor?

<p>Thromboxane A2 Receptor (TBA2). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the importance of confirming that a probe achieves pharmacologically relevant concentrations inside cells, according to the text?

<p>To ensure unbiased selectivity determination in a physiologically relevant environment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely explanation for mismatches between the biochemical activity of a probe and its whole-cell activity?

<p>Poor cell permeability (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has the Threonine 399 to Alanine (T399A) mutation in the Thromboxane A2 Receptor (TBA2), and this is associated with metastatic recurrence, what type of drug would be most appropriate, according to the information provided?

<p>A drug that reduces the function of the TBA2 receptor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of assessing functional pharmacology of a chemical probe, what type of measurement is typically used?

<p>Assessing a proximal biomarker (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional consequence of the T399A mutation in the Thromboxane A2 Receptor (TBA2)?

<p>It interferes with receptor desensitization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of drug repositioning for metastatic recurrence associated with the T399A mutation, how does understanding the mechanism of action of potential drug candidates aid in the selection process?

<p>It helps prioritize drugs that restore normal receptor desensitization or reduce TBA2 function. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A research team observes that a kinase inhibitor shows excellent activity against the purified kinase enzyme in vitro, but demonstrates minimal effect in cell-based assays. What is the MOST probable cause for this discrepancy?

<p>The inhibitor does not efficiently permeate the cell membrane. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A research group is developing a chemical probe to modulate a specific intracellular protein. They find that the probe binds strongly to the target protein in vitro. According to the four pillars of target validation, what is the NEXT essential step to validate that the probe is useful in a biological setting?

<p>Confirm the probe's ability to modify the target protein's activity within cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In drug development, if a chemical probe shows appropriate exposure at the site of action and confirms target engagement, which additional validation step is crucial to ensure the drug's potential efficacy?

<p>Demonstrating that the probe induces the predicted functional change in the cell or organism. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of validating a target using chemical probes, what is the primary goal of assessing 'exposure at the site of action' (Pillar 1)?

<p>To confirm that the probe can reach its intended target location within the cell or organelle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which analytical technique is most commonly used to detect the presence of a small molecule probe inside a cell or cell organelle when assessing 'exposure at the site of action'?

<p>Mass Spectrometry. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of 'Target Engagement' (Pillar 2) in the context of using chemical probes for target validation?

<p>To confirm that the probe physically interacts with its intended target protein inside the cell. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The in-cell thermal shift assay is used in the 'Target Engagement' pillar. What principle does this assay rely on to demonstrate target engagement?

<p>The change in a protein's stability upon binding of a probe, affecting its resistance to thermal denaturation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of chemical probe validation, what does 'Proof of pharmacology' (Pillar 3) primarily assess?

<p>The probe's ability to modify a proximal biomarker related to the target's activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example mentioned in the text of a proximal biomarker that might be assessed in 'Proof of pharmacology' (Pillar 3)?

<p>The phosphorylated product of a kinase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main challenge in 'Proof of phenotype perturbation' (Pillar 4) when using chemical probes for target validation?

<p>Creating assays that accurately reflect relevant phenotypic changes in human disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to rule out nonspecific cell death in the early stages of 'Proof of phenotype perturbation'?

<p>To avoid false positive results that could be attributed to the specific target. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might using probes at concentrations exceeding their selectivity window lead to inaccurate conclusions in biology experiments?

<p>Off-target activity may become significant and be mistaken for on-target effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do medicinal chemists play when working with probes?

<p>They develop and synthesize the probes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using an inactive enantiomer as a control in experiments involving chemical probes?

<p>To account for non-specific effects of the compound scaffold. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor should be carefully considered when using probes in cell biology experiments to avoid misleading results?

<p>The probe's selectivity window and potential for off-target effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chemical probe design, what is the significance of 'multiple active and selective chemical classes'?

<p>It provides more options for researchers with different experimental needs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to consider the structure of a chemical probe?

<p>The structure influences potency, selectivity and off-target effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do analytical chemists contribute to the use of chemical probes?

<p>By characterizing the probe's purity and stability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason to evaluate the potency of a chemical probe?

<p>To assess the probe's effectiveness at eliciting a biological response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Drug Repositioning

Identifying new uses for investigational drugs outside original indication.

Clinical Investigation

The process of conducting studies to evaluate new drugs on patients.

PheWAS

Phenotype-wide association studies that link genetic variants to traits or outcomes.

SNP

Single nucleotide polymorphism; a variation at a single position in DNA among individuals.

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Thromboxane A2 Receptor

A receptor involved in platelet aggregation and vascular constriction, associated with certain diseases.

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G-Protein Coupled Receptor (GPCR)

A large family of cell surface receptors that play a role in transmitting signals inside cells.

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Gain of Function Disease

A condition where a gene mutation increases the activity of a gene product, worsening the disease.

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Drug (small molecule) to reduce function

A therapeutic agent designed to lower the activity of a protein or receptor involved in disease.

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Ifetroban

A thromboxane receptor inhibitor that reduces cancer metastasis.

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TNBC

Triple-negative breast cancer, a type of aggressive breast cancer.

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Metastasis

The process of cancer spreading from one part of the body to another.

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P-selectin

A molecule that helps cancer cells attach to platelets during metastasis.

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Trans-endothelial migration

The process by which tumor cells move through endothelial cells into other tissues.

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Vascular epithelium

The layer of cells lining blood vessels, involved in tumor cell attachment.

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Neoadjuvant treatment

Therapy given before primary treatment, often to shrink tumors.

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Adjuvant treatment

Therapy given after primary treatment to eliminate remaining cancer cells.

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Activity Based Protein Profiling (ABPP)

A method to study protein activity and interactions in a biological context.

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Protein Phosphorylation

A biochemical process that modifies proteins by adding a phosphate group, influencing their function.

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Translatability in Pharmacology

The relevance of a drug target to human diseases, indicating how findings can apply to real-world treatments.

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Selectivity in Drug Targeting

The property of a probe to preferentially affect its target over other non-target molecules.

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Quality Probe for Target Validation

A tool to assess drug target properties like potency, selectivity, and physiochemical characteristics.

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Retrospective analysis

A study method that reviews existing data to identify trends or outcomes.

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Phase II trials

Clinical trials that test effectiveness and further assess safety of a drug in patients.

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Four pillars of target validation

Key criteria for validating biological targets: exposure, engagement, pharmacology, and phenotype.

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Pillar 1: Exposure at the site of action

Validates that a drug reaches the target concentration where it needs to act.

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Pillar 2: Proof of target engagement

Demonstration that a drug interacts with its intended biological target.

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Pillar 3: Functional pharmacology

Assessment of how a drug's pharmacological activity translates to a desired effect.

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Relevant phenotype

The observable characteristics of a disease that the drug aims to affect.

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Cell permeability

The ability of a substance to pass through a cell membrane and enter a cell.

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Activity Assays

Tests measuring the pharmacological effects of a probe on a biomarker.

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Phenotype Perturbation

Changes in observable traits due to a pharmacological probe's action.

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Target Engagement

The interaction between a drug and its intended cellular target.

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Pillar Concept

Framework identifying key aspects of evaluating drug effects.

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In Cell Activity

Biochemical processes happening within a living cell during drug action.

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Activity-Based Proteomics

Technique that quantifies protein interactions with probes.

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Thermal Shift Assay

A measure of protein stability changes in response to drug binding.

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Inactive Control

A controlled condition in experiments that lacks activity.

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Active Probes

Substances used in experiments to elicit specific responses.

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Selectivity Window

The range within which a drug effectively targets specific receptors.

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Erroneous Links

Incorrect associations made between activities and effects.

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On-Target Activity

The intended action of a drug on specific receptors.

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Off-Target Activity

Unintended actions of a drug on non-target receptors.

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Pharmacology Experiment

A study investigating the effects of drugs on biological systems.

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Potency

The strength of a drug's effect at a given concentration.

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Study Notes

Terminology from Lecture 2

  • Derisking projects: Examples include genetic evidence or biomarkers.
  • Reproducibility: Crucial for project selection (novel science).
  • Assays: Biochemical (isolated enzymes), in vitro (cellular), and in vivo (animal studies).
  • Endogenous small molecules: Steroids and eicosanoids (prostaglandins, thromboxane).
  • GWAS: Genome-Wide Associated Studies identify SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms) associated with disease.
  • PheWAS: Phenotype Wide Associated Studies identify common SNPs for common diseases.
  • ADME/PK: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion (pharmacokinetics).
  • Urinary/Renal System: Important in drug optimization (distribution, clearance, and metabolism).
  • Gene therapy: CRISPR/Cas9 used in treating Sickle Cell Disease.
  • RNAi: Interfering RNA used for target validation and therapy.
  • Nobel Prizes: Notable awards for contributions to chemistry and medicine-physiology.
  • Chemical Genetics: Small molecules modulate macromolecules (protein, DNA, RNA).
  • Reverse Chemical Genetics: Target screen-protein-hypothesis based and forward chemical genetics (phenotype screen).
  • Chemical space: Vast (approx. 1060 for small molecules with MW below 500).
  • Page 38-43 (CC&K)

Understanding the Drug Discovery Process

  • Research and Development: 3-6 years for drug discovery.
  • Target Identification: Understanding disease or condition to identify suitable drug targets.
  • Compound Screening: Testing (up to 10,000 compounds) in labs for potential target effects.
  • Lead Identification: Analyzing to select promising compounds further testing.
  • Pre-clinical studies: Evaluating efficacy and potential risks (1 year): In Vitro and In Vivo studies. 2 standards of mammals (min 2).
  • Clinical Trials: Involves humans (4-7 years):
    • Phase 1: Testing side effects (20-80 people).
    • Phase 2: Assessing efficacy in patients with the disease (100-300 people).
    • Phase 3: Evaluating safety and efficacy in a larger population (1,000-3,000 people).
  • Review and Approval: Regulatory bodies review and approve if effective and safe (1-2 years).
  • Post-release monitoring: Ongoing for side effects/issues.

Target Identification/Selection

  • Disease Association: Basic science and clinical knowledge (GWAS or PheWAS) focus on disruption of homeostasis in most human diseases.
  • Target Loss/Homeostasis: Loss or gain of function of small molecules related to pathways and associated proteins (enzymes).
  • Mechanism of Action: Emphasis on "functional" pharmacology and biomarker data (cellular and in vivo)

Target Validation

  • Druggable Target: Small molecule modulation of identified target
  • Complete Validation: Marketed drug

Human Genome Project

  • Chromosomes: 23 chromosomes, > 3 billion DNA base pairs
  • Proteins: Encoding approximately 20,000 to 25,000 proteins.
  • Druggable targets: Estimated 5000 potentially "druggable" macromolecular targets and an additional 3200 possible targets for infectious diseases (microbial genomes).

Drug Repurposing and Drug Repositioning

  • Alternative Strategy: Identifying new uses for approved or investigational drugs beyond their original indications.

Clinical and Patient Data in BioVU-Genotyping

  • Data Availability for New Drug Development: Clinical data related to diseases and drug targets available before testing.
  • Data on individuals: 'Healthy' individuals considered equally valuable.

Problem Statement (PheWAS)

  • Timeframe: 6-12 months
  • Radiographic Evidence: No radiographic evidence of residual disease
  • Metastatic Recurrence: Metastatic recurrence observed

Thromboxane A2 receptor (TBA2)

  • Metastatic recurrence: Associated with SNPs in the TBA2 receptor.
  • Threonine 399: Change to alanine associated with metastatic cancer recurrence .

Ifetroban

  • Decrease metastasis: In a mouse model of TBNC metastase
  • Reduces metastasis: In models for additional cancer models and types.
  • Blocks trans-endothelial migration: Of tumor cells across endothelial linings .
  • Impacts tumor cell detachment and attachment: Decreasing tumor cell detachment from blood vessels and attachment to platelets, and exposure of circulating tumor cells to immune responses prevent colonization affecting P-selectin-mediated.

Target Validation using Chemical Probes

  • Quality Chemical Probes: Vital for unbiased interpretation of biological experiments.
  • Rigorous preclinical target validation: essential for relevance to disease/phenotype.
  • Chemical Probes and Selection Criteria: Many examples of chemical probes do not meet these criteria.
  • Manipulated Assays: Some heavily manipulated biological assays may not be relevant to humans.

The Four Pillars of Cell-Based Target Validation

  • Pillar 1: Exposure at the site of action: Biochemical/Cell activity. Possible detection with Mass Spec.
  • Pillar 2: Target Engagement: In cell thermal shift assay (protein-target mobility).
  • Pillar 3: Functional pharmacology: Biomarker (protein phosphorylation, concentration).
  • Pillar 4: Proof of phenotype perturbation: Disease relevance/translatability.

Quality Probe for Target Validation

  • Selectivity, Potency, Control Compounds: Essential to design quality probes.
  • Multiple Scaffolds and Physiochemical Properties: Multiple diverse chemical scaffolding options.
  • Collaboration among chemists, biologists, and medicinal chemists: Central in probe development.
  • SAR (Structure-Activity Relationship): Important consideration.
  • Lipinski's Rule of Five: General guidelines for drug-likeness, though exceptions exist.

Target Engagement: Chemical Probe to Chemical Proteomics, Fluorescent, or Affinity Probe

  • Experimental techniques for studying target engagement and probe distributions (cells, tissue, in vivo).
  • Controls and their importance.

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