Questions and Answers
What is the first freedom of the air?
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What applies when crossing lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?
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When must a flight plan be filed at the latest?
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If the estimated time for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, what is the requirement?
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Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
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What does a horizontal white dumb-bell displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome mean?
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An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
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What does the signal 'Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist' mean?
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An ETA for an IFR flight refers to which of the following?
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Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:
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What defines a danger area?
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ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover when the clouds are:
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A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least:
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During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
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In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
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For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
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In case of an en-route HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:
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The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
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The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is:
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The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
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Following an emergency landing, the appropriate action is:
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If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
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The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
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To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:
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For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy airplane is following directly behind another heavy airplane on the approach to the same runway?
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In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft, you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps:
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When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:
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The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
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A category I precision approach (CAT I) may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
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A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:
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For turbo-jet aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
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Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights showing in the direction of the approach?
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High intensity obstacle lights should be:
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Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?
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The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:
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The combination regrouping all the correct statements regarding a diminution of the take-off run is:
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The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
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For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
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In which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?
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The combination regrouping all the correct statements in case of an unexpected encounter with windshear is:
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Windshear is defined as:
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Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:
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For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a __________ will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks.
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A pilot _______ accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft.
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Which statement regarding the correct crew procedure to follow before arming the BTV is accurate?
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What is the objective of BTV?
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BTV is certified on all runway conditions.
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Can you use BTV when the active NOTAM states 'slippery when wet'?
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What happens with the BTV when a late runway change occurs?
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Does BTV remain operative in the case of overweight landing?
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Type ratings shall be established:
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According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
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Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
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The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
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Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
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An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
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Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed'?
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Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
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A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
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Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
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While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
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A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
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An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
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A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
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An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
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The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
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An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
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Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
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While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, a series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
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A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
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You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
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In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
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In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
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In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
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How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?
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In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:
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In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:
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Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
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Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
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The loading limitations shall include:
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The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
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Load factors has the following meaning:
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The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
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The certificate of registration shall:
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The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
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The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:
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An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:
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The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
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When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:
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According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
Answer hidden
For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
Answer hidden
Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?
Answer hidden
According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
Answer hidden
Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?
Answer hidden
Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:
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The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:
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The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:
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Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on?
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What is the 'triple click'?
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Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway?
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The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence.
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The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is:
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When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately?
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Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running?
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During cockpit preparation, who is responsible to compute preliminary takeoff data?
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What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start?
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Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case?
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The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints:
Answer hidden
What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures?
Answer hidden
What is the definition of thrust margin?
Answer hidden
When does the 'REC MAX FL' decrease in flight?
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What does GREENDOT speed do?
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What does the REC MAX FL indicate?
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How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test?
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The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxiway closures.
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What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection?
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The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed?
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When is it possible to land?
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If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made to:
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In the ILS approach, the OCA is referenced to:
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Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
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What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
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What is the action to take if unable to comply with a standard holding pattern?
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In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at:
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Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, what will be the maximum speed?
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Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
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What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
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What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
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In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
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In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:
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What is the term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach?
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A circling approach is:
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If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
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On a non-precision approach, a 'straight-in approach' is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
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What is the maximum descent gradient applicable in the final approach segment?
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During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
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Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
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During a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
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If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost, the pilot shall:
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Where does the missed approach procedure start?
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When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
Answer hidden
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?
Answer hidden
Except in some special cases, the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:
Answer hidden
Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:
Answer hidden
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level is:
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The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
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The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level, if the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed at least 40 kt faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
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The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
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When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:
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Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?
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Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:
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The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
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Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
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The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
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In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed in:
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During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
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The transition level shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
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Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
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What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
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When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:
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Normally, all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
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An 'RNAV' distance-based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' waypoint. This minimum is:
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One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
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What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
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During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:
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Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
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When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable interception at an angle not greater than:
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Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?
Answer hidden
Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?
Answer hidden
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
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A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
Answer hidden
Type ratings shall be established:
Answer hidden
According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
Answer hidden
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
Answer hidden
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
Answer hidden
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
Answer hidden
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
Answer hidden
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed'?
Answer hidden
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
Answer hidden
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
Answer hidden
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Answer hidden
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
Answer hidden
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Answer hidden
An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
Answer hidden
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
Answer hidden
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
Answer hidden
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
Answer hidden
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
Answer hidden
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
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While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, a series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
Answer hidden
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
Answer hidden
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
Answer hidden
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
Answer hidden
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
Answer hidden
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
Answer hidden
How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?
Answer hidden
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:
Answer hidden
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:
Answer hidden
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Answer hidden
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
Answer hidden
The loading limitations shall include:
Answer hidden
Load factors has the following meaning:
Answer hidden
The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
Answer hidden
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
Answer hidden
The certificate of registration shall:
Answer hidden
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
Answer hidden
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:
Answer hidden
An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:
Answer hidden
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
Answer hidden
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:
Answer hidden
According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
Answer hidden
For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
Answer hidden
Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?
Answer hidden
According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
Answer hidden
Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?
Answer hidden
Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:
Answer hidden
The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:
Answer hidden
The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:
Answer hidden
The second freedom of the air is the:
Answer hidden
Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on?
Answer hidden
What is the 'triple click'?
Answer hidden
Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway?
Answer hidden
The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence.
Answer hidden
The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is:
Answer hidden
When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately?
Answer hidden
Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running?
Answer hidden
During cockpit preparation, who is responsible to compute preliminary take off data?
Answer hidden
What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start?
Answer hidden
Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case?
Answer hidden
The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints:
Answer hidden
What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures?
Answer hidden
What is the definition of thrust margin?
Answer hidden
When does the 'REC MAX FL' decrease in flight?
Answer hidden
What does GREENDOT speed do?
Answer hidden
What does the REC MAX FL indicate?
Answer hidden
How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test?
Answer hidden
The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxiway closures.
Answer hidden
What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection?
Answer hidden
The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed?
Answer hidden
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to:
Answer hidden
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
Answer hidden
Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
Answer hidden
What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
Answer hidden
What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
Answer hidden
In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a:
Answer hidden
Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, what will be the maximum speed?
Answer hidden
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL140?
Answer hidden
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL140?
Answer hidden
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Answer hidden
In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:
Answer hidden
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach, is:
Answer hidden
A circling approach is:
Answer hidden
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
Answer hidden
On a non-precision approach, a so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
Answer hidden
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is:
Answer hidden
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
Answer hidden
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
Answer hidden
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
Answer hidden
If, during visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:
Answer hidden
Where does the missed approach procedure start?
Answer hidden
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
Answer hidden
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?
Answer hidden
Except in some special cases, the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:
Answer hidden
Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:
Answer hidden
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is:
Answer hidden
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft is:
Answer hidden
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft is:
Answer hidden
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
Answer hidden
When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:
Answer hidden
Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?
Answer hidden
Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:
Answer hidden
The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
Answer hidden
Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
Answer hidden
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
Answer hidden
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
Answer hidden
During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
Answer hidden
The transition level:
Answer hidden
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
Answer hidden
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Answer hidden
When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:
Answer hidden
Normally, all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
Answer hidden
A 'RNAV' distance-based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' waypoint. This minimum is:
Answer hidden
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
Answer hidden
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
Answer hidden
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
Answer hidden
During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:
Answer hidden
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
Answer hidden
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
Answer hidden
Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?
Answer hidden
Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?
Answer hidden
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
Answer hidden
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
Answer hidden
A category II precision approach (CAT II) has a decision height of at least:
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During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
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In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is:
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For operations in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
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In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency is:
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The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
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The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
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The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is:
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After an emergency landing, the combination of correct actions you should take is:
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The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
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If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
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The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
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In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, which language should be set for markings related to dangerous goods:
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The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on:
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In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain, the combination of correct actions is:
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A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be:
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The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
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Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
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To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:
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The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:
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For wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy airplane is following directly behind another heavy airplane on approach?
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According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
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According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes is applicable to:
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DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes wake turbulence separation minima based on aircraft types. The Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of:
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In the case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft, disregarding any fuel considerations:
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The first freedom of the air is:
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Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom should the commander submit a report of the act?
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What transponder code should be used for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference:
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To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:
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When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?
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An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to:
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For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that does not exceed:
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If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:
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Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
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One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that conditions are:
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When refueling while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:
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A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:
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The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
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An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
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Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist. This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:
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The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
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A category I precision approach (CAT I) requires a runway visual range of at least:
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An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:
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The term decision height (DH) is used for:
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Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:
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What defines a danger area?
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A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:
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ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
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The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account:
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For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
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Where a runway has a displaced threshold, the color of the edge lights is:
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What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off under operating minimums below an RVR of approximately 400 m?
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High intensity obstacle lights should be:
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Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
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The color identification of the contents of droppable containers for survival equipment uses colored streamers with the following code:
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The color identification of the contents of droppable containers containing survival equipment is:
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The ground-air visual code illustrated means:
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Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?
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Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
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The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:
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For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude must be chosen to be:
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During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
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The combination regrouping all the correct statements regarding a diminution of the take-off run is:
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The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
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For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection following an anti-icing procedure will be in which weather conditions?
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In which weather conditions will the holdover time be shortest?
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Which magnitude will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?
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In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, which combination of actions is correct?
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Windshear is defined as:
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As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left-hand seat as PNF/PM only:
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The objective of CRM is to enhance:
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Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:
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A crew member should not donate blood within:
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If the time difference between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more, the subsequent rest period is at least as long as:
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A clearance must be read back to ATC in the case of clearances received:
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Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much _____ than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.
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Pressure correction: When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa, the minimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is __________ than the standard atmosphere (1013 hPa).
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Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:
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Company aircraft are categorized as follows:
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Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below __________ on the final approach segment.
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Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly:
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For ETOPS flights above 120 minutes, take-off alternate distance for B787-9/A350-900 is:
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The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows:
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Which statement is correct regarding compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance?
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For depressurization, the aircraft gross flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:
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When passenger checked baggage is not weighed, the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used:
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An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than:
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Blocktime calculation method for each duty augmented flight crew member:
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Last minute change means any change concerning passengers, crew or cargo occurring after the using of the load sheet. This LMC must immediately be communicated if take-off weight variation exceeds the following values per aircraft type:
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A pilot ______ accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply.
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Crew members should keep walking in line in the terminal or public areas in the following orders:
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Crew members shall yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:
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If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with:
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Which statement is correct for making a visible record of each ATC clearance?
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All flight crew members on duty MUST bring:
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A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew:
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For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a __________ will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks.
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ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt via ACARS data link network, giving his:
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Airport Rescue and Fire-fighting category for B787-9/A350-900 is:
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Can any fluctuation caution be deleted by the EMER cancel PB?
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What specific action is required for a green pulsating advisory?
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BTV aims to:
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What is the objective of BTV?
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Is BTV certified on all runway conditions?
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Can you use BTV when the active NOTAM states 'slippery when wet'?
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What is the correct crew procedure to follow before arming the BTV?
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After the flight crew has armed the BTV, what must they check?
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What is the correct BTV procedure when there is a runway change?
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When BTV is armed, can the flight crew modify the BTV exit without disarming BTV?
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When BTV is armed, can the end label be displayed?
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What happens with the BTV when a late runway change occurs?
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Does BTV remain operative in the case of overweight landing?
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If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb in time on the ground, what will happen?
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If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb twice, what will happen?
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In the case of a missed exit, what should the crew do?
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What does BTV take into account for landing on a wet runway?
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An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode 'A':
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The second freedom of the air is the:
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When is a descent made at the stepdown fix on the final approach track?
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In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
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Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
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What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
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What will you do if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
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In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a:
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What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
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What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
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In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:
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The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
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What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
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What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
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A visual manoeuvring (circling) is only performed under radar vectoring.
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Visual reference must be maintained while circling to land from an instrument approach.
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Type ratings shall be established:
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According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and maneuvers of an aeroplane type certificated for:
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Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
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The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
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Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
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Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed'?
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A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
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Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
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Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
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The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
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An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:
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According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
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Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on?
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What is the 'triple click'?
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Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway?
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The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence.
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The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is:
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When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately?
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Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running?
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During cockpit preparation, who is responsible for computing preliminary take-off data?
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What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start?
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Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case?
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The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints:
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What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures?
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What is the definition of thrust margin?
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When does the 'REC MAX FL' decrease in flight?
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What does GREENDOT speed do?
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What does the REC MAX FL indicate?
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How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test?
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The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxiway closures.
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What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection?
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The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed?
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A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with?
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During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is?
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In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is?
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For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft must be equipped with at least?
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In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is?
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The MNPS airspace extends from?
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The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is?
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Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will?
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If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so?
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The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by?
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In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods?
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The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on?
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A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be?
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The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is?
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Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways, the required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by?
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To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver?
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The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a?
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For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane?
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What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference?
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An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to?
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One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions are?
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When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that?
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What is the first freedom of the air?
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The combination regrouping all the correct statements regarding take-off run, stalling speed, and climb gradient is:
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What applies when crossing lighted stop bars on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome?
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The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on the following statements. Which is the correct combination?
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When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?
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For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection from anti-icing procedures will be in which weather conditions?
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If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, when should a revised estimate be notified?
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In which type of weather condition will the holdover time be shortest?
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Which magnitude will be the first to change value when penetrating a windshear?
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Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
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In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, which statements are correct?
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A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:
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An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
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Windshear is defined as:
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What does the signal 'Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist' from a signalman to an aircraft indicate?
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A first officer can operate on the left-hand seat as PNF/PM only:
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What does ETA for an IFR flight refer to?
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The objective of CRM is to enhance:
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Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:
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Aircraft on the maneuvering area have to give way to:
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What defines a danger area?
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A crew member should not donate blood within:
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ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
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If the time difference (TD) between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more:
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When on a RNP 1 route, what does 'a342 z' indicate?
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A clearance must be read back to ATC and confirmed between both pilot crew members in the case of clearances received:
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When on a RNP 1 route, what does 'b235 y' indicate?
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Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.
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A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
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Pressure correction: The minimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is ----------- than the standard atmosphere (1013hPa).
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Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:
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In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, when should the submitted flight plan be amended or cancelled?
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Company aircraft are categorized as follows:
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Who is responsible for ensuring an ATC clearance is safe with respect to terrain clearance?
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Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final approach segment.
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In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, when should the flight plan be amended or a new one submitted?
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Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
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Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly:
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Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact?
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For ETOPS flights above 120 minutes, take-off alternate distance for B787-9/A350-900 is:
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The standard weight of crew, passengers, and cargo for normal flights is as follows:
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If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
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Which statement is correct regarding compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance?
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Taxiway edge lights shall be:
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For depressurization, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:
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Runway end lights shall be:
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Runway threshold lights shall be:
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When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed, what is the standard weight per piece of checked baggage used?
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An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than:
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Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
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Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
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Which statement about block time calculation for each duty augmented flight crew member is correct?
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What defines a last minute change (LMC)?
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The light shown by an 'aerodrome identification beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
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A pilot ________ accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft.
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In the 'VASIS', how many light units are in each wing bar?
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Crew members should keep walking in line (single or double) in the following orders:
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What color is taxiway edge lighting?
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Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:
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What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?
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If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with:
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What color are runway edge lights?
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What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to an airway?
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Which statement is correct regarding recording ATC clearance?
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All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring:
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What does 'radar contact' mean to the pilot?
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When a radar operator says to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
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A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying:
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For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a __________ will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks.
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"A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for:
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ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his _____.
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"An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for:
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What is 'ASDA' (acceleration stop distance available)?
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Airport Rescue and Fire-fighting category for B787-9/A350-900 is:
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What are 'instrument runways'?
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Can any fluctuation caution be deleted by the EMER cancel PB?
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'TODA' take-off distance available is:
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What specific action is required for a green pulsating advisory?
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In the 'PAPI' system, when will the pilot see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white?
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BTV aims to:
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What is the objective of BTV?
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The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:
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Is BTV certified on all runway conditions?
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As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that an airplane has a climb gradient of:
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If an instrument departure procedure tracks to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
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Can you use BTV when the active NOTAM states “slippery when wet”?
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What is the correct crew procedure to follow before arming the BTV?
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In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of the runway equals:
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After the flight crew has armed the BTV, what must they check?
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In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centerline within:
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What is the correct BTV procedure when there is a runway change?
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Turning departures provide track guidance within:
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The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
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When BTV is armed, can the flight crew modify the BTV exit without disarming BTV?
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When BTV is armed, can the end label be displayed?
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Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?
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What happens with the BTV when a late runway change occurs?
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Does BTV remain operative in the case of overweight landing?
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If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb in time on the ground, what will happen?
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If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb twice, in time on the ground, what will happen?
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In the case of a missed exit, what should the crew do?
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What does BTV take into account for landing on a wet runway?
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The combination regrouping all the correct statements regarding anti-icing fluid protection time is:
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For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid, which weather condition will have the shortest holdover time?
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Windshear is defined as:
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Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:
Answer hidden
A clearance must be read back to ATC and confirmed between pilots in the case of clearances received:
Answer hidden
Which statement is correct regarding take-off obstacle clearance?
Answer hidden
What is the objective of BTV?
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A pilot _____ accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft.
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Crew members are allowed to donate blood within 24 hours before a flight assignment.
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What happens with the BTV when a late runway change occurs?
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What is the first freedom of the air?
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What must be done before crossing lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?
Answer hidden
When must a flight plan be filed at the latest?
Answer hidden
If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, when should a revised estimate be notified?
Answer hidden
Which of the following signals is considered a distress signal?
Answer hidden
What does a horizontal white dumb-bell displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome mean?
Answer hidden
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to what code?
Answer hidden
What does the signal 'raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist' mean?
Answer hidden
Who is responsible for ensuring an ATC clearance is safe in respect to terrain clearance?
Answer hidden
What is the meaning of the instruction 'resume own navigation' from a departure controller?
Answer hidden
What is meant by 'TODA' (take-off distance available)?
Answer hidden
Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on?
Answer hidden
What is the 'triple click'?
Answer hidden
Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway?
Answer hidden
The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence.
Answer hidden
The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is:
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When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately?
Answer hidden
Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running?
Answer hidden
During cockpit preparation, who is responsible to compute preliminary take off data?
Answer hidden
What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start?
Answer hidden
Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case?
Answer hidden
The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints:
Answer hidden
What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures?
Answer hidden
What is the definition of thrust margin?
Answer hidden
When does the 'REC MAX FL' decrease in flight?
Answer hidden
What does GREENDOT speed do?
Answer hidden
What does the REC MAX FL indicate?
Answer hidden
How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test?
Answer hidden
The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxiway closures.
Answer hidden
What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection?
Answer hidden
The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed?
Answer hidden
Type ratings shall be established:
Answer hidden
According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
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Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
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The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
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Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
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An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode 'A':
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An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
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Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed'?
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Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
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A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
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Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
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While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
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A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
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An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
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A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
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An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
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The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
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An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
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Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
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While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, a series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
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A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
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You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
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In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
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In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
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In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
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How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?
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In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:
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In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:
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Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
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Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
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The loading limitations shall include:
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Load factors has the following meaning:
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The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
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The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
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The certificate of registration shall:
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The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
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The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:
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An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:
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The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
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When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:
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According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
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For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
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Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?
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According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
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Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?
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Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:
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The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:
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The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:
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The second freedom of the air is the:
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If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to:
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In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
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Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
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What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
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What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
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In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a:
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Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
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What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
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In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:
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The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
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If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
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On a non-precision approach, a so-called 'straight-in approach' is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
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Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is:
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During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
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Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
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In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
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Where does the missed approach procedure start?
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When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
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Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?
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Except in some special cases, the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:
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Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:
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The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is:
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The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft is:
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The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft is:
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The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
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When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:
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Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?
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Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:
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The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
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Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
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The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
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In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
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During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
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The transition level:
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Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa, is done:
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What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
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When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:
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Normally, all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
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A 'RNAV' distance-based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' waypoint. This minimum is:
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One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
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Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
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What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?
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During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:
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Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
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When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
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Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?
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Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?
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A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
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A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
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A category II precision approach (CAT II) has a decision height of at least:
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During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the approach must not be continued beyond:
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In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is:
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For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
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In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:
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The MNPS airspace extends from:
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The MNPS airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
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The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is:
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Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:
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The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
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If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
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The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
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In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods:
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The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
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In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain, you should:
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A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be:
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The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
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If your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways, the required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
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To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:
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Wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:
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What is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
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According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
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According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
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DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of:
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In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft, what should you do?
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Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom should the commander submit a report of the act?
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What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference?
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An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to:
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For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:
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One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the conditions at the aerodrome are:
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When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking, it is necessary that:
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The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
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The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
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A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
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The term decision height (DH) is used for:
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A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:
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The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account:
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For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
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Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach?
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What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
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High intensity obstacle lights should be:
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Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
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The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:
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The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:
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The ground-air visual code illustrated means:
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Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?
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Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
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The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace is:
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For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly:
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During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
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When taking off in winter conditions, wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:
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Study Notes
A350 Question Bank Overview
- Type ratings established for aircraft with a minimum crew of two pilots.
- An applicant for ATPL(A) must demonstrate ability as pilot-in-command under IFR for a minimum crew of two pilots.
- VFR flights cannot enter or leave control zones with ceilings less than 1,500 feet or visibility less than 5 km without ATC clearance.
Authority During Flight
- The commander holds final authority for aircraft disposition during flight.
- Emergency aircraft have the highest priority for landing, followed by military and hospital aircraft.
Intercept Protocols
- An intercepted aircraft with an SSR transponder should select code 7700 unless instructed otherwise.
- Must establish communication on 121.5 MHz immediately.
- The intercepting aircraft signals "you may proceed" by rocking wings and flashing navigational lights.
Signals and Landing Procedures
- In case of radio failure in the traffic pattern, an aircraft should signal difficulties by switching on and off the landing lights.
- A flashing red light from the control tower indicates the airport is unsafe, and landing should not occur.
Flight Deviations and Emergencies
- In the event of a controlled flight deviation, inform ATC and adjust heading as practicable.
- If on IFR flight with an emergency, squawk 7700 and notify ATC as soon as possible.
Regulatory Guidelines
- Anti-collision lights must be displayed on the ground when engines are running.
- A red flare means "dangerous airfield, do not land."
- Medical assessments for pilot licenses must be carried on board the aircraft at all times.
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
- The final approach segment is crucial for alignment and descent for landing.
- Missed approach procedures typically assume a climb gradient of 3.3%.
- An aircraft in an offset entry should spend a maximum of 1 minute on the 30° offset track.
Air Traffic Control (ATC) Procedures
- Flights over high seas abide by regulations established by the state of registry.
- Filing a flight plan must occur 60 minutes before departure or if filed in-flight, 10 minutes before reaching controlled airspace.
Legal and International Regulations
- The rights of aircraft regarding non-stop flights across contracting states established by the Chicago Convention.
- ICAO standards and recommended practices laid out in various documents including annexes to the Chicago Convention.
Miscellaneous
- The second freedom of the air allows for technical stops, while the first freedom allows for overflight without landing.
- Procedures for crossing lighted stop bars require authorization from the control tower.### Distress Signals
- A parachute flare showing a red light indicates a distress signal.
- "Pan, pan" in radiotelephony is not a distress signal; it indicates an urgency level.
Aerodrome Signals
- A horizontal white dumb-bell displayed on a signal area means aircraft must land, take off, and taxi only on runways and taxiways.
- Aircraft intercepted by another must set transponder to Mode A, code 7700 unless instructed otherwise.
Ground Signals
- "Raise arm and hand, fingers extended" signals the aircraft to start engines.
- Taxiway edge lights are fixed and show blue color, while runway edge lights typically show white.
Flight Planning & Reporting
- A flight plan for a controlled flight must be submitted at least 60 minutes before departure.
- In case of a delay exceeding 30 minutes of the estimated departure time, the flight plan must be amended or cancelled.
Navigation and Procedures
- When instructed to resume own navigation, radar service is terminated, but pilots must maintain navigation using equipment.
- Instrument runways are designed for operations using instrument approach procedures, including categories I, II, and III.
Wake Turbulence
- Aircraft must announce their wake turbulence category during initial contact with ATC prior to departure.
Holding Patterns
- In a standard holding pattern, turns are made to the right and outbound timing is generally 1 minute up to FL 140.
- Maximum speed when entering a holding pattern at FL 110 should not exceed 230 knots IAS.
Approach Procedures
- The OCA (Obstacle Clearance Altitude) during ILS approaches is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
- Descent gradient in the intermediate approach segment should be kept low to ensure full obstacle clearance.
Definitions and Areas
- Stopway is an area at the end of the take-off run available where an aircraft can stop if an aborted take-off occurs.
- A defined rectangular area for an aborted take-off is called stopway; it may also include a runway end safety area.
Climb Gradients
- The normal climb gradient for missed approaches is approximately 2.5%.
- Climb gradients are adjusted depending on the number of functioning engines during take-off.
Circling Approaches
- A circling approach is a visual flight maneuver that maintains the runway in sight and is not dependent on radar vectoring.
- Visual manoeuvring (circling) refers to the phase of flight after completing an instrument approach to position for landing.
Miscellaneous
- White lines drawn across a runway indicate the threshold, while runway threshold lights usually show green.
- When conducting IFR to VFR transitions, it’s generally up to the aircraft commander’s discretion based on the conditions.### Instrument Approach and Missed Approach Procedures
- If visual reference is lost during a circling approach, initiate a climbing turn toward the landing runway and follow missed approach procedures.
- On a non-precision approach, a straight-in approach angle must be 30 degrees or less from the runway centerline.
- The maximum descent gradient during the final approach section to ensure obstacle clearance is typically 6.5%.
- Minimum obstacle clearance for the intermediate phase of a missed approach is 30 m (98 ft).
Altitude and Approach Regulations
- Minimum sector altitudes relate to the inbound radial from the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), with sectors typically marked to 25 nm.
- The minimum decision height (MDH) during a straight-in approach cannot be below 200 ft or the obstacle clearance height (OCH).
- The missed approach procedure commences at the missed approach point or any point criteria are not met.
Communication and Transponder Codes
- In cases of unlawful interference, the minimum transponder code to indicate distress is 7500.
- Special purpose codes for SSR include: Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7600.
Navigation Performance Standards
- Required Navigation Performance (RNP) is established by states based on regional agreements.
- Longitudinal separation minima between the same cruising level aircraft is typically 10 minutes, decreasing based on speed differentials.
- For distance separation using DME, the minimum is set at 10 nm, or 20 nm when speed differentials exceed 20 knots.
Holding Patterns and Flight Levels
- Standard holding patterns below 14,000 ft involve right-hand turns with a leg length of 1 minute outbound.
- The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be lower than 1,500 ft, and vertical positioning should be expressed as altitude above sea level when above this altitude.
Approaches and Landings
- Independent parallel approaches are permitted if the missed approach tracks diverge by at least 20 degrees.
- Category I, II, and III precision approaches vary by decision height, with CAT III B requiring a runway visual range of at least 150 m.
- In MNPS airspace, aircraft must be equipped with at least two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
Emergency Procedures
- Following an emergency landing, clear the runway using the nearest taxiway and avoid powering systems unnecessarily.
- The definition of a safe forced landing is one where no injuries are reasonably expected.
Weather and Runway Conditions
- A runway with 4 mm of standing water is considered contaminated.
- The maximum validity for snow-related reports (SNOWTAM) is typically 24 hours.
Wake Turbulence and Safety Measures
- To avoid wake turbulence, maintain altitude above and downwind of larger departing aircraft.
- Wake turbulence is more pronounced during high-weight, high-speed phases of flight.
Landing Distance Adjustments
- Landing distances on wet runways should be increased by 15-20% based on the conditions specified in operational manuals.
A350 Question Bank Overview
- Type ratings established for aircraft with a minimum crew of two pilots.
- An applicant for ATPL(A) must demonstrate ability as pilot-in-command under IFR for a minimum crew of two pilots.
- VFR flights cannot enter or leave control zones with ceilings less than 1,500 feet or visibility less than 5 km without ATC clearance.
Authority During Flight
- The commander holds final authority for aircraft disposition during flight.
- Emergency aircraft have the highest priority for landing, followed by military and hospital aircraft.
Intercept Protocols
- An intercepted aircraft with an SSR transponder should select code 7700 unless instructed otherwise.
- Must establish communication on 121.5 MHz immediately.
- The intercepting aircraft signals "you may proceed" by rocking wings and flashing navigational lights.
Signals and Landing Procedures
- In case of radio failure in the traffic pattern, an aircraft should signal difficulties by switching on and off the landing lights.
- A flashing red light from the control tower indicates the airport is unsafe, and landing should not occur.
Flight Deviations and Emergencies
- In the event of a controlled flight deviation, inform ATC and adjust heading as practicable.
- If on IFR flight with an emergency, squawk 7700 and notify ATC as soon as possible.
Regulatory Guidelines
- Anti-collision lights must be displayed on the ground when engines are running.
- A red flare means "dangerous airfield, do not land."
- Medical assessments for pilot licenses must be carried on board the aircraft at all times.
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
- The final approach segment is crucial for alignment and descent for landing.
- Missed approach procedures typically assume a climb gradient of 3.3%.
- An aircraft in an offset entry should spend a maximum of 1 minute on the 30° offset track.
Air Traffic Control (ATC) Procedures
- Flights over high seas abide by regulations established by the state of registry.
- Filing a flight plan must occur 60 minutes before departure or if filed in-flight, 10 minutes before reaching controlled airspace.
Legal and International Regulations
- The rights of aircraft regarding non-stop flights across contracting states established by the Chicago Convention.
- ICAO standards and recommended practices laid out in various documents including annexes to the Chicago Convention.
Miscellaneous
- The second freedom of the air allows for technical stops, while the first freedom allows for overflight without landing.
- Procedures for crossing lighted stop bars require authorization from the control tower.### Distress Signals
- A parachute flare showing a red light indicates a distress signal.
- "Pan, pan" in radiotelephony is not a distress signal; it indicates an urgency level.
Aerodrome Signals
- A horizontal white dumb-bell displayed on a signal area means aircraft must land, take off, and taxi only on runways and taxiways.
- Aircraft intercepted by another must set transponder to Mode A, code 7700 unless instructed otherwise.
Ground Signals
- "Raise arm and hand, fingers extended" signals the aircraft to start engines.
- Taxiway edge lights are fixed and show blue color, while runway edge lights typically show white.
Flight Planning & Reporting
- A flight plan for a controlled flight must be submitted at least 60 minutes before departure.
- In case of a delay exceeding 30 minutes of the estimated departure time, the flight plan must be amended or cancelled.
Navigation and Procedures
- When instructed to resume own navigation, radar service is terminated, but pilots must maintain navigation using equipment.
- Instrument runways are designed for operations using instrument approach procedures, including categories I, II, and III.
Wake Turbulence
- Aircraft must announce their wake turbulence category during initial contact with ATC prior to departure.
Holding Patterns
- In a standard holding pattern, turns are made to the right and outbound timing is generally 1 minute up to FL 140.
- Maximum speed when entering a holding pattern at FL 110 should not exceed 230 knots IAS.
Approach Procedures
- The OCA (Obstacle Clearance Altitude) during ILS approaches is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
- Descent gradient in the intermediate approach segment should be kept low to ensure full obstacle clearance.
Definitions and Areas
- Stopway is an area at the end of the take-off run available where an aircraft can stop if an aborted take-off occurs.
- A defined rectangular area for an aborted take-off is called stopway; it may also include a runway end safety area.
Climb Gradients
- The normal climb gradient for missed approaches is approximately 2.5%.
- Climb gradients are adjusted depending on the number of functioning engines during take-off.
Circling Approaches
- A circling approach is a visual flight maneuver that maintains the runway in sight and is not dependent on radar vectoring.
- Visual manoeuvring (circling) refers to the phase of flight after completing an instrument approach to position for landing.
Miscellaneous
- White lines drawn across a runway indicate the threshold, while runway threshold lights usually show green.
- When conducting IFR to VFR transitions, it’s generally up to the aircraft commander’s discretion based on the conditions.### Instrument Approach and Missed Approach Procedures
- If visual reference is lost during a circling approach, initiate a climbing turn toward the landing runway and follow missed approach procedures.
- On a non-precision approach, a straight-in approach angle must be 30 degrees or less from the runway centerline.
- The maximum descent gradient during the final approach section to ensure obstacle clearance is typically 6.5%.
- Minimum obstacle clearance for the intermediate phase of a missed approach is 30 m (98 ft).
Altitude and Approach Regulations
- Minimum sector altitudes relate to the inbound radial from the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), with sectors typically marked to 25 nm.
- The minimum decision height (MDH) during a straight-in approach cannot be below 200 ft or the obstacle clearance height (OCH).
- The missed approach procedure commences at the missed approach point or any point criteria are not met.
Communication and Transponder Codes
- In cases of unlawful interference, the minimum transponder code to indicate distress is 7500.
- Special purpose codes for SSR include: Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7600.
Navigation Performance Standards
- Required Navigation Performance (RNP) is established by states based on regional agreements.
- Longitudinal separation minima between the same cruising level aircraft is typically 10 minutes, decreasing based on speed differentials.
- For distance separation using DME, the minimum is set at 10 nm, or 20 nm when speed differentials exceed 20 knots.
Holding Patterns and Flight Levels
- Standard holding patterns below 14,000 ft involve right-hand turns with a leg length of 1 minute outbound.
- The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be lower than 1,500 ft, and vertical positioning should be expressed as altitude above sea level when above this altitude.
Approaches and Landings
- Independent parallel approaches are permitted if the missed approach tracks diverge by at least 20 degrees.
- Category I, II, and III precision approaches vary by decision height, with CAT III B requiring a runway visual range of at least 150 m.
- In MNPS airspace, aircraft must be equipped with at least two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
Emergency Procedures
- Following an emergency landing, clear the runway using the nearest taxiway and avoid powering systems unnecessarily.
- The definition of a safe forced landing is one where no injuries are reasonably expected.
Weather and Runway Conditions
- A runway with 4 mm of standing water is considered contaminated.
- The maximum validity for snow-related reports (SNOWTAM) is typically 24 hours.
Wake Turbulence and Safety Measures
- To avoid wake turbulence, maintain altitude above and downwind of larger departing aircraft.
- Wake turbulence is more pronounced during high-weight, high-speed phases of flight.
Landing Distance Adjustments
- Landing distances on wet runways should be increased by 15-20% based on the conditions specified in operational manuals.
A350 Question Bank Highlights
- Type ratings established for aircraft with a minimum crew of two pilots and necessary types of helicopters.
- An applicant for ATPL(A) must demonstrate pilot-in-command ability for aircraft with a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.
- VFR flight restrictions state it cannot enter or leave a control zone with a ceiling less than 1,500 feet or visibility less than 5 kilometers without ATC clearance.
- Final authority during flight belongs to the commander of the aircraft.
- Priority for landing: Hospital aircraft carrying critical patients have the highest priority.
- Intercepted aircraft should select the SSR transponder code of 7500 unless instructed otherwise.
- Radio communications during interception should be established on 121.5 MHz.
- To signal "you may proceed," an intercepting aircraft must rock its wings and flash navigational lights.
- An aircraft experiencing radio failure in the traffic pattern indicates difficulties by switching landing lights on and off.
- A flashing red light from the control tower during landing means the airport is unsafe for landing.
- In case of a controlled flight deviating from track, the aircraft should notify ATC and comply with instructions.
- When a pilot deviates from ATC clearance due to an emergency, squawking 7700 is mandatory.
- Signalman signals for applying parking brakes with specific arm movements.
- If an aircraft loses radio communications while flying under IFR, it must continue to destination, adhering to last received clearances.
- A red flare means "Dangerous airfield. Do not land."
- Anti-collision lights must be on when engines are running, outside daylight hours, or during taxiing.
- The white dumb-bell with a black bar indicates that landing and taxiing are allowed only on designated surfaces.
- Unlawfully interfered aircraft must try to divert and maintain a specific altitude during hijacking situations.
- In the aerodrome's traffic circuit, a series of green flashes indicates that the aircraft is cleared to land.
- A series of red flashes from the control tower during taxiing means the aircraft must stop.
- A procedure turn is executed with a 45° turn away from the outbound track.
- In an instrument approach, the final approach segment involves alignment and descent for landing.
- Glide path intersections in precision approaches typically occur at altitudes above 150m to 300m.
- The maximum time on a 30° offset track during a racetrack procedure is limited to 1 minute.
- An instrument approach procedure generally consists of up to 4 separate segments.
- Missed approach procedures are based on a typical climb gradient of 3.3%.
- Loading limitations include all limiting mass, centers of gravity positions, and floor loadings.
- Load factors define the ratio of specified loads to aircraft weight in operational conditions.
- The assignment of a common mark for an aircraft is made by the state of registry.
- The registration mark must be assigned by the state of registry or common mark authority.
- The certificate of registration must be onboard the aircraft at all times.
- The instrument-rating aeroplane (IR(A)) is valid for 1 year.
- Minimum age for commercial pilot license applications is 18 years.
- Applicants for commercial pilot licenses must hold a current class 1 medical assessment.
- The validity of a medical assessment begins when issued.
- Medical examination intervals are reduced to 6 months for pilots over 40.
- The Chicago convention outlines the rights of contracting states for transit flights without prior permission.
- Rules for aircraft flying over high seas are regulated by the state of registry.
- ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPs).
- The Tokyo convention allows aircraft commanders to impose measures against criminals on board.
- The Montreal convention unifies rules regarding damage caused by aircraft to third parties.
- Annex 17 of the Chicago convention pertains to aviation security.
- ICAO sets standards and practices for member states in civil aviation.
- ICAO was established by the Chicago convention.
- The second freedom of the air allows for technical stop landings.
- The first freedom of the air allows for overflight without landing.
- Lighted stop bars at an aerodrome must only be crossed with tower authorization.
- Flight plans must be filed at least 60 minutes before flight or 10 minutes before reaching control area entry points.
- ATS must be notified if the estimated time to the next reporting point differs by three minutes or more.### Distress Signals and Aircraft Interception
- Distress signals include a parachute flare showing a red light and the repeated switching on and off of landing/navigation lights but not the spoken words "pan, pan."
- An intercepted aircraft should set its transponder to Mode A code 7700 unless directed otherwise.
Aerodrome Signals
- A horizontal white dumb-bell displayed on an aerodrome signals that aircraft must land and take-off on runways only.
- The signal for starting engines involves raising an arm with fingers extended and then clenching a fist.
Flight Planning and Delay Procedures
- Flight plans for controlled flights need to be submitted at least 30 minutes before departure.
- If a delay exceeds 30 minutes beyond the estimated time off blocks, the flight plan must be amended or a new one submitted.
Wake Turbulence and ATC Procedures
- Aircraft should state their wake turbulence category after their call sign when contacting aerodrome control.
- If an ATC clearance is unsuitable, the pilot may request an amended clearance that ATC will consider.
Runway and Taxiway Layout
- Taxiway edge lights are fixed and emit blue light, while runway edge lights are fixed, showing white.
- The color indicating a displaced threshold on a runway is defined by specific markers as well as runway end safety areas.
Flight Safety Procedures
- In the case of a holding pattern, turns should be made to the right unless specified otherwise, with outbound timing set to one minute below FL 140 and two minutes above.
- During approach procedures, maintaining a low descent gradient is essential for obstacle clearance.
Instrument Procedures and VOR Approaches
- On a VOR approach, descent can continue below the OCA only if the pilot has visual contact with the runway lights.
- The expected track during an instrument departure requires the pilot to correct for wind to remain within protected airspace.
Missed Approach and Holding Patterns
- Standard holding pattern timing below FL 140 is one minute, while above FL 140 is typically two minutes.
- Climb gradients for missed approach procedures are designed to be based on optimal operational criteria, typically around 2.5% to 3.3%.
Visual and Circling Approaches
- A visual approach involves positioning for landing when a runway is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.
- Circling approaches require the pilot to maintain visual reference to the runway, particularly important in IFR conditions.
Aerodrome Lighting Systems
- Various lighting systems are designated for aerodromes, with identification beacons using specific color codes defined by regulations.
- The PAPI system guides pilots visually during approach, indicating their position relative to the glide slope through colored light indications.
Other Key Terms
- Aircraft transition from IFR to VFR typically occurs when leaving controlled airspace in clear conditions.
- Definitions related to runway safety areas, including considerations for stopway and clearway, provide guidelines for preventing runway incursions.
Instrument Approach and Missed Approach Procedures
- If visual reference is lost while circling to land, initiate a climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow missed approach procedures.
- Non-precision straight-in approaches are acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and runway centerline is 30 degrees or less.
- The maximum descent gradient in the final approach segment for obstacle clearance is typically 5%.
- Minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) during the intermediate phase of a missed approach is set at 50 m (164 ft).
Sector Altitudes and Approach Levels
- Minimum sector altitudes are based on the inbound radial from the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and apply for a distance of 25 nm.
- The Minimum Decision Height (MDH) during a straight-in approach cannot be below the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH).
Emergency Procedures and Transponder Codes
- In situations of unlawful interference, the pilot should set the transponder to code 7500.
- Specific special purpose codes for SSR include:
- Distress: 7700
- Hijacking: 7500
- Communication failure: 7600
Separation Minima and Holding Patterns
- Change-over points should be limited to segments of 60 nm or more, with longitudinal separation minima based on time as follows:
- 10 minutes if the preceding aircraft is 20 knots or more faster.
- 15 minutes if the preceding aircraft is at least 40 knots faster.
- Standard holding patterns below 14,000 ft have right-hand turns with a 1-minute outbound leg.
Transition Levels and Flight Procedures
- The transition altitude should not be below 1,500 ft, with the vertical position expressed in altitude above sea level when above this altitude.
- Airspace transition from altitude to flight level occurs at transition altitude for ascent and transition level for descent.
Aircraft Operations in MNPS Airspace
- Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace extends from 27° North to 70° North and between flight levels of 280 and 400.
- Longitudinal spacing at the same Mach number in MNPS airspace requires a minimum of 10 minutes.
Emergency Landings and Fuel Jettisoning
- After an emergency landing, clear the runway using the first available taxiway while turning off all systems.
- If jettisoning fuel, it is advised to do so at a high flight level rather than during final approach.
Runway Conditions and Wake Turbulence
- A runway with 4 mm of standing water is classified as contaminated.
- Landing on a flooded runway should involve a smooth landing and the use of lift dumpers, while the approach speed may need adjustment.
- Wake turbulence is most significant when the aircraft is heavy and traveling at high speeds, requiring pilots to maneuver downwind and below larger departing aircraft to avoid turbulence.
Additional Key Points
- Category II precision approaches have a decision height of at least 100 ft.
- A category III A precision approach can operate with a minimum runway visual range of 200 m.
- Following an HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate frequency for air-air communications is 121.800 MHz.
A350 Question Bank Highlights
- Type ratings established for aircraft with a minimum crew of two pilots and necessary types of helicopters.
- An applicant for ATPL(A) must demonstrate pilot-in-command ability for aircraft with a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.
- VFR flight restrictions state it cannot enter or leave a control zone with a ceiling less than 1,500 feet or visibility less than 5 kilometers without ATC clearance.
- Final authority during flight belongs to the commander of the aircraft.
- Priority for landing: Hospital aircraft carrying critical patients have the highest priority.
- Intercepted aircraft should select the SSR transponder code of 7500 unless instructed otherwise.
- Radio communications during interception should be established on 121.5 MHz.
- To signal "you may proceed," an intercepting aircraft must rock its wings and flash navigational lights.
- An aircraft experiencing radio failure in the traffic pattern indicates difficulties by switching landing lights on and off.
- A flashing red light from the control tower during landing means the airport is unsafe for landing.
- In case of a controlled flight deviating from track, the aircraft should notify ATC and comply with instructions.
- When a pilot deviates from ATC clearance due to an emergency, squawking 7700 is mandatory.
- Signalman signals for applying parking brakes with specific arm movements.
- If an aircraft loses radio communications while flying under IFR, it must continue to destination, adhering to last received clearances.
- A red flare means "Dangerous airfield. Do not land."
- Anti-collision lights must be on when engines are running, outside daylight hours, or during taxiing.
- The white dumb-bell with a black bar indicates that landing and taxiing are allowed only on designated surfaces.
- Unlawfully interfered aircraft must try to divert and maintain a specific altitude during hijacking situations.
- In the aerodrome's traffic circuit, a series of green flashes indicates that the aircraft is cleared to land.
- A series of red flashes from the control tower during taxiing means the aircraft must stop.
- A procedure turn is executed with a 45° turn away from the outbound track.
- In an instrument approach, the final approach segment involves alignment and descent for landing.
- Glide path intersections in precision approaches typically occur at altitudes above 150m to 300m.
- The maximum time on a 30° offset track during a racetrack procedure is limited to 1 minute.
- An instrument approach procedure generally consists of up to 4 separate segments.
- Missed approach procedures are based on a typical climb gradient of 3.3%.
- Loading limitations include all limiting mass, centers of gravity positions, and floor loadings.
- Load factors define the ratio of specified loads to aircraft weight in operational conditions.
- The assignment of a common mark for an aircraft is made by the state of registry.
- The registration mark must be assigned by the state of registry or common mark authority.
- The certificate of registration must be onboard the aircraft at all times.
- The instrument-rating aeroplane (IR(A)) is valid for 1 year.
- Minimum age for commercial pilot license applications is 18 years.
- Applicants for commercial pilot licenses must hold a current class 1 medical assessment.
- The validity of a medical assessment begins when issued.
- Medical examination intervals are reduced to 6 months for pilots over 40.
- The Chicago convention outlines the rights of contracting states for transit flights without prior permission.
- Rules for aircraft flying over high seas are regulated by the state of registry.
- ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPs).
- The Tokyo convention allows aircraft commanders to impose measures against criminals on board.
- The Montreal convention unifies rules regarding damage caused by aircraft to third parties.
- Annex 17 of the Chicago convention pertains to aviation security.
- ICAO sets standards and practices for member states in civil aviation.
- ICAO was established by the Chicago convention.
- The second freedom of the air allows for technical stop landings.
- The first freedom of the air allows for overflight without landing.
- Lighted stop bars at an aerodrome must only be crossed with tower authorization.
- Flight plans must be filed at least 60 minutes before flight or 10 minutes before reaching control area entry points.
- ATS must be notified if the estimated time to the next reporting point differs by three minutes or more.### Distress Signals and Aircraft Interception
- Distress signals include a parachute flare showing a red light and the repeated switching on and off of landing/navigation lights but not the spoken words "pan, pan."
- An intercepted aircraft should set its transponder to Mode A code 7700 unless directed otherwise.
Aerodrome Signals
- A horizontal white dumb-bell displayed on an aerodrome signals that aircraft must land and take-off on runways only.
- The signal for starting engines involves raising an arm with fingers extended and then clenching a fist.
Flight Planning and Delay Procedures
- Flight plans for controlled flights need to be submitted at least 30 minutes before departure.
- If a delay exceeds 30 minutes beyond the estimated time off blocks, the flight plan must be amended or a new one submitted.
Wake Turbulence and ATC Procedures
- Aircraft should state their wake turbulence category after their call sign when contacting aerodrome control.
- If an ATC clearance is unsuitable, the pilot may request an amended clearance that ATC will consider.
Runway and Taxiway Layout
- Taxiway edge lights are fixed and emit blue light, while runway edge lights are fixed, showing white.
- The color indicating a displaced threshold on a runway is defined by specific markers as well as runway end safety areas.
Flight Safety Procedures
- In the case of a holding pattern, turns should be made to the right unless specified otherwise, with outbound timing set to one minute below FL 140 and two minutes above.
- During approach procedures, maintaining a low descent gradient is essential for obstacle clearance.
Instrument Procedures and VOR Approaches
- On a VOR approach, descent can continue below the OCA only if the pilot has visual contact with the runway lights.
- The expected track during an instrument departure requires the pilot to correct for wind to remain within protected airspace.
Missed Approach and Holding Patterns
- Standard holding pattern timing below FL 140 is one minute, while above FL 140 is typically two minutes.
- Climb gradients for missed approach procedures are designed to be based on optimal operational criteria, typically around 2.5% to 3.3%.
Visual and Circling Approaches
- A visual approach involves positioning for landing when a runway is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.
- Circling approaches require the pilot to maintain visual reference to the runway, particularly important in IFR conditions.
Aerodrome Lighting Systems
- Various lighting systems are designated for aerodromes, with identification beacons using specific color codes defined by regulations.
- The PAPI system guides pilots visually during approach, indicating their position relative to the glide slope through colored light indications.
Other Key Terms
- Aircraft transition from IFR to VFR typically occurs when leaving controlled airspace in clear conditions.
- Definitions related to runway safety areas, including considerations for stopway and clearway, provide guidelines for preventing runway incursions.
Instrument Approach and Missed Approach Procedures
- If visual reference is lost while circling to land, initiate a climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow missed approach procedures.
- Non-precision straight-in approaches are acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and runway centerline is 30 degrees or less.
- The maximum descent gradient in the final approach segment for obstacle clearance is typically 5%.
- Minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) during the intermediate phase of a missed approach is set at 50 m (164 ft).
Sector Altitudes and Approach Levels
- Minimum sector altitudes are based on the inbound radial from the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and apply for a distance of 25 nm.
- The Minimum Decision Height (MDH) during a straight-in approach cannot be below the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH).
Emergency Procedures and Transponder Codes
- In situations of unlawful interference, the pilot should set the transponder to code 7500.
- Specific special purpose codes for SSR include:
- Distress: 7700
- Hijacking: 7500
- Communication failure: 7600
Separation Minima and Holding Patterns
- Change-over points should be limited to segments of 60 nm or more, with longitudinal separation minima based on time as follows:
- 10 minutes if the preceding aircraft is 20 knots or more faster.
- 15 minutes if the preceding aircraft is at least 40 knots faster.
- Standard holding patterns below 14,000 ft have right-hand turns with a 1-minute outbound leg.
Transition Levels and Flight Procedures
- The transition altitude should not be below 1,500 ft, with the vertical position expressed in altitude above sea level when above this altitude.
- Airspace transition from altitude to flight level occurs at transition altitude for ascent and transition level for descent.
Aircraft Operations in MNPS Airspace
- Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace extends from 27° North to 70° North and between flight levels of 280 and 400.
- Longitudinal spacing at the same Mach number in MNPS airspace requires a minimum of 10 minutes.
Emergency Landings and Fuel Jettisoning
- After an emergency landing, clear the runway using the first available taxiway while turning off all systems.
- If jettisoning fuel, it is advised to do so at a high flight level rather than during final approach.
Runway Conditions and Wake Turbulence
- A runway with 4 mm of standing water is classified as contaminated.
- Landing on a flooded runway should involve a smooth landing and the use of lift dumpers, while the approach speed may need adjustment.
- Wake turbulence is most significant when the aircraft is heavy and traveling at high speeds, requiring pilots to maneuver downwind and below larger departing aircraft to avoid turbulence.
Additional Key Points
- Category II precision approaches have a decision height of at least 100 ft.
- A category III A precision approach can operate with a minimum runway visual range of 200 m.
- Following an HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate frequency for air-air communications is 121.800 MHz.
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Test your knowledge on the A350 aircraft operations and regulations with this comprehensive question bank. Designed for aviation enthusiasts and professionals, it covers essential topics related to type ratings and crew certification. See how well you understand the requirements and guidelines for the A350!
