A350 Question Bank Quiz

What is the first freedom of the air?

What applies when crossing lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?

When must a flight plan be filed at the latest?

If the estimated time for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, what is the requirement?

Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

What does a horizontal white dumb-bell displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome mean?

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:

What does the signal 'Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist' mean?

An ETA for an IFR flight refers to which of the following?

Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:

What defines a danger area?

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover when the clouds are:

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least:

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:

In case of an en-route HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is:

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

Following an emergency landing, the appropriate action is:

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy airplane is following directly behind another heavy airplane on the approach to the same runway?

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft, you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps:

When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:

The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

A category I precision approach (CAT I) may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:

For turbo-jet aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights showing in the direction of the approach?

High intensity obstacle lights should be:

Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?

The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:

The combination regrouping all the correct statements regarding a diminution of the take-off run is:

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:

In which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?

The combination regrouping all the correct statements in case of an unexpected encounter with windshear is:

Windshear is defined as:

Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:

For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a __________ will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks.

A pilot _______ accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft.

Which statement regarding the correct crew procedure to follow before arming the BTV is accurate?

What is the objective of BTV?

BTV is certified on all runway conditions.

Can you use BTV when the active NOTAM states 'slippery when wet'?

What happens with the BTV when a late runway change occurs?

Does BTV remain operative in the case of overweight landing?

Type ratings shall be established:

According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed'?

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?

While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:

A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:

While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, a series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:

You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:

In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:

In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

The loading limitations shall include:

The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:

Load factors has the following meaning:

The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

The certificate of registration shall:

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:

The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:

An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:

According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?

According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?

Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:

Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on?

What is the 'triple click'?

Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway?

The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence.

The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is:

When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately?

Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running?

During cockpit preparation, who is responsible to compute preliminary takeoff data?

What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start?

Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case?

The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints:

What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures?

What is the definition of thrust margin?

When does the 'REC MAX FL' decrease in flight?

What does GREENDOT speed do?

What does the REC MAX FL indicate?

How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test?

The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxiway closures.

What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection?

The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed?

When is it possible to land?

If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made to:

In the ILS approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?

What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?

What is the action to take if unable to comply with a standard holding pattern?

In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at:

Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, what will be the maximum speed?

Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:

What is the term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach?

A circling approach is:

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

On a non-precision approach, a 'straight-in approach' is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:

What is the maximum descent gradient applicable in the final approach segment?

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

During a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost, the pilot shall:

Where does the missed approach procedure start?

When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?

Except in some special cases, the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:

Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level is:

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level, if the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed at least 40 kt faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:

When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:

Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?

Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:

The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:

Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed in:

During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:

The transition level shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:

Normally, all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:

An 'RNAV' distance-based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' waypoint. This minimum is:

One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:

What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?

During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:

When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable interception at an angle not greater than:

Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?

Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

Type ratings shall be established:

According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed'?

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?

While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:

A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:

While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, a series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:

You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:

In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:

In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

The loading limitations shall include:

Load factors has the following meaning:

The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:

The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

The certificate of registration shall:

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:

The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:

An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:

According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?

According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?

Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:

The second freedom of the air is the:

Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on?

What is the 'triple click'?

Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway?

The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence.

The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is:

When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately?

Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running?

During cockpit preparation, who is responsible to compute preliminary take off data?

What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start?

Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case?

The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints:

What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures?

What is the definition of thrust margin?

When does the 'REC MAX FL' decrease in flight?

What does GREENDOT speed do?

What does the REC MAX FL indicate?

How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test?

The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxiway closures.

What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection?

The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed?

If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to:

In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?

What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?

What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?

In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a:

Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, what will be the maximum speed?

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL140?

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL140?

In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:

The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach, is:

A circling approach is:

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

On a non-precision approach, a so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:

Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is:

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

If, during visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:

Where does the missed approach procedure start?

When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?

Except in some special cases, the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:

Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed is:

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft is:

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft is:

The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:

When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:

Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?

Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:

The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:

Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:

During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:

The transition level:

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:

Normally, all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:

A 'RNAV' distance-based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' waypoint. This minimum is:

One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:

Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:

What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?

During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:

When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:

Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?

Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

A category II precision approach (CAT II) has a decision height of at least:

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is:

For operations in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency is:

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is:

After an emergency landing, the combination of correct actions you should take is:

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:

In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, which language should be set for markings related to dangerous goods:

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on:

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain, the combination of correct actions is:

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be:

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:

The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:

For wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy airplane is following directly behind another heavy airplane on approach?

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes is applicable to:

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes wake turbulence separation minima based on aircraft types. The Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of:

In the case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft, disregarding any fuel considerations:

The first freedom of the air is:

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom should the commander submit a report of the act?

What transponder code should be used for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference:

To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:

When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?

An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to:

For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that does not exceed:

If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:

Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that conditions are:

When refueling while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:

A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:

The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:

Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist. This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:

The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

A category I precision approach (CAT I) requires a runway visual range of at least:

An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:

The term decision height (DH) is used for:

Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:

What defines a danger area?

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than:

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:

The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account:

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

Where a runway has a displaced threshold, the color of the edge lights is:

What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off under operating minimums below an RVR of approximately 400 m?

High intensity obstacle lights should be:

Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers for survival equipment uses colored streamers with the following code:

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers containing survival equipment is:

The ground-air visual code illustrated means:

Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?

Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:

For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude must be chosen to be:

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

The combination regrouping all the correct statements regarding a diminution of the take-off run is:

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection following an anti-icing procedure will be in which weather conditions?

In which weather conditions will the holdover time be shortest?

Which magnitude will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, which combination of actions is correct?

Windshear is defined as:

As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left-hand seat as PNF/PM only:

The objective of CRM is to enhance:

Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:

A crew member should not donate blood within:

If the time difference between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more, the subsequent rest period is at least as long as:

A clearance must be read back to ATC in the case of clearances received:

Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much _____ than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.

Pressure correction: When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa, the minimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is __________ than the standard atmosphere (1013 hPa).

Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:

Company aircraft are categorized as follows:

Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below __________ on the final approach segment.

Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly:

For ETOPS flights above 120 minutes, take-off alternate distance for B787-9/A350-900 is:

The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows:

Which statement is correct regarding compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance?

For depressurization, the aircraft gross flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:

When passenger checked baggage is not weighed, the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used:

An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than:

Blocktime calculation method for each duty augmented flight crew member:

Last minute change means any change concerning passengers, crew or cargo occurring after the using of the load sheet. This LMC must immediately be communicated if take-off weight variation exceeds the following values per aircraft type:

A pilot ______ accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply.

Crew members should keep walking in line in the terminal or public areas in the following orders:

Crew members shall yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:

If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with:

Which statement is correct for making a visible record of each ATC clearance?

All flight crew members on duty MUST bring:

A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew:

For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a __________ will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks.

ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt via ACARS data link network, giving his:

Airport Rescue and Fire-fighting category for B787-9/A350-900 is:

Can any fluctuation caution be deleted by the EMER cancel PB?

What specific action is required for a green pulsating advisory?

BTV aims to:

What is the objective of BTV?

Is BTV certified on all runway conditions?

Can you use BTV when the active NOTAM states 'slippery when wet'?

What is the correct crew procedure to follow before arming the BTV?

After the flight crew has armed the BTV, what must they check?

What is the correct BTV procedure when there is a runway change?

When BTV is armed, can the flight crew modify the BTV exit without disarming BTV?

When BTV is armed, can the end label be displayed?

What happens with the BTV when a late runway change occurs?

Does BTV remain operative in the case of overweight landing?

If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb in time on the ground, what will happen?

If the crew presses the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb twice, what will happen?

In the case of a missed exit, what should the crew do?

What does BTV take into account for landing on a wet runway?

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode 'A':

The second freedom of the air is the:

When is a descent made at the stepdown fix on the final approach track?

In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?

What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?

What will you do if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?

In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a:

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?

A visual manoeuvring (circling) is only performed under radar vectoring.

Visual reference must be maintained while circling to land from an instrument approach.

Type ratings shall be established:

According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and maneuvers of an aeroplane type certificated for:

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?

Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'you may proceed'?

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:

An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:

According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

Is it recommended to fly manually with the FDs on?

What is the 'triple click'?

Can the ROW/ROP correctly detect the landing runway?

The rudder can be used to introduce roll and counter roll induced by any type of turbulence.

The height of the aircraft above the terrain display as shown on the VD is:

When WX pb is pressed on the EFIS CP, is a complete display available immediately?

Should the flight crew press the APU fire test pb if the APU is already running?

During cockpit preparation, who is responsible for computing preliminary take-off data?

What happens if the ENG start selector remains in the IGN/START position after engine start?

Is the triggering of the alpha lock function a normal situation in any case?

The crew should enter wind and temperature changes into the F-PLN of the FMS when between waypoints:

What factors can cause a speed decay in cruise on an aircraft with no failures?

What is the definition of thrust margin?

When does the 'REC MAX FL' decrease in flight?

What does GREENDOT speed do?

What does the REC MAX FL indicate?

How should the crew perform the gear bay fire test?

The ANF function takes into account NOTAMS concerning taxiway closures.

What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle at low speeds with full rudder deflection?

The nose wheel steering system is efficient up to what speed?

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with?

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is?

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is?

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft must be equipped with at least?

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is?

The MNPS airspace extends from?

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is?

Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will?

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so?

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by?

In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods?

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on?

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be?

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is?

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways, the required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by?

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver?

The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a?

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane?

What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference?

An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to?

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions are?

When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that?

What is the first freedom of the air?

The combination regrouping all the correct statements regarding take-off run, stalling speed, and climb gradient is:

What applies when crossing lighted stop bars on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome?

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on the following statements. Which is the correct combination?

When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?

For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection from anti-icing procedures will be in which weather conditions?

If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, when should a revised estimate be notified?

In which type of weather condition will the holdover time be shortest?

Which magnitude will be the first to change value when penetrating a windshear?

Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, which statements are correct?

A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:

Windshear is defined as:

What does the signal 'Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist' from a signalman to an aircraft indicate?

A first officer can operate on the left-hand seat as PNF/PM only:

What does ETA for an IFR flight refer to?

The objective of CRM is to enhance:

Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:

Aircraft on the maneuvering area have to give way to:

What defines a danger area?

A crew member should not donate blood within:

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:

If the time difference (TD) between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more:

When on a RNP 1 route, what does 'a342 z' indicate?

A clearance must be read back to ATC and confirmed between both pilot crew members in the case of clearances received:

When on a RNP 1 route, what does 'b235 y' indicate?

Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.

A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

Pressure correction: The minimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is ----------- than the standard atmosphere (1013hPa).

Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:

In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, when should the submitted flight plan be amended or cancelled?

Company aircraft are categorized as follows:

Who is responsible for ensuring an ATC clearance is safe with respect to terrain clearance?

Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final approach segment.

In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, when should the flight plan be amended or a new one submitted?

Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:

Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly:

Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact?

For ETOPS flights above 120 minutes, take-off alternate distance for B787-9/A350-900 is:

The standard weight of crew, passengers, and cargo for normal flights is as follows:

If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

Which statement is correct regarding compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance?

Taxiway edge lights shall be:

For depressurization, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:

Runway end lights shall be:

Runway threshold lights shall be:

When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed, what is the standard weight per piece of checked baggage used?

An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than:

Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

Which statement about block time calculation for each duty augmented flight crew member is correct?

What defines a last minute change (LMC)?

The light shown by an 'aerodrome identification beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:

A pilot ________ accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft.

In the 'VASIS', how many light units are in each wing bar?

Crew members should keep walking in line (single or double) in the following orders:

What color is taxiway edge lighting?

Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:

What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with:

What color are runway edge lights?

What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to an airway?

Which statement is correct regarding recording ATC clearance?

All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring:

What does 'radar contact' mean to the pilot?

When a radar operator says to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:

A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying:

For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport is isolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a __________ will be calculated and included in the flight plan remarks.

"A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for:

ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his _____.

"An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for:

What is 'ASDA' (acceleration stop distance available)?